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Latest and Most Accurate Pass4itsure 700-038 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-16)

QUESTION 1
Which sequence of steps is correct for mapping business drivers with collaboration solutions?
A. Ask questions; aggregate the business drivers; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; present collaboration solution.
B. Ask questions; present collaboration solution; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; aggregate the business drivers.
C. Ask questions; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; present collaboration solution; aggregate the business drivers.
D. Ask questions; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; aggregate the business drivers; present collaboration solution.
700-038 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which statement best describes Cisco Smart Business Architecture?
A. Cisco Smart Business Architecture is a set of modeling tools that help customers design their future Cisco Collaboration Architecture model
B. Cisco Smart Business Architecture is a set of advanced design guides to help customers and partners design new advanced architectures.
C. Cisco Smart Business Architecture is a solution-level series of step-by-step solution and architecture guides to help quickly and efficiently implement mainstream architectures.
D. Similar to Cisco Validated Designs, Cisco Smart Business Architecture helps early adaptors to implement new technologies before they become mainstream technologies
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Cisco Collaboration Architecture differentiates from other solutions in terms of a unified workspace that creates a unique user experience. What is the main need of end users that needs to be addressed?
A. to have a centrally managed unified communication solution
B. to build up the architecture on any platform
C. to allow collaboration any time, on any device, and with any content
D. to ensure that telepresence is a mandatory part of any Cisco Collaboration Architecture
E. to establish appropriate security policies around collaboration applications
700-038 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What are two reasons for virtualizing Cisco Unified Communications applications? (Choose two)
A. lower configuration costs
B. reduce licensing costs
C. reduce carbon footprint
D. lower implementation costs
E. reduce cabling, rack space, and switch port costs
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 5
Which two options are business requirements in the public sector vertical market? (Choose two.)
A. creating rich opportunities for effective collaboration and learning
B. transforming customer experience
C. increasing employee productivity
D. supporting mobile environment
E. increasing revenue
700-038 pdf Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 6
Which two options should you keep in mind when presenting a solution for the business side to the non-IT executives? (Choose two)
A. They need to know how the collaboration architecture will help achieve their strategicgoals.
B. They need detailed information about the different layers of the future collaboration architecture.
C. They need to understand the applications and services that you have embedded in your architectural design.
D. They need information on how collaboration architecture will be deployed and serviced.
E. They need to know how the collaboration architecture will provide benefits and supporttheir operational business.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 7
Security plays an essential role in the Cisco Collaboration Architecture. In which layers of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture is security implemented?
A. Cisco provides advanced security solutions in the infrastructure and collaboration services layers while the collaboration applications layer security is ensured by third-party solutions.
B. Advanced Cisco security solutions are implemented in all layers of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture model.
C. Cisco security solutions are integrated into the infrastructure layer and partially into the collaboration services layer.
D. Security is implemented in all the layers except in the medianet services interface layer.
700-038 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which two statements indicate that the customer needs an infrastructure that can efficiently accommodate organizational changes? (Choose two.)
A. Collaboration equipment must be deployed at several locations and data centers.
B. Collaboration applications must be flexible to quickly adapt to changes in user demand.
C. The lifetime of any technology in our company is approximately two to three years
D. We need technology to dictate and lead business processes.
E. Future success of our company depends on operational agility.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 9
Which three options belong to primary activities that directly create value in a value chain model? (Choose three)
A. research and development
B. service
C. operations
D. procurement
E. inbound logistics
F. infrastructure
700-038 exam Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 10
Which two options are characteristics of Cisco collaboration cloud-based solutions? (Choose two.)
A. private cloud collaboration solution
B. data center interconnected solution
C. hosted collaboration solution partner cloud
D. security intelligence operations
E. integrated computed stacks
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
Which two questions represent market trend complexities for considering a new collaboration experience? (Choose two.)
A. How can we ensure that our employees are making the best use of all this information?
B. How do you deal with cultural and language differences, not to mention conference callsat all hours?
C. How can we make sure we and our employees are getting the information we need, when we need it?
D. How can we manage operational and capital costs in the face of increasing needs from the business?
E. How can we build customer intimacy when we have so many customers communicatingwith us?
700-038 dumps Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
How can the Cisco collaboration services layer of Cisco Collaboration Architecture help managers to measure KPIs?
A. The Cisco collaboration services layer is a standalone element of Cisco Collaboration Architecture and delivers services that directly improve business KPIs
B. Cisco collaboration services and infrastructure layers compose Cisco Collaboration Architecture that improves technical KPIs.
C. The Cisco collaboration services layer delivers additional performance information to demonstrate increased business performance.
D. Conferencing, IP communications, telepresence, and other Cisco collaboration services deliver additional information to show the increased business performance.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which two options are correct statements about the corporate value chain? (Choose two)
A. The corporate value chain helps identify relevant departments but does not provide a link to the associated executives.
B. The corporate value chain is a straight map to identify stakeholders within the customer’s organization.
C. The corporate value chain shows hierarchies or reporting lines that help identify whom to approach outside of the IT department.
D. The corporate value chain is an organization chart that helps identify different departments and business process owners
E. The corporate value chain and core processes help map the relevant departments to the customer’s organizational chart.
700-038 pdf Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 14
Which three options are assessment types for gap analysis? (Choose three)
A. outsourcing assessments
B. architectural assessments
C. operational assessments
D. business assessments
E. technology assessments
F. virtualization assessments
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 15
Cisco supply chain agility solutions are addressing a crucial part within the manufacturing industry. Which of the following is the main driver of that branch of industry?
A. achieve lower unit costs
B. ensure quality standards to customers
C. increase utilization of manufacturing plants
D. achieve stronger competitive position in the marketplace
E. adopt the supply chain to changing markets
700-038 vce Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 16
Which option represents a megatrend in the marketplace that has impacted collaboration?
A. dispersed workforces
B. virtualization of the workplace
C. device flexibility
D. expertise on demand
Correct Answer: B

