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Exam Code: 70-413
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure
Q&As: 245

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070-413 dumps

Latest and Most Accurate Pass4itsure 070-413 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION NO: 31
Adam works as a professional Penetration tester. A project has been assigned to him to employ penetration testing on the network of Umbrella Inc. He is running the test from home and had downloaded every security scanner from the Internet. Despite knowing the IP range of all of the systems, and the exact network configuration, Adam is unable to get any useful results. Which of the following is the most like cause of this problem?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Security scanners are only as smart as their database and cannot find unpublished vulnerabilities.
B. Security scanners cannot perform vulnerability linkage.
C. Security scanners are smart as their database and can find unpublished vulnerabilities.
D. Security scanners are not designed to do testing through a firewall.
070-413 exam Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 32
An organization monitors the hard disks of its employees’ computers from time to time. Which policy does this pertain to?
A. Network security policy
B. User password policy
C. Privacy policy
D. Backup policy
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 33
You work as a Network Administrator for Net World International. You have configured the hard disk drive of your computer as shown in the image below: The computer is configured to dual-boot with Windows 2000 Server and Windows 98. While working on Windows 2000 Server, you save a file on the 6GB partition. You are unable to find the file while working on Windows 98. You are not even able to access the partition on which the file is saved. What is the most likely cause?
A. The file is corrupt.
B. The 6GB partition is corrupt.
C. Windows 98 does not support the NTFS file system.
D. Files saved in Windows 98 are not supported by Windows 2000.
070-413 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 34
Peter works as a Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator. He has been called by an organization to conduct a seminar to give necessary information related to sexual harassment within the workplace. Peter started with the definition and types of sexual harassment. He then wants to convey that it is important that records of the sexual harassment incidents should be maintained, which helps in further legal prosecution. Which of the following data should be recorded in this documentation?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Names of the victims
B. Date and time of incident
C. Nature of harassment
D. Location of each incident
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 35
Which of the following types of computers is used for attracting potential intruders?
A. Bastion host
B. Data pot
C. Files pot
D. Honey pot
070-413 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 36
Which of the following standard file formats is used by Apple’s iPod to store contact information?
A. HFS+
B. hCard
C. vCard
D. FAT32
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 37
Which of the following file systems cannot be used to install an operating system on the hard disk drive? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Windows NT file system (NTFS)
B. High-Performance File System (HPFS)
C. Log-structured file system (LFS)
D. Compact Disc File System (CDFS)
E. Novell Storage Services (NSS)
070-413 vce Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 38
Which of the following types of evidence proves or disproves a specific act through oral testimony based on information gathered through the witness’s five senses?
A. Conclusive evidence
B. Best evidence
C. Hearsay evidence
D. Direct evidence
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 39
Which of the following two cryptography methods are used by NTFS Encrypting File System (EFS) to encrypt the data stored on a disk on a file-by-file basis?
A. Digital certificates
B. Public key
C. RSA
D. Twofish
070-413 exam Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 40
Which of the following sections of an investigative report covers the background and summary of the report including the outcome of the case and the list of allegations?
A. Section 2
B. Section 4
C. Section 3
D. Section 1
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 41
Which of the following switches of the XCOPY command copies attributes while copying files?
A. /o
B. /p
C. /k
D. /s
070-413 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 42
Which of the following directories in Linux operating system contains device files, which refers to physical devices?
A. /boot
B. /etc
C. /dev
D. /bin
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 43
Which of the following directories cannot be placed out of the root filesystem? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. /sbin
B. /etc
C. /var
D. /lib
070-413 pdf Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 44
On which of the following locations does the Windows NT/2000 operating system contain the SAM, SAM.LOG, SECURITY.LOG, APPLICATION.LOG, and EVENT.LOG files?
A. \%Systemroot%system32
B. \%Systemroot%profiles
C. \%Systemroot%system32config
D. \%Systemroot%help
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 45
You are handling technical support calls for an insurance company. A user calls you complaining that he cannot open a file, and that the file name appears in green while opening in Windows Explorer.
What does this mean?
A. The file is encrypted.
B. The file belongs to another user.
C. The file is infected with virus.
D. The file is compressed.
070-413 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 46
Which of the following is a name, symbol, or slogan with which a product is identified?
A. Trade secret
B. Patent
C. Copyright
D. Trademark
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 47
Which of the following file systems supports the hot fixing feature?
A. FAT16
B. exFAT
C. FAT32
D. NTFS
070-413 exam Answer: D

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[Ensure Pass PDF Exam From Google Drive] Preparing for Latest Updated 70-461 PDF Microsoft SQL Server 2012 70-461 Practice Test Online on Yumpu

Today I passed the exam in 1st attempt.
I have a Data-warehouse and BI experience of over 3 years, which obviously helped.
Questions where you actually have to implement things you learn would be easy you have database experience.
For other questions, the Preparation is good enough. I had one pass over the entire book, but it was a detailed one.
I would say 2 weeks of time is good enough ( if you actually sit and study on all these days Big Smile )
All the best for anyone preparing for this Microsoft https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-461.html pdf !!

Exam Code: 70-461
Exam Name: Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Jul 21, 2017
Q&As: 164

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070-461

Pass4itsure  Latest and Most Accurate 70-461 PDF Dumps Exam Q&As:

Question No: 26 You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a table named Products.
The Products table has the following definition:070-461

You need to create an audit record only when either the retail price or wholesale price
the column is updated.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF CCLUMNS_CHANGED(retail price, wholesale price)
– – Create Audit Records
B. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF EXISTS(SELECT RetailPrice from inserted) OR
EXISTS (SELECT WholeSalePnce FROM inserted)
– – Create Audit Records
C. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF COLUMNS_UPDATED(retail price, wholesale price)

– – Create Audit Records
D. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF UPDATE(retail price) OR UPDATE(wholesale price)
– – Create Audit Records
070-461 pdf Answer: D

Question No: 27 A table named Profits stores the total profit made each year within a territory. The Profits
the table has columns named Territory, Year, and Profit.
You need to create a report that displays the profits made by each territory for each year
and its previous year.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
B. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
C. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
D. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
Answer: C

Question No: 28 You use Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database to develop a shopping cart application.
You need to rotate the unique values of the ProductName field of a table-valued expression
into multiple columns in the output.
Which Transact-SQL operator should you use?
A. CROSS JOIN
B. CROSS APPLY
C. PIVOT
D. UNPIVOT
070-461 exam 
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No: 29  You administer a Microsoft SQL Server database that supports a shopping application.
You need to retrieve a list of customers who live in territories that do not have a salesperson. Which Transact- SQL query or queries should you use? (Each correct answer presents a
complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer
WHERE TerritoryID <> SOME(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson)
B. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer
WHERE TerritoryID <> ALL(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson)
C. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer
WHERE TerritoryID <> ANY(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson)
D. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer
WHERE TerritoryID NOT IN(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson) Answer: B, D
You support a database structure shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
Question No: 30
070-461

Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total
FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson
ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID
GROUP BY GROUPING SETS((SalesPerson.Name, Country, City, DatePart(yyyy,
SaleDate)), (Country, City), (Country), ())
B. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total
FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson
ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID
GROUP BY CUBE(SalesPerson.Name, Country, City, DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate))
C. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total
FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson
ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID
GROUP BY CUBE(SalesPerson.Name, DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate), City, Country)
D. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total
FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson
ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID

GROUP BY ROLLUP(SalesPerson.Name, DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate), City, Country)
070-461 dumps 
Answer: A
Explanation:
Be careful with this question, because on an exam can be different options for answer.
And none of them is correct : D You should report this question.