The Advanced Collaboration Architecture Field Engineer Exam exam (700-038) is a assessment with 50 questions. This exam tests a candidate’s ability to develop network applications in the Cisco environment. With the complete collection of questions and answers, pass4itsure has assembled to take you through 50 Q&As to your 700-038 dumps exam preparation.

Exam Code: 700-038
Exam Name: Advanced Collaboration Architecture Field Engineer Exam
Q&As: 50

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The following course is the recommended training for this exam:

  • Implementing and Troubleshooting the Cisco Cloud Infrastructure (CLDINF)

Latest and Most Accurate Pass4itsure 300-460 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-17)

QUESTION 1
A Cisco UCS Director administrator is changing the boot order in a boot policy. Which option lists the steps that accomplish this task?
A. On the menu bar, choose Physical > Storage.
In the left pane, expand the pod and then click the Cisco UCS Manager account.
In the right pane, click the Organizations tab.
Click the organization in which you want to modify a policy and then click View Details.
Click the Manage Boot Order tab.
Choose the boot policy that you want to clone and click Manage Boot Order.
B. On the menu bar, choose Physical > Compute.
In the left pane, expand the pod and then click the Cisco UCS Manager account.
In the right pane, click the Organizations tab.
Click the organization in which you want to modify a policy and then click View Details.
Click the Boot Policies tab.
Choose the boot policy that you want to clone and click Manage Boot Devices Order.
C. On the menu bar, choose Physical > Storage.
In the left pane, expand the pod and then click the Cisco UCS Manager account.
In the right pane, click the Organizations tab.
Click the organization in which you want to modify a policy and then click View Details.
Click the Boot Policies tab.
Choose the boot policy that you want to clone and click Manage Boot Devices Order.
D. On the menu bar, choose Physical > Compute.
In the left pane, expand the pod and then click the Cisco UCS Manager account.
In the right pane, click the Organizations tab.
Click the organization in which you want to modify a policy and then click View Details.
Click the Manage Boot Order tab.
Choose the boot policy that you want to clone and click Manage Boot Order.
300-460 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 2
A Cisco UCS Director administrator is configuring vHBA. Which four fields are needed to configure vHBA? (Choose four.)
A. vHBA Name
B. Adapter Policy
C. Template Type
D. Organizations
E. Description
F. Fabric ID
G. UCS Organization Name
H. UCS Account Name
Correct Answer: ACEF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
Which three options does the Cisco UCS Manager boot policy determine? (Choose three.)
A. initiator port range
B. selection of the boot device
C. location from which the server boots
D. initiator and target ports
E. global boot device priority
F. order in which boot devices are invoked
300-460 dumps Correct Answer: BCF
Explanation

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
300-460 dumps
Which three commands complete the configuration for this Cisco Nexus 1000V port profile that is assigned to a vmkernel used for L3 VSM control plane? (Choose three.)
A. service-policy type qos output vmk-control
B. vmware port-group
C. system vlan 119
D. capability 13control
E. swithchport mode trunk
F. mtu 9000
G. swithchport 12control
Correct Answer: BCD
Explanation

QUESTION 5
An administrator is installing a hypervisor and has provisioned a dedicated LAN connectivity, set the boot order, and is now rebooting the server to start installation. Which method is the administrator using to install the hypervisor?
A. host image mapping
B. KVM console
C. PXE installation
D. virtual boot
300-460 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 6
An architect must choose a VXLAN architecture that utilizes hardware-based VXLAN adapters. Which type of architecture must be selected?
A. Layer 3
B. NSX
C. ACI
D. Layer 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 7
Which three options describe the correct methods to install the Cisco Nexus 1000V VEM (VIB) software module on the VMware ESXi hypervisor? (Choose three.)
A. using the “Add Host to vSphere Distributed Switch” dialog on the vSphere Network tab when Update Manager is installed
B. esxcli software vib install –n/tmp/Cisco_bootbank_cisco-vem –v173-esx_5.2.1.3.1.4.0-3.2.1.vib
C. executing the Deploy-Nexus 1000V-VSEM.ps1 script
D. esxcli software vib install –v/tmp/Cisco_bootbank_cisco-vem –v173-esx_5.2.1.3.1.4.0-3.2.1.vib
E. using the Host Selection dialog box in Cisco Virtual Switch Update Manager
F. creating a baseline group in VMware Update Manager
300-460 vce Correct Answer: ADE
Explanation

QUESTION 8
An engineer must ensure that all VXLAN and VTEP processes are kept on purpose-built hardware to ensure that all overlay functions are as fast as possible. In which solution is all VXLAN and VTEP decision making moved to the hardware, versus potentially slower software control?
A. Layer 3
B. ACI
C. NSX
D. Layer 2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 9
Which three statements about server pools are true? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco USC Director Displays only the managed servers in a server pool, but the size of the pool includes all servers.
B. Servers pools cannot be assigned to a Cisco USC Director group.
C. A given server can belong only to a specific server pool.
D. A server pool contains a set of servers that share the same attributes such as server type, amount of memory, local storage, type of CPU, or local drive configuration.
E. A server pool only includes servers from a specific chassis in the system.
F. If your system implements multitenansy through organizations, you can designate one ore more server pools to be used by a specific organization.
300-460 exam Correct Answer: ADF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
After implementing VXLAN VTEPs in a VMware NSX deployment, an engineer discovers that the VXLAN tunnel does not appear to function across the physical network. A pair of Cisco Nexus 5596UP Switches onnet the virtual network to the
physical network. To permit the VXLAN tunnel to operate correctly, which action must the engineer take?
A. Upgrade Cisco Nexus to version 7.0 code.
B. Establish a dynamic routing protocol between the vSphere virtual router and the Cisco Nexus switches.
C. Remove storm control mechanisms that are blocking the establishment of the VXLAN tunnel.
D. Configure jumbo frame support on the Cisco Nexus switches.
E. Build a GRE tunnel to correctly encapsulate VXLAN between the networks.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 11
A Cisco UCS Director administrator is installing a Bare Metal Agent and is in the process of adding an NFS mount point. Which Administration menu option does the administrator choose to add an NFS mount point?
A. Compute Accounts
B. Storage Accounts
C. Physical Accounts
D. Bare Metal Accounts
300-460 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 12
An engineer opens a KVM to a Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Server and boots off a Windows Server ISO with a virtual mapped drive. The server is not attempting to boot from the ISO. What must the engineer modify first?
A. boot policy to KVM CD
B. BIOS policy to CD
C. boot policy to CD
D. local disk policy to CD
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:

QUESTION 13
Which four issues are often detected when validating workflows in Cisco UCS Director? (Choose four.)
A. Task Handler not found
B. missing administrator tasks or input tasks after import or upgrade
C. mapping mismatch
D. version incompatibilities
E. debugging logging information
F. missing optional values for tasks
G. missing task action value
H. missing mandatory values for tasks
300-460 pdf Correct Answer: ABCH
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: Section Workflow validation of the link:

QUESTION 14
A Cisco UCSM administrator has been tasked with deploying a new data center. Which two recommendations aid in the ability to associate a service with a server? (Choose two.)
A. The host control setting for a QoS policy applies to vNICs only. It has no effect on a vHBA.
B. You can assign only a QoS policy to a vHBA if the priority setting for that policy is set to fc, which represents the Fibre Channel system class.
C. The host control setting for a QoS policy applies to vHBAs only.
D. Power capping is supported for rack servers. If you include a power control policy in a service profile that is associated with a rack-mount server, the policy is implemented.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation

QUESTION 15
A Cisco UCS Director administrator is attempting to resolve a workflow validation issue. Which option lists the steps that accomplish this task?
A. On the menu bar, choose Policies > Catalogs.
Click the Activities tab.
Choose the workflow that failed validation.
Click Validate Workflow.
In the Workflow Validation dialog box, double click the description under Resolution.
In the Validation Errors dialog box, view the summary for the issue detected and complete the wizard to resolve the validation error.
B. On the menu bar, choose Policies > Orchestration.
Click the Activities tab.
Choose the workflow that failed validation.
Click Validate Workflow.
In the Workflow Validation dialog box, double click the description under Resolution.
In the Validation Errors dialog box, view the summary for the issue detected and complete the wizard to resolve the validation error.
C. On the menu bar, choose Policies > Orchestration.
Click the Workflows tab.
Choose the workflow that failed validation.
Click Validate Workflow.
In the Workflow Validation dialog box, double click the description under Resolution.
In the Validation Errors dialog box, view the summary for the issue detected and complete the wizard to resolve the validation error.
D. On the menu bar, choose Policies > Catalogs.
Click the Workflows tab.
Choose the workflow that failed validation.
Click Validate Workflow.
In the Workflow Validation dialog box, double click the description under Resolution.
In the Validation Errors dialog box, view the summary for the issue detected and complete the wizard to resolve the validation error.
300-460 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 16
An engineer must create Cisco UCS service profiles for a new B-Series ESXi deployment. Which two configuration steps must be performed to isolate live migration traffic within a single Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect? (Choose two.)
A. Install Cisco Nexus 1000V.
B. Enable fabric failover.
C. Create a single vNIC for the vSwitch.
D. Disable fabric failover.
E. Create one vNIC per fabric for the vSwitch.
F. Install VM-FEX.
Correct Answer: BF
Explanation

QUESTION 17
Which Cisco Nexus 1000V configuration implements VxLAN segment 5001 as unicast and segment 5002 as multicast?
A. bridge-domain bd-5001
segment id 5001
no segment distribution mac
!
Bridge-domain bd-5002
segment id 5002
group 239.1.1.2
B. segment mode multicast
bridge-domain bd-5001
segment id 5001
segment mode unicast-only
!
Bridge-domain bd-5002
segment id 5002
group 239.1.1.2
segment mode multicast
C. segment mode unicast-only
bridge-domain bd-5001
segment id 5001
!
Bridge-domain bd-5002
segment id 5002
group 239.1.1.2
no segment mode unicast-only
D. segment mode unicast-only
bridge-domain bd-5001
segment id 5001
!
Bridge-domain bd-5002
segment id 5002
300-460 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:

The Implementing and Troubleshooting the Cisco Cloud Infrastructure (CLDINF) exam (300-460) is a 90-minute assessment with 55-65 questions. This exam tests a candidate’s ability to develop network applications in the Cisco environment. With the complete collection of questions and answers, pass4itsure has assembled to take you through 107 Q&As to your 300-460 dumps exam preparation.