You are developing a database that will contain price information. You need to store the
prices that include a fixed precision and a scale of six digits. Which data type should you
use?
A. Float
B. Money
C. Small money
D. Numeric
Answer: D
Explanation:
Numeric is the only one in the list that can give a fixed precision and scale.
Question No: 31
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server database that supports a banking transaction
management application.
You need to retrieve a list of account holders who live in cities that do not have a branch
location.
Which Transact-SQL query or queries should you use? (Each correct answer presents a
Question No: 32
complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. SELECT AccountHolderID
FROM AccountHolder
WHERE CityID NOT IN (SELECT CityID FROM BranchMaster)
B. SELECT AccountHolderID
FROM AccountHolder
WHERE CityID <> ALL (SELECT CityID FROM BranchMaster)
C. SELECT AccountHolderlD
FROM AccountHolder
WHERE CityID <> SOME (SELECT CityID FROM BranchMaster)
D. SELECT AccountHolderID
FROM AccountHolder
WHERE CityID <> ANY (SELECT CityID FROM BranchMaster)
70-461 vce
Answer: A, B
Explanation:
Verified the answers as correct.
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The database contains a table
named Employee. Part of the Employee table is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit
button.)
Question No: 33
070-461

Confidential information about the employees is stored in a separate table named
employee data. One record exists within EmployeeData for each record in the Employee

table. You need to assign the appropriate constraints and table properties to ensure data
integrity and visibility. On which column in the Employee table should you create a unique
constraint?
A. DateHired
B. DepartmentID
C. employed
D. EmployeeNum
E. FirstName
F. JobTitle
G. LastName
H. MiddleName
I. ReportsToID
Answer: D
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The database contains a table
named Employee. Part of the Employee table is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit
button.)
Question No: 34
070-461

✑ ✑
Confidential information about the employees is stored in a separate table named
employee data. One record exists within EmployeeData for each record in the Employee
table.
You need to assign the appropriate constraints and table properties to ensure data integrity
and visibility.
On which column in the Employee table should you use an identity specification to include
a seed of 1,000 and an increment of 1?
A. DateHired
B. DepartmentID
C. EmployeeID
D. EmployeeNum
E. FirstName
F. JobTitle
G. LastName
H. MiddleName
I. ReportsToID
70-461 pdf
Answer: C
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that includes a table named
Products. The Products table has columns named Productld, ProductName, and
CreatedDateTime.
The table contains a unique constraint on the combination of ProductName and
CreatedDateTime.
You need to modify the Products table to meet the following requirements:
Remove all duplicates of the Products table based on the ProductName column.
Retain only the newest Product row.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. WITH CTEDupRecords
AS
Question No : 35
SELECT MAX(CreatedDateTime) AS CreatedDateTime, ProductName
FROM Products
GROUP BY ProductName
HAVING COUNT(*) > 1
)
DELETE p
FROM Products p
JOIN CTEDupRecords cte ON
B. ProductName = cte.ProductName
AND p.CreatedDateTime > cte.CreatedDateTime
C. WITH CTEDupRecords
AS
(
SELECT MAX(CreatedDateTime) AS CreatedDateTime, ProductName
FROM Products
GROUP BY ProductName
HAVING COUNT(*) > 1
)
DELETE p
FROM Products p
JOIN CTEDupRecords cte ON
cte.ProductName = p.ProductName
AND cte.CreatedDateTime > p.CreatedDateTime
D. WITH CTEDupRecords
AS
(
SELECT MIN(CreatedDateTime) AS CreatedDateTime, ProductName
FROM Products
GROUP BY ProductName
)
DELETE p
FROM Products p
JOIN CTEDupRecords cte ON
E. ProductName = cte.ProductName
F. WITH CTEDupRecords
AS
(
SELECT MAX(CreatedDateTime) AS CreatedDateTime, ProductName
FROM Products
GROUP BY ProductName
HAVING COUNT(*) > 1
)
DELETE p
FROM Products p
JOIN CTEDupRecords cte ON
G. ProductName = cte.ProductName
Answer: B
Question No: 36You develop three Microsoft SQL Server 2012 databases named Database1, Database2,
and Database3.
You have permissions on both Database1 and Database2. You plan to write and deploy a
stored procedure named dbo.usp_InsertEvent in Database3. dbo.usp_InsertEvent must
execute other stored procedures in the other databases.
You need to ensure that callers that do not have permissions on Database1 or Database2
can execute the stored procedure.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. USE Database2
B. EXECUTE AS OWNER
C. USE Database1
D. EXECUTE AS CALLER
070-461 dumps 
Answer: B
Question No: 37  You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that has multiple tables in the Sales
schema. Some users must be prevented from deleting records in any of the tables in the
Sales schema. You need to manage users who are prevented from deleting records in the
Sales schema.
You need to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. What
should you do? A. Create a custom database role that includes the users. Deny Delete permissions on the
Sales schema for the custom database role.
B. Include the Sales schema as an owned schema for the db_denydatawriter role. Add the
users to the
db_denydatawriter role.
C. Deny Delete permissions on each table in the Sales schema for each user.
D. Create a custom database role that includes the users. Deny Delete permissions on
each table in the Sales schema for the custom database role.
Answer: A
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The database contains a Product
table created by using the following definition:
Question No: 38
070-461

You need to ensure that the minimum amount of disk space is used to store the data in the
Product table.
What should you do?
A. Convert all indexes to Column Store indexes.
B. Implement Unicode Compression.
C. Implement row-level compression.
D. Implement page-level compression.
070-461 vce 
Answer: D
You generate a daily report according to the following query:
Question No: 39
070-461

You need to improve the performance of the query.
What should you do?
A. Drop the UDF and rewrite the report query as follows:
WITH cte(CustomerID, LastOrderDate) AS (
SELECT CustomerID, MAX(OrderDate) AS [LastOrderDate]
FROM Sales.SalesOrder
GROUP BY CustomerID
)
SELECT c.CustomerName
FROM cte
INNER JOIN Sales.Customer c
ON cte.CustomerID = c.CustomerID
WHERE cte.LastOrderDate < DATEADD(DAY, -90, GETDATE())
B. Drop the UDF and rewrite the report query as follows:
SELECT c.CustomerName
FROM Sales.Customer c
WHERE NOT EXISTS (

SELECT s.OrderDate
FROM Sales.SalesOrder
WHERE s.OrderDate > DATEADD(DAY, -90, GETDATE())
AND s.CustomerID = c.CustomerID)
C. Drop the UDF and rewrite the report query as follows:
SELECT DISTINCT c.CustomerName
FROM Sales.Customer c
INNER JOIN Sales.SalesOrder s
ON c.CustomerID = s.CustomerID
WHERE s.OrderDate < DATEADD(DAY, -90, GETDATE())
D. Rewrite the report query as follows:
SELECT c.CustomerName
FROM Sales.Customer c
WHERE NOT EXISTS (SELECT OrderDate FROM
Sales.ufnGetRecentOrders(c.CustomerID,
90))
Rewrite the UDF as follows:
CREATE FUNCTION Sales.ufnGetRecentOrders(@CustomerID int, @MaxAge DateTime)
RETURNS TABLE AS RETURN (
SELECT OrderDate
FROM Sales.SalesOrder
WHERE s.CustomerID = @CustomerID
AND s.OrderDate > DATEADD(DAY, [email protected], GETDATE())
070-461 exam 
Answer: A
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database named ContosoDb. Tables are
defined as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
Question No : 40
070-461

You need to display rows from the Orders table for the Customers row having the
CustomerId value set to 1 in the following XML format:

<row OrderId=”1″ OrderDate=”2000-01-01T00:00:00″ Amount=”3400.00″
Name=”Customer
A” Country=”Australia” />
<row OrderId=”2″ OrderDate=”2001-01-01T00:00:00″ Amount=”4300.00″
Name=”Customer
A” Country=”Australia” />
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1
FOR XML RAW
B. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1
FOR XML RAW, ELEMENTS
C. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1
FOR XML AUTO
D. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId – Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId= 1
FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS
E. SELECT Name, Country, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId- 1
FOR XML AUTO
F. SELECT Name, Country, Ordered, OrderDate, Amount
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId= 1
FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS
G. SELECT Name AS ‘@Name’, Country AS ‘@Country’, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId= 1
FOR XML PATH (‘Customers’)
H. SELECT Name AS ‘Customers/Name’, Country AS ‘Customers/Country’, OrderId,
OrderDate, Amount
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId= 1
FOR XML PATH (‘Customers’)

Answer: A
You have a database that contains the tables as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit
button.)
Question No: 41 CORRECT TEXT
070-461

You have the following query:
070-461

✑ ✑ ✑ ✑
You need to recreate the query to meet the following requirements:
Reference columns by using one-part names only.
Sort aggregates by SalesTerritoryID, and then by ProductID.
Order the results in descending order from SalesTerritoryID to Product
The solution must use the existing SELECT clause and FROM clause
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer
Answer:
070-461

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Exam Code: 70-489
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Advanced Solutions
Updated: Aug 10, 2017
Q&As: 97

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070-489 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate 70-489 Dumps Exam Q&As:

1. Which GVP software component is used to configure the various components of GVP including
application provisioning?
A. Element Management Provisioning System
B. IP Call Manager
C. Voice Application Reporter
D. Genesys Studio
070-489 exam Answer: A
2. Which GVP application is used to build and test voice applications?
A. Element Management Provisioning System
B. IP Call Manager
C. Voice Application Reporter
D. Genesys Studio
Answer: D
3. Which version of the VoiceXML Specification does GVP version 7.5 support?
A. VoiceXML 1.0
B. VoiceXML 1.1
C. VoiceXML 2.0
D. VoiceXML 3.0
070-489 dumps Answer: C
4. The GVP VoiceXML application logic resides on .
A. a web server
B. the VCS
C. the VPM
D. the IPCM
Answer: A
5. How are VoiceXML pages produced during a GVP call session?
A. Web application server generates VoiceXML when processing asp or jsp pages
B. VCS or IPCS produce VoiceXML when the call is initiated
C. EMPS produces VoiceXML when the request comes in
D. IPCS creates the VoiceXML when it relays SIP messages
070-489 pdf Answer: A
6. The Voice Communication Server (VCS) processes calls.
A. VoIP
B. IPCS
C. Web-based GUI
D. TDM
Answer: D
7. The Internet Protocol Communication Server (IPCS) processes calls.