Exam Code: 300-460
Exam Name: Implementing and Troubleshooting the Cisco Cloud Infrastructure
Q&As: 107

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Awesome
“This is my first time to sit a Cisco exam, so you will know how nervous I was! Thanks for your help, Kingexam! I passed. I think 95% questions are more or less the same as your guidance. Some questions with the answer are in the different sequence, and, sorry to point out that one answer of your questions is incorrect, I’ll email you to let you know, you guys need to revise it. Well, I think your kingexam’s guidance is still more accurate than others. The most important thing is I got passed πŸ™‚ Paul Hussler”

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Cisco 300-550 Dumps Recommended Traing:
The following courses are the recommended training for this exam:

  • Designing and Implementing Cisco Network Programmability (NPDESI) v1.0 – Self-paced E-Learning
  • Designing and Implementing Cisco Network Programmability (NPDESI) – Instructor-led Training

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Latest and Most Accurate Pass4itsure 300-550 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-28)

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
300-550 dumps
To make this code work properly, which tine of code should you insert at the blank line?
A. r = requests.get(url, headers=header, verify-False)
B. r = requesis.post(url, data:payload, headers:header, verify:False)
C. r = requests.post(url, data=payload, headers=header, verify=False)
D. r = requests(method=’POST’, url, data=payload, headers=header. verify=False)
300-550 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You want to implement a new feature in a home-grown network automation tool. Because your development team uses the Agile development methodology, which documentation must you create for them, in order to put this feature on the roadmap?
A. ROI analysis
B. case study
C. user story
D. SCIPAB breakdown
E. enhancement request
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which two parts are required for a RESTful API call? (Choose two.)
A. resource
B. parameter
C. method
D. query
E. fragment
300-550 dumps Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
300-550 dumps
Which action effectively secures the controller?
A. Enable HTTP to HTTPS redirect.
B. Require complex passwords.
C. Use NAT on the router before the controller.
D. Blacklist the public WAN.
E. Whitelist the Admins network and block all others.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-550 dumps
A network engineer created a Bash script to automate some network device tasks. What are two potential risks when a network operator runs this script as written? (Choose two.)
A. The script results in network devices losing connectivity.
B. The script executes too slowly.
C. The script configures unintended commands.
D. The script exposes users’ passwords.
E. The script passes configuration data in cleartext.
300-550 pdf Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
Which tool streamlines the development of network applications?
A. Java Runtime Engine
B. software development kit
C. command-line interface
D. General Public License
E. package management system
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
What are two node types in a YANG data model? (Choose two.)
A. grouping
B. leaf
C. container
D. module
E. instance
300-550 vce Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
Where is the node-ui.log stored on the Cisco APIC-EM appliance?
A. in the /var/Iog/grapevine/services/node-ui directory within the container that is running the node-ui instance
B. in the Cassandra database instance that is running within the container that is running the node-ui instance
C. in the /opt/CSCOapicem/logs/node-ui directory within the Cisco APIC-EM appliance root
D. in the /var/log/grapevine/services/node-ui directory within the Cisco APIC-EM appliance root
E. in the Cisco APIC-EM Cassandra database instance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which statement is used to associate a submodule and a parent module in a YANG data model?
A. import
B. namespace
C. include
D. belongs-to
300-550 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You can use Visore to accomplish which task?
A. Monitor faults and events by using a subscription model.
B. Read object properties and information.
C. Update any properties of an object that are not read-only.
D. Update any properties of an object.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A web service returns a JSON object to your Python script. What is the most logical object in which to store the JSON response?
A. an integer
B. a dictionary
C. a tuple
D. a string
E. a list
300-550 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
300-550 dumps
Which Linux command provides output that is similar to the output in the exhibit?
A. cat /etc/hosts
B. tcpdump -a
C. ifconfig -av
D. netstat -an
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
What is the main benefit of having an out-of-band management network for an infrastructure controller?