A. SIP
B. HTML
C. TDM D.
EMPS
070-489 vce Answer: A
8. The Internet Protocol Communication Server (IPCS) processes calls.
A. SIP
B. HTML
C. TDM D.
EMPS
Answer: A
9. A Primary Voice Application URL is required when provisioning the IVR Profile. The Primary Voice
Application CANNOT include .
A. the fully qualified name of the web server that hosts the application
B. the numeric IP address of the web server that hosts the application
C. the name of the first page of the voice application
D. the path to the <Application Name>.XML file
070-489 exam Answer: D
10. Refer to the CTI Property tab in the Provisioning IVR profile section in the EMPS. The Default Route
Number is used when .
A. IVR Server is unable to contact the Solution Control Interface (SCI)
B. IVR Server is unable to contact the Universal Routing Server (URS), or when the URS is unable to
find an agent number to which it can route the call
C. IVR component, specifically Genesys Queue Adapter (GQA), cannot communicate with SCS.
D. IVR Server component cannot communicate with the Web Server
Answer: B
11.The <DNIS>.XML and <Application_Name>.xml files are generated when .
A. a call arrives at the VCS
B. an application is created and configured in EMPS
C. the WatchDog on the EMPS is restarted
D. requested by the IVR Server
070-489 dumps Answer: B
12. The <Application_Name>.xml files provides all of the .
A. VCS configuration information
B. voice application information
C. IPCS configuration information
D. web server configuration information
Answer: B
13. The DNIS.xml provides .
A. the Primary Application URL
B. all application configuration information but no process information
C. the address of the IVR Server
D. the URL path to the <Application_Name>.XML
070-489 pdf Answer: D
14. Where is the default location of the DNIS Application Mapping Files?
A. <install dir>\CN\data
B. <install dir>\CN\web\dispenser\spd_data
C. <install dir>\CN\config
D. http://EMPS:9810/spm
Answer: B
15. In the <Application_Name>.xml file, the IVRTimeout value determines .
A. how long URS waits for the response from web server before timing out and trying default routing
target.
B. how long VCS/IPCS waits for the response from web server before timing out and attempting to reach
the Backup IVR URL.
C. how long GQA waits for the connection with the IVR Server before using the Backup IVR URL.
D. how long VCS/IPCS waits for the response from web server before timing out and attempting to reach
the Primary IVR URL.
070-489 vce Answer: B
16. Which of the following features can be changed using the Element Management System (EMS) GUI
when monitoring a VCS?
A. the log level for each process
B. the default directory for logging
C. the Behind or In-Front configuration for that particular VCS
D. the speech recognition vendor for that particular VCS
Answer: A
17.When would you use the Import Server Instance CSV feature in EMPS?
A. Never. This feature is not available through the EMPS
B. Any time you want to make a change to any of the parameters in EMPS
C. You want to start the Watchdog service
D. When numerous changes are needed with servers or configuration of various components for a
server and in conjunction with Genesys Technical Support
070-489 exam Answer: D
18. Under what circumstances is a username and password required to access the EMPS?
A. Never. By default, a username and password is not required since EMPS is only used for monitoring
purposes.
B. Always. When opening EMPS Login screen, the system will require users enter their username and

password.
C. Only when the EMPS is being accessed from a remote workstation. You are automatically
authenticated and can log in from a local machine.
D. Only when using SunOne Directory Server because OpenLDAP has no built-in security for the EMPS
login screen.
Answer: B
19. The ability to record the caller’s speech for application analysis is configured in an IVR Profile within
the EMPS and is referred to as .
A. OA&M
B. EMS Runtime
C. Enable ASR Transcoding
D. Enable ASR Logging
070-489 dumps Answer: D
20.The process on the VCS/IPCS that starts the other component processes is the .
A. Page Collector
B. IVR Server Client C.
Call Flow Assistant D.
WatchDog
Answer: D
21.Which VCS/IPCS component controls the TDM telephony or IP Telephony interfaces?
A. PopGateway
B. Page Collector
C. MRCP Client
D. Net Management
070-489 pdf Answer: A
22. Which of the following are Windows prerequisites for VCS?
A. there are no Windows prerequisites
B. Active Directory
C. IIS and SNMP
D. SQL Server
Answer: C

23. A logical group of ports is referred to as a .
A. Telephony Manager
B. Route
C. Page Collector
D. MRCP Client
070-489 vce Answer: B

24. For most deployments with VCS configured in Behind-the-Switch mode using Genesys Framework,
DNIS is obtained through what mechanism?
A. VCS request to the T-Server via IVR Server
B. VCS requests to the Dialogic telephony board
C. a route point corresponding to the appropriate strategy
D. VCS request directly to the ACD/PBX
Answer: A

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Free Download First-hand Microsoft 70-480 Vce Exam Collection for Microsoft Windows Store Apps

Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this 70-480 exam? Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to your feedback. Testcos appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft Certification program.

Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft Windows Store apps
Exam Name: Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3
Exam Code: 70-480
Total Questions: 205 Q&As
Last Updated: Mar 06, 2017
Exam Information: https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-480.html
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Share some Microsoft Specialist 70-480 Exam Questions and Answers Below:

Question No : 18 HOTSPOT – (Topic 1)  An HTML page has a canvas element.
You need to draw a red rectangle on the canvas element dynamically. The rectangle
should resemble the following graphic.
70-480 vce

How should you build the code segment? (To answer, select the appropriate options from
the drop-down lists in the answer area.)

70-480 vce

70-480 vce

70-480 vce

Question No : 19 – (Topic 1)  You are developing an HTML5 page that has an element with an ID of logo. The page
includes the following HTML.
<div>
Logo:<br>
<div id=”logo”>
</div>
</div>
You need to move the logo element lower on the page by five pixels.
Which lines of code should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)
A. document.getElementById(“logo”) .style.position = “relative”;
B. document.getElementByld(“logo”).Style.top = “5px”;
C. document.getElementById(“logo”).style.top = “-5px”;
D. document.getElementById(“logo”).style.position = “absolute”;
Answer: A,B
Reference:

Question No : 20 – (Topic 1)  You are developing a web page by using HTML5 and C5S3. The page includes a <div> tag
with the ID set to validate.
When the page is rendered, the contents of the <div> tag appear on a line separate from
the content above and below it. The rendered page resembles the following graphic.
70-480 vce

The page must be rendered so that the <div> tag is not forced to be separate from the
other content. The following graphic shows the correctly rendered output.

70-480 vce

You need to ensure that the page is rendered to meet the requirement.
Which line of code should you use?
A. document.getElementById(“validate”).style.display = “inline”;
B. document.getElementById(“validate”).style.margin = “0”;
C. document.getElementById(“validate”).style.padding = “0”;
D. document.getElementSyId(“validate”).style.display = “block”;
Answer: A
Reference:

Question No : 21 HOTSPOT – (Topic 1) You are creating a web worker for an HTML5 application.
The following tasks must be performed from within the web worker:
Register an event listener for the web worker
Start and stop the web worker
You need to define a function that performs the required tasks.
Which code segment should you use? (To answer, select the appropriate option from the
drop-down list in the answer area.)
70-480 vce

70-480 vce

70-480 vce

Question No : 22 – (Topic 1)  You are creating a JavaScript function that displays the name of a web application.
You declare the following button element.
<input type=”button” id= “About” value=”About” />
When a user clicks the button, a JavaScript function named About must be called.
You need to create an event handler that calls the About function when the button is
clicked.
Which two code segments can you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete
solution. Choose two.)

70-480 vce

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C,D
Reference:

Question No : 23 HOTSPOT – (Topic 1)  You are creating a function by using JavaScript. The function accepts an object as the
parameter and returns a string that identifies the data type of the object.
✑ ✑ ✑
You have the following requirements:
The function must return “Number” if the object is a number.
The function must return “String” if the object is a string.
The function must return “Unknown” if the object is neither a number nor a string.
You need to implement the function to meet the requirements.
How should you build the code segment? (To answer, select the appropriate options from
the drop-down lists in the answer area.)

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70-480 vce

Question No : 24 – (Topic 1) You need to test the value of the following variable in JavaScript.
var length = “75”;
A block of code must execute if the length equals 75 regardless of the data type.
You need to use the statement that meets this requirement.
Which lines of code should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
Choose two.)
A. if (length = = = 75)
B. if (length = = 75)
C. if (length! = 75)
D. if (length = = “75”)
Answer: B,D

Question No : 25 – (Topic 1) You are developing an application that uses a third-party JavaScript library named
doWork().
The library occasionally throws an “object is null or undefined” error with an error code of
-2146823281.
The application must:
Extract and handle the exceptions thrown by doWork()
Continue normal program execution if other exceptions occur
You need to implement the requirements.
Which code segment should you use?
70-480 vce

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C

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Preparation Guide for Up To Date Microsoft 70-411 Exam Administering Windows Server 2012

Exam Code: 70-411
Exam Name: Administering Windows Server 2012
Updated: Mar 17, 2017
Q&As: 234
Published: September 17, 2012
Languages: English, Chinese (Simplified), French, German, Japanese, Portuguese (Brazil)
Audiences:IT professionals
Technology: Windows Server 2012 R2
Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSA, MCSE
Exam Information:https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-411.html

70-411 Exam Objetives

1.1 Deploy and manage server images

  • Windows Deployment Services Overview (TechNet Library)70-411 exam
  • What’s New for Windows Deployment Services (TechNet Library)
  • Windows Deployment Services Getting Started Guide for Windows Server 2012 (TechNet Library)
  • Deploying 70-411 exam Windows Server 2012: From Bare Metal, Server Core, Minimal Server Interface, and More (Session: Andrew Mason @ TechEd North America 2012)
  • What’s New in Windows Deployment Services in Windows Server 2012 R2 (R2)
  • Windows Deployment Services Cmdlets in Windows PowerShell (R2)
  • Using the WDS PowerShell Cmdlets in Windows Server 2012 R2 (R2)
  • Managing and Deploying Driver Packages in Windows Deployment Services (R2)

Real4exam Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-411 Exam Q&As 

70-411 exam Question No : 32 – (Topic 0)  Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain
contains a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has a
share named Share1.
When users without permission to Share1 attempt to access the share, they receive the
Access Denied message as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-411 exam

You deploy a new file server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to configure Server2 to display the same custom Access Denied message as
Server1.
What should you install on Server2?
A. The Remote Assistance feature
B. The Storage Services server role
C. The File Server Resource Manager role service
D. The Enhanced Storage feature
Answer: C
Explanation:
Access-Denied Assistance is a new role service of the File Server role in Windows Server
2012.

70-411 exam

We need to install the prerequisites for Access-Denied Assistance.
Because Access-Denied Assistance relies up on e-mail notifications, we also need to
configure each relevant file server with a Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) server
address. Let’s do that quickly with Windows PowerShell:
Set-FSRMSetting -SMTPServer mailserver. nuggetlab.com -AdminEmailAddress
[email protected] -FromEmailAddress [email protected]
You can enable Access-Denied Assistance either on a per-server basis or centrally via
Group Policy. To my mind, the latter approach is infinitely preferable from an administration
standpoint.
Create a new GPO and make sure to target the GPO at your file servers’ Active Directory
computer accounts as well as those of your AD client computers. In the Group Policy
Object Editor, we are looking for the following path to configure Access-Denied Assistance:
\Computer Configuration\Policies\Administrative Templates\System\Access-Denied
Assistance

70-411 exam

The Customize message for Access Denied errors policy, shown in the screenshot below,
enables us to create the actual message box shown to users when they access a shared
file to which their user account has no access.

70-411 exam

What’s cool about this policy is that we can “personalize” the e-mail notifications to give us
administrators (and, optionally, file owners) the details they need to resolve the permissions
issue quickly and easily.
For instance, we can insert pre-defined macros to swap in the full path to the target file, the
administrator e-mail address, and so forth. See this example:
Whoops! It looks like you’re having trouble accessing [Original File Path]. Please click
Request Assistance to send [Admin Email] a help request e-mail message. Thanks!
You should find that your users prefer these human-readable, informative error messages
to the cryptic, non-descript error dialogs they are accustomed to dealing with.
The Enable access-denied assistance on client for all file types policy should be enabled to
force client computers to participate in Access-Denied Assistance. Again, you must make
sure to target your GPO scope accordingly to “hit” your domain workstations as well as
your Windows Server 2012 file servers.
Testing the configuration
This should come as no surprise to you, but Access-Denied Assistance works only with
Windows Server 2012 and Windows 8 computers. More specifically, you must enable the
Desktop Experience feature on your servers to see Access-Denied Assistance messages
on server computers.
When a Windows 8 client computer attempts to open a file to which the user has no
access, the custom Access-Denied Assistance message should appear:

70-411 exam

If the user clicks Request Assistance in the Network Access dialog box, they see a
secondary message:

70-411 exam

At the end of this process, the administrator(s) will receive an e-mail message that contains
the key information they need in order to resolve the access problem:
The user’s Active Directory identity
The full path to the problematic file
A user-generated explanation of the problem
So that’s it, friends! Access-Denied Assistance presents Windows systems administrators
with an easy-to-manage method for more efficiently resolving user access problems on
shared file system resources. Of course, the key caveat is that your file servers must run
Windows Server 2012 and your client devices must run Windows 8, but other than that, this
is a great technology that should save admins extra work and end-users extra headaches.

70-411 exam Question No : 33 – (Topic 0)  You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the
File Server Resource Manager role service installed.
Each time a user receives an access-denied message after attempting to access a folder
✑ ✑ ✑ ✑ ✑ ✑ ✑
on Server1, an email notification is sent to a distribution list named DL1.
You create a folder named Folder1 on Server1, and then you configure custom NTFS
permissions for Folder1.
You need to ensure that when a user receives an access-denied message while attempting
to access Folder1, an email notification is sent to a distribution list named DL2. The
solution must not prevent DL1 from receiving notifications about other access-denied
messages.
What should you do?
A. From Server Manager, run the New Share Wizard to create a share for Folder1 by
selecting the SMB Share – Advanced option.
B. From the File Server Resource Manager console, modify the Access-Denied Assistance
settings.
C. From the File Server Resource Manager console, modify the Email Notifications
settings.
D. From Server Manager, run the New Share Wizard to create a share for Folder1 by
selecting the SMB Share -Applications option.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Configure the email notification settings
You must configure the email notification settings on each file server that will send the
access-denied assistance messages.
Open File Server Resource Manager. In Server Manager, click Tools, and then
click File Server Resource Manager.
Right-click File Server Resource Manager (Local), and then click Configure
Options.
Click the Email Notifications tab.
Configure the following settings:
In the SMTP server name or IP address box, type the name of IP address of the
SMTP server in your organization.
In the Default administrator recipients and Default “From” e-mail address boxes,
type the email address of the file server administrator.
Click Send Test E-mail to ensure that the email notifications are configured
correctly.
Click OK.

70-411 exam Question No : 34 HOTSPOT – (Topic 0) Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain
contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the File
Server Resource Manager role service installed.
You need to configure Server1 to meet the following requirements:
Ensure that old files in a folder named Folder1 are archived automatically to a
folder named Archive1.
Ensure that all storage reports are saved to a network share.
Which two nodes should you configure?
To answer, select the appropriate two nodes in the answer area.
70-411 exam

70-411 exam

70-411 exam Question No : 35 DRAG DROP – (Topic 0)  You are a network administrator of an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the
Web Server (IIS) server role installed.
Server1 will host a web site at URL The application pool
identity account of the web site will be set to a domain user account named AppPool1.
You need to identify the setspn.exe command that you must run to configure the
appropriate Service Principal Name (SPN) for the web site.
What should you run?
To answer, drag the appropriate objects to the correct location. Each object may be used
once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or
scroll to view content.
70-411 exam

70-411 exam Question No : 36 – (Topic 0)  Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain
contains a domain controller named DC1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. DC1 is
backed up daily.
The domain has the Active Directory Recycle Bin enabled.
During routine maintenance, you delete 500 inactive user accounts and 100 inactive
groups. One of the deleted groups is named Group1. Some of the deleted user accounts
are members of some of the deleted groups.
For documentation purposes, you must provide a list of the members of Group1 before the
group was deleted.
You need to identify the names of the users who were members of Group1 prior to its
deletion.
You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. What should you do first?
A. Mount the most recent Active Directory backup.
B. Reactivate the tombstone of Group1.
C. Perform an authoritative restore of Group1.
D. Use the Recycle Bin to restore Group1.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Active Directory Recycle Bin does not have the ability to track simple changes to
objects.
If the object itself is not deleted, no element is moved to the Recycle Bin for possible
recovery in the future. In other words, there is no rollback capacity for changes to object
properties, or, in other words, to the values of these properties.

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QUESTION 1
Which command is needed to send RIPv2 updates as broadcast when configured for RIPv2?
A. ip rip v2-broadcast
B. ip rip receive version 1
C. ip rip receive version 2
D. version 2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which feature enables a router to pass DHCPOFFER messages to other interfaces on the same router?
A. DHCP server address exclusions
B. DNS helper addresses
C. DHCP smart-relay
D. DHCP server boot files
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What is the best way to verify that a host has a path to other hosts in different networks?
A. Ping the loopback address.
B. Ping the default gateway.
C. Ping the local interface address.
D. Ping the remote network.
Correct Answer: D
Ping is a tool that helps to verify IP-level connectivity; PathPing is a tool that detects packet loss over multiple-hop trips.
When troubleshooting, the ping command is used to send an ICMP Echo Request to a target host name or IP address.
Use Ping whenever you want to verify that a host computer can send IP packets to a destination host. You can also use
the Ping tool to isolate network hardware problems and incompatible configurations. If you call ipconfig /all and receive
a
response, there is no need to ping the loopback address and your own IP address — Ipconfig has already done so in
order to generate the report.
It is best to verify that a route exists between the local computer and a network host by first using ping and the IP
address of the network host to which you want to connect. The command syntax is:
ping
Perform the following steps when using Ping:
Ping the loopback address to verify that TCP/IP is installed and configured correctly on the local computer.
ping 127.0.0.1
If the loopback step fails, the IP stack is not responding. This might be because the TCP drivers are corrupted, the
network adapter might not be working, or another service is interfering with IP.
Ping the IP address of the local computer to verify that it was added to the network correctly. Note that if the routing
table is correct, this simply forwards the packet to the loopback address of 127.0.0.1.
ping
Ping the IP address of the default gateway to verify that the default gateway is functioning and that you can
communicate with a local host on the local network.
ping
Ping the IP address of a remote host to verify that you can communicate through a router.
ping
Ping the host name of a remote host to verify that you can resolve a remote host name.
ping
Run a PathPing analysis to a remote host to verify that the routers on the way to the destination are operating correctly.
pathping

QUESTION 4
which statement about recovering a password on a cisco router is true ?
A. it requires physical access to the router
B. the default reset password is cisco
C. a factory reset is required if you forget the password
D. it requires a secure SSL/VPN connection
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Where information about untrusted hosts are stored?
A. CAM table
B. Trunk table
C. MAC table
D. binding database
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)
A. discarding
B. listening
C. learning
D. forwarding
E. disabled
Correct Answer: AD
There are only three port states left in RSTP that correspond to the three possible operational states. The 802.1D
disabled, blocking, and listening states are merged into a unique 802.1w discarding state.
STP (802.1D) Port State RSTP (802.1w) Port State Is Port Included in Active Topology? Is Port Learning MAC
Addresses? Disabled Discarding No No Blocking Discarding No No Listening Discarding Yes No Learning Learning Yes
Yes Forwarding Forwarding Yes Yes Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cf a.s html#states

QUESTION 7
Which three functions are major components of a network virtualization architecture? (Choose three.)
A. network access control
B. virtual network services
C. policy enforcement
D. authentication services
E. network resilience
F. path isolation
Correct Answer: ABF
Network virtualization architecture has three main components: + Network access control and segmentation of classes
of users: Users are authenticated and either allowed or denied into a logical partition. Users are segmented into
employees, contractors and consultants, and guests, with respective access to IT assets. This component identifies
users who are authorized to access the network and then places them into the appropriate logical partition. + Path
isolation:
Network isolation is preserved across the entire enterprise: from the edge to the campus to the WAN and back again.
This component maintains traffic partitioned over a routed infrastructure and transports traffic over and between
isolated
partitions. The function of mapping isolated paths to VLANs and to virtual services is also performed in component.+
Network Services virtualization:
This component provides access to shared or dedicated network services such as security, quality of service (QoS), and
address management (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol [DHCP] and Domain Name System [DNS]). It also applies
policy per partition and isolates application environments, if required.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/catalyst-6500-series-switches/white_paper_c11-531522.pdf

QUESTION 8
Which option describes a benefit of a point-to-point leased line?
A. full-mesh capability
B. flexibility of design
C. low cost
D. simplicity of configuration
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which type of secure MAC address must be configured manually?
A. static
B. dynamic
C. sticky
D. bia
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Drag and drop the extended traceout option from the left onto the correct description on the right.
Select and Place:

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Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Cisco 200-125 exam questions q10-2

QUESTION 11
which configuration command can u apply to a HSRP router so that its local interface
becomes active if all other routers in the group fail?
A. no additional config is required
B. standby 1 track ethernet
C. standby 1 preempt
D. standby 1 priority 250
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
What are two statement for SSH?
A. use port 22
B. unsecured
C. encrypted
D. most common remote-access method
E. operate at transport
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
Which three values can be included in the routing table of a router? (Choose three)
A. classful and classless destination addresses
B. source interfaces
C. Routgoing interfaces
D. source IP addresses
E. next hop IP address
F. destination IP addresses
Correct Answer: CDF

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Video | Microsoft Azure 70-537 Dumps Practice test

Practice, & More Practice(Latest 70-537 Questions and answers )

QUESTION 1
You have an Azure Stack integrated system.
You plan to use the Marketplace publishing tool.
Which two parameters should you specify when you run the tool? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. the Service Admin credentials
B. the Azure Resource Manager endpoint
C. the privileged endpoint
D. a backup location for AzureDeploy.json
E. the cloud administrator credentials
Correct Answer: AB
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-stack/azure-stack-marketplace-publisher#publishmarketplace-items

QUESTION 2
You have an Azure Stack integrated system that has the following deployment details:
Region: East Naming prefix: azs External domain name: cloud.fabrikam.com
Which URL should you direct tenants to use based on the deployment details?
A. https://adminportal.cloud.fabrikam.com
B. https://portal.east.cloud.fabrikam.com
C. https://portal.azs.cloud.fabrikam.com
D. https://adminportal.azs.cloud.fabrikam.com
E. https://portal.cloud.fabrikam.com
F. https://adminportal.east.cloud.fabrikam.com
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-stack/azure-stack-integrate-dns#

QUESTION 3
You have an Azure Stack integrated system that uses Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) for authentication.
You download and extract the Azure App Service files.
You need to configure the system to support the deployment of Node.js applications and Azure functions.
What should you do before you configure the resource provider?
A. Install certificates. Register a service principal. Deploy and configure a file server. Create a relying party trust.
B. Install certificates. Deploy and configure a file server. Deploy and configure a Microsoft SQL server. Create an Azure
AD application.
C. Install certificates. Register a service principal. Deploy and configure a Microsoft SQL server. Create a relying party
trust.
D. Register a service principal. Deploy and configure a file server. Implement and configure a MySQL resource provider.
Configure the Azure functions.
Correct Answer: B
Incorrect Answers:
A, C: App Service on Azure Stack does not require a service principal or a relying party trust, but does require Microsoft
SQL server for the App Service databases.
D: App Service on Azure Stack requires certificates and Microsoft SQL server for the App Service databases.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-stack/azure-stack-app-service-before-you-get-started

QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
You have an Azure Stack integrated system that uses the external domain name of fabrikam.com.
You need to publish an Azure Marketplace Package (.azpkg) file to the Marketplace.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 70-537 exam questions-q4

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-537 exam questions-q4-2

1.Create a blob container. This is a temporary container but it must be publicly accessible.
2.Uploaded the package.
3.Publish the package using the Add-AzureRMGalleryItem cmdlet.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-stack/azure-stack-create-and-publish-marketplaceitem#publish-a-marketplace-item

QUESTION 5
You have an Azure Stack integrated system.
What are three source control providers that you can use for App Services? Each correct answer presents a complete
solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Mercurial
B. DropBox
C. software version control (SVC)
D. BitBucket
E. OneDrive
Correct Answer: BDE
In addition to local Git, the following Source Control Providers are supported: GitHub BitBucket OneDrive DropBox
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-stack/azure-stack-app-service-configure-deploymentsources

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named adatum.com.
You deploy an Azure Stack integrated system.
You implement federation between adatum.com and Azure Stack.
You need to ensure that a user named [email protected] can manage Azure Stack from the Azure Stack
administrator portal.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-ServiceAdminOwner
B. Set-AzsUserSubscription
C. New-CloudAdminUser
D. Set-CloudAdminPassword
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-stack/azure-stack-integrate-identity

QUESTION 7
NOTE: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series
contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct
solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure Stack integrated system that runs in a connected environment.
You need to recommend an interval for installing Microsoft software update packages to Azure Stack. The solution must
ensure that you can receive Microsoft support.
Solution: You recommend that Microsoft software updates be installed monthly.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
For your Azure Stack deployment to remain in support, it must run the most recently released update version or run
either of the two preceding update versions.
Microsoft will release update packages for Azure Stack integrated systems on a regular cadence that will typically fall on
the fourth Tuesday of every month.
Thus to remain in support you must be running one of the last three update versions and, as an update version is
released every month, you need to install updates at least every three months.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-stack/azure-stack-servicing-policy https://docs.microsoft.com/enus/azure/azure-stack/azure-stack-updates

QUESTION 8
You have an Azure Stack integrated system that has 100 tenants.
You create a new offer that is Private.
You need to provide the offer to a tenant.
What should you do?
A. Delegate rights to the tenant user, and then instruct the tenant user to create a new subscription.
B. Create a new subscription, and then assign the subscription to the tenant.
C. Run the New-AzsOffer cmdlet, and then specify the tenant user account.
D. Run the Set-AzsUserSubscription cmdlet, and then specify the subscription of the tenant user.
Correct Answer: B
When you create an offer, you must include at least one base plan, but you can also create add-on plans that users can
add to their subscription. A subscription is how users access your offers.
After you create an offer, users need a subscription to that offer before they can use it.
You can create subscriptions for both public and private offers. If do not want your tenants to create their own
subscriptions, make all of your offers private, and then create subscriptions on behalf of your tenants. This approach is
common
when integrating Azure Stack with external billing or service catalog systems.
After you create a subscription for a user, that user can log into the user portal and will find that they are subscribed to
the offer.
Incorrect Answers:
A: As the Azure Stack operator, you can delegate the creation of offers and users to other users by using the delegation
functionality.
C: The New-AzsOffer cmdlet creates an offer composing of the specified base plans and add-on plans.
D: The Set-AzsSubscription cmdlet modifies the current logged-in user\\’s tenant subscription.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-stack/azure-stack-delegated-provider
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-za/powershell/module/azurerm.azurestackadmin/new-azsoffer?view=azurestackps-1.2.11
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-za/powershell/module/azurerm.azurestackadmin/setazssubscription?view=azurestackps-1.2.11 https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-stack/azure-stack-subscribeplan-provision-vm

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
exactly the same in each question in this series.
Start of repeated scenario.
Your company has a main office in New York and a branch office in Toronto. Each office has a dedicated connection to
the Internet. Each office has a firewall that uses inbound and outbound rules.
The company has an on-premises network that contains several datacenters. The datacenters contain multiple
hypervisor deployments, including Window Server 2016 Hyper-V. The network uses Microsoft System Center for monitoring and
Windows Azure Pack for self-service.
The company has a Microsoft Azure subscription that contains several workloads. You use Azure Resource Manager
templates and other automated processes to create and manage the resources in Azure.
You have an Azure Stack integrated system in the New York office. The company has a development team in the
Toronto office and a development team in the New York office. The system has an offer named Offer1. Several tenants
have
subscriptions based on Offer1.
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 is used for testing. The hardware
on Server1 can support the deployment of the Azure Stack Development Kit.
You have a Generation 1 virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. VM1 is deployed to a HyperV host that runs Windows Server 2016. VM1 has a fixed size disk named VM1.vhdx that is 200 GB.
End of repeated scenario.
You implement a SQL Server resource provider that uses D14v2 virtual machines.
A tenant creates a SQL database that runs several heavy workloads. The tenant reports that SQL queries are slow to
complete.
You need to recommend changes to the Azure Stack integrated system to reduce the amount of time required to
complete the SQL queries.
What should you recommend?
A. Resize the virtual machine that provides the Microsoft SQL Server service.
B. Instruct the tenant to install Microsoft SQL Server on a virtual machine in its subscription.
C. In the Azure Stack integrated system, cluster the D14v2 virtual machines.
D. Deploy a physical server that has more resources that the D14v2 virtual machines. Install Microsoft SQL Server on
the server. Add the server to the SQL Server resource provider.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
HOTSPOT
You have an Azure Stack integrated system.
You need to install the Azure Stack-compatible Azure PowerShell modules on a management workstation.
You set the $profile variable to the correct API version.
Which commands should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-537 exam questions-q10

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-537 exam questions-q10-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-stack/azure-stack-powershell-install

QUESTION 11
NOTE: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series
contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct
solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure Stack integrated system that contains four nodes named Node1, Node2, Node3 and Node4.
You plan to replace Node2.
You need to drain the active workloads that run on Node2.
Solution: You connect to the BMC web interface on Node2 and power off the node.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
The Drain action evacuates all active workloads by distributing them among the remaining nodes in that particular scale
unit. To run the drain action through PowerShell, use the Disable-AzsScaleUnitNode cmdlet.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The BMC web interface on Node2 can be used to power off the node. This does not send a shutdown signal to the
operating system. For planned power off operations, make sure you drain a scale unit node first. References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-stack/azure-stack-replace-node

QUESTION 12
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
exactly the same in each question in this series.
Start of repeated scenario.
Your company has a main office in New York and a branch office in Toronto. Each office has a dedicated connection to
the Internet. Each office has a firewall that uses inbound and outbound rules.
The company has an on-premises network that contains several datacenters. The datacenters contain multiple
hypervisor deployments, including Window Server 2016 Hyper-V. The network uses Microsoft System Center for
monitoring and
Windows Azure Pack for self-service.
The company has a Microsoft Azure subscription that contains several workloads. You use Azure Resource Manager
templates and other automated processes to create and manage the resources in Azure.
You have an Azure Stack integrated system in the New York office. The company has a development team in the
Toronto office and a development team in the New York office. The system has an offer named Offer1. Several tenants
have
subscriptions based on Offer1.
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 is used for testing. The hardware
on Server1 can support the deployment of the Azure Stack Development Kit.
You have a Generation 1 virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. VM1 is deployed to a HyperV host that runs Windows Server 2016. VM1 has a fixed size disk named VM1.vhdx that is 200 GB.
End of repeated scenario.
You need to ensure that you can import VM1 to Azure Stack.
What should you do?
A. Recreate VM1 as a Generation 2 virtual machine.
B. Convert the disk to a VHD.
C. Convert the disk to a dynamically expanding disk.
D. Upgrade VM1 to Windows Server 2016.
Correct Answer: B
Azure supports only generation 1 VMs that are in the VHD file format and have a fixed sized disk. The maximum size
allowed for the VHD is 1,023 GB. You can convert a generation 1 VM from the VHDX file system to VHD and from a
dynamically expanding disk to fixed-sized. But you can\\’t change a VM\\’s generation.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Azure supports only generation 1 VMs that are in the VHD file format.
C: Azure Stack does not support dynamic VHDs. Resizing a virtual machine (VM) with a dynamic disk attached to it
leaves the VM in a failed state.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-za/azure/virtual-machines/windows/prepare-for-upload-vhd-image
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-stack/azure-stack-update-1802

QUESTION 13
You have two Azure Stack integrated systems name Stack1 and Stack2.
You create an Azure Resource Manager template that successfully deploys to Stack1.
You attempt to deploy the template to Stack2, but the deployment fails.
What is a possible cause of the deployment failure?
A. Stack1 has Azure Marketplace syndication disabled and Stack2 has Azure Marketplace syndication enabled.
B. The template was deployed to Stack2 by using Microsoft Visual Studio.
C. The API version used in the template is a later version that the API version available on Stack2.
D. Stack1 has Azure Marketplace syndication enabled and Stack2 has Azure Marketplace syndication disabled.
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-stack/user/azure-stack-considerations#version-requirements

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Need Latest & Actual Microsoft 70-480 pdf Questions(Free 13 Q&As )

QUESTION 1
You develop an HTML5 webpage that contains the following HTML markup:

Pass4itsure 70-480 exam questions-q1

Users must receive a message after they click the Submit button if the text entered into the favoriteColor text box is
fewer than 2 characters or greater than 10 characters.
You need to implement the testLength() function.
Which code segment should you use?

Pass4itsure 70-480 exam questions-q2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D
Use three arguments: element, min, max. Compare element.value with min and max.

QUESTION 2
You are creating a JavaScript object that represents a customer.
You need to extend the Customer object by adding the GetCommission() method.
You need to ensure that all future instances of the Customer object implement the GetCommission() method.
Which code segment should you use?

Pass4itsure 70-480 exam questions-q2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D
Object.prototype.constructor Returns a reference to the Object function that created the instance\\’s prototype. Note that
the value of this property is a reference to the function itself, not a string containing the function\\’s name. The value is
only read-only for primitive values such as 1, true and “test”.
The constructor property is created together with the function as a single property of func.prototype.
References: https://developer.mozilla.org/en-US/docs/Web/JavaScript/Reference/Global_Objects/Object/constructor\

QUESTION 3
You are developing an HTML5 web page.
The appearance of the text box must change when a user moves the focus to another element on the page.
You need to develop the page to respond to user action.
Which line of code should you use?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: A
Definition and Usage
The onblur event occurs when an object loses focus.
Example
Execute a JavaScript when a user leaves an input field:
Reference: onblur Event
http://www.w3schools.com/jsref/event_onblur.asp

QUESTION 4
You are developing a web application that can function when users are not connected to the Internet.
You need to check the Internet connectivity status of a user\\’s browser.
Which method should you use?

Pass4itsure 70-480 exam questions-q4

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D
Navigator onLine Property
The onLine property returns a Boolean value that specifies whether the browser is in online or offline mode.
Example
Find out whether the browser is online:
var x = “Is the browser online? ” + navigator.onLine;
The result of x will be:
Is the browser online? true
References:
https://www.w3schools.com/jsref/prop_nav_online.asp

QUESTION 5
You implement an application by using HTML5 and JavaScript. You create a webpage that contains the following
HTML:

Pass4itsure 70-480 exam questions-q5

The application must place a border on only the first UL element that is contained in the DIV element.
You need to update the webpage.
What should you do?

Pass4itsure 70-480 exam questions-q5-2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B
Example:
CSS File:
ul {
border: 1px solid black;
}
Inline CSS:

Pass4itsure 70-480 exam questions-q5-3

QUESTION 6
You develop an HTML5 webpage. You have the following JavaScript code:

Pass4itsure 70-480 exam questions-q6

You need to handle the click event when a user clicks the showDialog button. Which code segment should you
insert at line 02?
A. $ (document).trigger(“click”, “#showDialog”, function (e) {
B. $ (document).on (“#showDialog”, “click”, function (e) {
C. $(document).toggle(“click”, “#showDialog”, function (e) {
D. $(document).on(“click”, “#showDialog”, function (e) {
Correct Answer: D
Syntax: .on( events [, selector ] [, data ], handler )
* Example:
$(function() {
$(document).on(\\’click\\’, \\’.get-widgets\\’, function (e) {
Reference: https://api.jquery.com/on/

QUESTION 7
You are creating a function by using JavaScript. The function accepts an object as the parameter and returns a
string that identifies the data type of the object. You have the following requirements:
The function must return “Number” if the object is a number
The function must return “String” if the object is a string
The function must return “Unknown” if the object is neither a number nor a string You need to implement the
function to meet the requirements. How should you build the code segment? (To answer, drag the appropriate
word to the correct location in the code segment. Each word may be used once, more than once, or not
at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 70-480 exam questions-q7

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-480 exam questions-q7-2

* Use the switch statement to select one of many blocks of code to be executed.
Syntax
switch(expression) {
case n:
code block
break;
case n:
code block
break;
default:
default code block
}
This is how it works:
The switch expression is evaluated once.
The value of the expression is compared with the values of each case.
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If there is a match, the associated block of code is executed.
* Object.prototype.constructor
Returns a reference to theObject function that created the instance\\’s prototype. Note that the value of this
property is a reference to the function itself, not a string containing the function\\’s name. The value is only readonly for primitive values
such as 1, true and “test”.
* Description
All objects inherit a constructor property from their prototype:
var o = {};
o.constructor === Object; // true
var a = [];
a.constructor === Array; // true
var n = new Number(3);
n.constructor === Number; // true
* The constructor propertyis created together with the function as a single property of func.prototype.
References:
https://www.w3schools.com/js/js_switch.asp
https://developer.mozilla.org/en-US/docs/Web/JavaScript/Reference/Global_Objects/Object/constructor

QUESTION 8
You are implementing an HTML page that uses a custom sans-serif font. The CSS statement for the page is as
follows.

Pass4itsure 70-480 exam questions-q8

Some users report that text is displayed in the default font for the browser.
You need to modify the CSS statement to ensure that the content is displayed with the custom font.
What should you do? (To answer, select the appropriate options from the drop-down lists in the answer area.)

Pass4itsure 70-480 exam questions-q8-2

Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-480 exam questions-q8-3

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-480 exam questions-q8-4

Using The Font You Want
In the CSS3 @font-face rule you must first define a name for the font (e.g. myFirstFont), and then point to the
font file.
To use the font for an HTML element, refer to the name of the font (myFirstFont) through the font-family
property:
Example
@font-face {
font-family: myFirstFont;
src: url(sansation_light.woff);
}
div {
font-family: myFirstFont;
}
Note:

* CSS3 Web Fonts – The @font-face Rule
Web fonts allow Web designers to use fonts that are not installed on the user\\’s computer.
When you have found/bought the font you wish to use, just include the font file on your web server, and it will
be automatically downloaded to the user when needed.
Your “own” fonts are defined within the CSS3 @font-face rule.
* TrueType Fonts (TTF)
TrueType is a font standard developed in the late 1980s, by Apple and Microsoft. TrueType is the most
common font format for both the Mac OS and Microsoft Windows operating systems.
Reference: https://www.w3schools.com/css/css3_fonts.asp

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
You have a page that uses HTML5 and CSS3. The page contains the following markup.

Pass4itsure 70-480 exam questions-q9

What is the background color of each link when the page renders? To answer, drag the appropriate colors to
the correct locations. Each color may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the
split bar between
panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 70-480 exam questions-q9-1

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-480 exam questions-q9-2

QUESTION 10
Which CSS3 code fragment uses a pseudo-element?
A. p: : first-letter {font-weight: bold;}
B. div>p {font-weight: bold;}
C. p. first-letter {font-weight: bold;}
D. div+p {font-weight: bold;}
Correct Answer: A
References: http://www.html5code.nl/css3-tutorials/css3-tutorial-css3-selectors/

QUESTION 11
You are validating user input by using built-in JavaScript functions.
The application must:
Store the value that is entered in a variable named inputValue
Use the built-in isNaN(tnputValue) function to evaluate the data type
You need to validate the return value of the isNaN(inputValue) function.
Which values will be returned? (To answer, configure the appropriate options in the dialog box in the answer
area.)
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-480 exam questions-q11

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-480 exam questions-q11-2

isNan is false for all these inputs.
The isNaN() function determines whether a value is an illegal number (Not-a-Number).
This function returns true if the value is NaN, and false if not.
Reference:
https://www.w3schools.com/jsref/jsref_parseInt.asp
https://www.w3schools.com/jsref/jsref_isNaN.asp

QUESTION 12
You are developing an application in HTML5.
The application contains the following HTML markup.

Pass4itsure 70-480 exam questions-q12

You need to ensure that all of the links referencing domain names ending in.org are diaplayed in red text. What
should you do?
A. a CSS pseudo-class
B. a CSS attribute selector
C. a jQuery event callback
D. a JSON parse function
E. a jQuery form selector
Correct Answer: B
Use the CSS attribute selector a[href*=”.org”] { color: red; }
References: https://developer.mozilla.org/en-US/docs/Web/CSS/Attribute_selectors

QUESTION 13
You are developing an HTML5 web application and are styling text.
You need to use the text-transform CSS property.
Which value is valid for the text-transform property?
A. lowercase
B. 20px
C. line-through
D. italic
Correct Answer: A
CSS Syntax
text-transform: none|capitalize|uppercase|lowercase|initial|inherit;
Example
Transform text in different elements:
h1 {text-transform:uppercase;}
h2 {text-transform:capitalize;}
p {text-transform:lowercase;}
Reference: CSS text-transform Property
http://www.w3schools.com/cssref/pr_text_text-transform.asp

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Microsoft exam certification information

Exam MB-320: Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Manufacturing: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-MB-320.aspx

Candidates for this exam are functional consultants who analyze business requirements and translates those requirements into fully realized business processes and solutions that implement industry best practices. Candidates serve as a key resource in implementing and configuring applications to meet business requirements.

Candidates for this exam have a fundamental understanding of accounting principles and financial operations of businesses, customer service, field service, manufacturing, retail, and supply chain management concepts.

Candidates for this exam typically specialize in one or more feature sets of Microsoft Dynamics 365 Finance and Operations, including finance, manufacturing, and supply chain management.

Skills measured

  • Set up and configure manufacturing (30-35%)
  • Create and manage production and lean orders (25-30%)
  • Create, process, and manage production batch orders (40-45%)

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations MB-320 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
You are the production supervisor at a chemical processing plant. You must track attributes for each batch of chemicals.
Automated quality orders must be generated when a batch order for these chemicals is reported as finished.
You need to ensure that the values of attributes are updated and tracked.
What three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Assign the attributes to the chemicals
B. Assign the attributes to the appropriate test on the test group
C. Create attribute types
D. Set up batch attributes
E. Create a test instrument for each attribute
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 2
You are the production scheduler at a manufacturing company. The company is not using advanced warehousing.
You have firmed a planned production order from master planning. The order is ready to be processed.
You now need to process the order in production control.
What should you do first?
A. Report the order as finished
B. Estimate the order
C. Schedule the order
D. Start the order
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solutions,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
A company implements Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations for their Lean manufacturing environment.
There has been an engineering change to a fixed quantity product that is in production. This change will add an
additional processing step as the second step. The existing version must be phased out and replaced by the new
version.
You need to ensure that the engineering change takes affect at the end of the month.
Solution: 1.) Edit the existing step number two activity to be the new engineering process 2.) Edit the existing production
flow. Set the expiration date due to the end of the month 3.) Edit the existing Kanban rule. Set the expiration date to the
end of the month 4.) Activate the production flow
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You have a product that can be manufactured on two different production lines in the same warehouse. You create
resources and then create individual input locations for the resources. You create two routes. Each route uses different
resources.
Materials are staged for consumption in different locations based on the resources being utilized for production.
You need to set up the formula to consume the goods from the correct line-side location.
What should you do?
A. Select a warehouse and consumption operation for each line.
B. Select resource consumption and the operation for each line.
C. Select the plan group and consumption operation for each line.
D. Specify a site in the formula header.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A paint manufacturer is using Process manufacturing. The manufacturer has a quality error. Batches of paint that use
the wrong formula have been marked for rework.
The production planner reports they cannot schedule the batch order even though the order has been estimated.
You need to add reservations to the items to be used for the rework order.
What should you do?
A. Reserve the inventory in the formula
B. Reset the batch order and delete the formula items. Re-enter the formula items
C. Add by-products that need to be used and then re-estimate
D. Add co-products that need to be used and then re-estimate
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A chemical manufacturing company uses Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. A batch of material has a quality
issue and must be reworked.
You need to create the rework order the production.
Which three options must be set? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Reserve the reworked inventory after estimation
B. Set the item as a Formula production type
C. Specify the batch number of the batch order
D. Set the batch order as a rework batch
E. Pick the reworked inventory after estimation
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 7
A customer produces light projection toys for holiday decorations throughout the year. Vendors have negotiated rebate
agreements as a condition of their contact. The contract also contains the visual templates required for the customer to
use in a season.
Vendor rebate agreements must only be applied if the following requirements are met: Units of measure for deliverables
are the same unit of measure as on the agreement The agreement is valid as of the date a purchase order is generated
You need to configure the vendor rebate agreements.
What should you do?
A. Set the Rebate line break type field value to Amount
B. Set the Rebate line break type field value to Quantity
C. Set the Cumulative purchase by field value to the beginning of the season date
D. Set the Unit of measure rebate option field value to Exact match
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/supply-chain/procurement/vendor-rebates

QUESTION 8
A manufacturing company is implementing Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. The company uses a standard
costing model to value inventory.
During the setup of the system, all areas that impact the standard cost of the item must be configured correctly to
calculate a complete standard cost by using routing, Bill of materials (BOM) and overhead burden.
You need to verify that all areas of the system are correctly configured.
Which object does NOT impact the standard cost of manufactured items?
A. item group
B. cost groups
C. cost categories
D. BOM formula
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
A configure-to-order company is implementing Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. The company is preparing to
use the product configuration model functionality to develop the Bill of materials (BOM), routes and valid configuration
combinations.
You need to set up the configuration models, constraints, and pricing.
In which order should you perform the actions? To answer, move all actions from the list of actions to the answer area
and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:pass4itsure mb-320 exam question q9

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure mb-320 exam question q9-1

QUESTION 10
You work for a gem wholesaler that sells raw diamonds. Diamonds are purchased and sold in individual boxes but
weighed and inventoried in carats.
You are setting up a catch weight item for diamonds. Each box of diamonds must be tracked by its individual container
weight.
You need to set up this item as a full visibility catch weight item.
Which two steps must you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Assign it a Serial number group with per qty. defined as 1.
B. Assign the item a Tracking dimension group with active serial number control.
C. Create an inter-class unit of measure conversion between boxes and carats.
D. Assign a Tracking dimension group with batch number as the only active tracking dimension.
Correct Answer: BC
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamicsax-2012/appuser-itpro/create-a-catch-weight-item-with-full-visibility

QUESTION 11
A company is implementing Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations in their manufacturing environment. The
manufacturing process uses formulas to direct material consumption on the batch orders.
During production some items in the formula must be consumed automatically from the production area, while some
must be picked with their actual consumption reported on a pick list.
You need to determine which setup method is used for formula lines to allow for the desired mixed method picking
processes.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Leave the flushing principle blank on formula lines and set resource consumption to direct flushing principle of
materials based on consumption method for the line.
B. Leave the flushing principle blank on formula lines and set the default start value to Always for Automatic Bill of
Material Consumption.
C. Leave the flushing principle blank on formula lines and set default flushing principle on the items based on
consumption method for the item.
D. Set the flushing principle on each formula line based on consumption method for the line.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
A manufacturing company uses discreet manufacturing to make skateboards. Production order picking lists are
manually posted after finished goods are reported as finished.
A production order has six picking lists posted. The quantities on the picking lists do not match any of the reported or
finished quantities. This causes an inventory error for the raw materials. All raw material transactions must be tracked
on
production order and reconciled.
You need to process a single picking list for each production order.
What should you do first?
A. Create a movement journal and select the proper account for production postings to reconcile the inventory that was
posted in error
B. Delete the six posted picking list journals
C. Create a production picking list. When creating lines select option Full reversal.
D. Create a counting journal to reconcile the inventory that was posted in error.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solutions,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
A manufacturing plant uses Lean process. You plan to outsource a painting operation to a subcontracting vendor. You
create a service item named SP-01 to represent the painting service.
You need to create a subcontracting activity for the painting service.
Solution:
1.) Create a vendor warehouse for the subcontracting vendor
2.) Create a vendor resource and add it to a new work cell for outsource painting 3.) Create a production flow transfer
activity and specify the vendor warehouse as the target warehouse Does this solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

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Microsoft exam certification information

Exam MB-900: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-MB-900.aspx

This exam is designed for candidates looking to demonstrate foundational knowledge of Microsoft Dynamics 365, Power Platform applications, and the cloud computing model. This exam will cover the considerations and benefits of adopting Dynamics 365, the Power Platform, and cloud services in general. This exam can be taken as a precursor to Dynamics 365 certifications and training.

Skills measured

  • Understand Dynamics 365 (40-45%)
  • Understand cloud concepts (25-30%)
  • Understand deployments and releases (20-25%)

Microsoft Certifications MB-900 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Microsoft releases a major update to the Dynamics 365 applications.
You need to acquire a detailed list of new features and improvements in the new release.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. View the appropriate release notes
B. In Lifecycle Services, visit the Preview feature management section
C. On docs.microsoft.com, view the page titled What\\’s new in Dynamics 365
D. In the product\\’s Help, view the section titled What\\’s new
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
A company is preparing to deploy Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations.
You need to identify which out-of-the-box features are available only in the cloud platform.
Which out-of-the-box features are available? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:pass4itsure MB-900 exam question q2

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure MB-900 exam question q2-1

 

QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes is the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:pass4itsure mb-900 exam question q3

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure mb-900 exam question q3-1

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-gb/dynamics365/get-started/training/

 

QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
Match each tool to its task.
NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point.
Select and Place:pass4itsure mb-900 exam question q4

 

QUESTION 5
You need to enable users to export and import data that is in bank and payroll files in Dynamics 365 for Business
Central. What should you set up?
A. RapidStart Services
B. payroll-transaction import
C. Data Exchange Framework
D. data encryption
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-gb/dynamics365/business-central/admin-setup-and-administration

 

QUESTION 6
Several company employees need access to Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations for expense entry purposes
only.
You need to add the most restrictive license.
What should you do?
A. Get a User Subscription License (User SL) and give full user access
B. Get Licensed with Dynamics 365 Team Members
C. Get licensed with a Dynamics 365 Application subscription
D. Get a Device Subscription License (Device SL)
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
A company implements Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations.
You need to determine which tasks are available by default in the mobile app.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the task is available. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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Correct Answer:

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QUESTION 8
A university is implementing Dynamics 365 for Customer Engagement.
You need to purchase the minimum number of full licenses.
How many licenses should you purchase?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
HOTSPOT
You operate a Dynamics 365 for Customer Engagement environment.
You need to determine the security types used to secure different resources.
Which security type is used for each capability? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:pass4itsure mb-900 exam question q9

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure mb-900 exam question q9-1

 

QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
Match each Microsoft Azure service to its category. To answer, drag the appropriate category from the column on the
left to its Azure service on the right. Each category may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:pass4itsure mb-900 exam question q10

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure mb-900 exam question q10-1

 

QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
You need to determine whether to deploy Dynamics 365 Finance and Operations on-premises or in the cloud.
Which capabilities are handled by which deployment models? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer
area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:pass4itsure mb-900 exam question q11

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure mb-900 exam question q11-1

 

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
You are investigating the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Finance and Operations Lifecycle Services (LCS).
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:pass4itsure mb-900 exam question q12

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure mb-900 exam question q12-1

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/dev-itpro/dev-tools/application-stack-server-architecture

 

QUESTION 13
You are a system administrator for an organization that has Dynamics 365 for Sales and Dynamics 365 for Customer
Service.
A user who logs in to the Microsoft 365 portal sees only Dynamics 365 for Sales. You need to enable the user to see
Dynamics 365 for Customer Service.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. In Dynamics 365 model driven apps, enable the features
B. In PowerApps, create the application
C. Type the URL of the web application for Dynamics 365 for Customer Service
D. Assign the correct security role to the user\\’s ID
E. Add the correct licensing to the user ID in Active Directory
Correct Answer: DE

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