A. Data plane disruption is less likely.
B. It provides separation of the management and data planes.
C. Configuration of the controller is faster and simpler.
D. It is less expensive.
300-550 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which field in Visore can you use to find a unique instance of a managed object?
A. IcOwn
B. dn
C. class name
D. classld
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which communication mechanism does NETCONF use?
A. SOAP over HTTPS
B. YAML over SSH
C. YAML over HTTPS
D. RPC over SSH
300-550 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Management protocols like NETCONF access network elements on well-known ports. Which design practice hardens a network device implementation?
A. Specify the source interface for SSH.
B. Limit access to port 830, well-known clients, and SSH VTY.
C. Enable CoPP.
D. Configure ip http secure-server.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which two protocols are examples of southbound APIs? (Choose two.)
A. VXLAN-GPE
B. LLDP
C. NETCONF
D. IPFIX
E. SYSLOG
F. OpFlex
300-550 exam Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 18
Which two northbound protocols are supported by the Cisco NSO Controller? (Choose two)
A. REST
B. SOAP
C. OpenFlow
D. NETCONF
E. PCEP
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 19
Which statement about shading in ACI is true?
A. Sharding is the technology that is designed to prevent “split-brain” scenarios in ACI.
B. Sharding is the service that presents the API on a Cisco APIC.
C. Sharding is the mechanism for distributing the database and configuration changes on a Cisco APIC cluster.
D. Sharding is the distributed topology that is used in ACI (also referred to as spine-leaf).
300-550 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
After completing the OSC setup wizard, the configuration does not get applied. Which two log files should you check to determine the errors that occurred? (Choose two.)
A. /var/log/node_config_state.log
B. /var/log/platform_services.log
C. /var/log/ansible.log
D. /var/log/messages.log
E. /var/log/controller.log
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 21
YANG modeling supports which two comment styles? (Choose two.)
A. A block comment is enclosed within “<–” and “–>”.
B. A single-line comment starts with “#” and ends at the end of the line.
C. A single-line comment starts with “!” and ends at the end of the line.
D. A block comment is enclosed within “/*” and “*/”.
E. A single-line comment starts with “//” and ends at the end of the line.
300-550 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
How is a service ticket used when constructing a Cisco APIC-EM API request?
A. to identify the service type
B. to identify a service on the controller
C. to determine the request type
D. as a security token
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which statement about NX-API REST is true?
A. Configuration and state information is stored in the MIT.
B. NX-API REST requires a commercial license to enable.
C. Partial commits are supported.
D. Fault objects may be queried, but event objects cannot be queried.
300-550 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the protocol on the left to its purpose in ACI fabric discovery on the right.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
300-550 dumps

QUESTION 25
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the HTTP status code number on the left to the corresponding status code name on the right.
Select and Place:
300-550 dumps
300-550 exam Correct Answer:
300-550 dumps

QUESTION 26
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the tools on the left to their corresponding functions on the right.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
300-550 dumps

QUESTION 27
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the network automation protocol on the left to the transport protocol that it supports on the right. Some options are used more than once.
Select and Place:
300-550 dumps
300-550 dumps Correct Answer:
300-550 dumps

QUESTION 28
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the protocol on the loft to its correct description on the right.
Select and Place:
300-550 dumps
Correct Answer:
300-550 dumps

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Latest and Most Accurate Pass4itsure 400-201 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-21)

QUESTION 1
Which option is the Cisco cloud management platform that is designed for enterprise and public sector IT organizations to help build private and hybrid clouds?
A. Cisco Cloud Orchestrator
B. Cisco UCS Director
C. Cisco Intercloud Fabric
D. Cisco Intelligent Automation for Cloud
400-201 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
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Refer to the exhibit. An MPLS VPN service was provisioned for customer ABC both sites must be communication to each other primarily over the wan link with no traffic over the wan circuits PE1 has the same configuration as PE2 which two
commands can be configure on the PEs to accomplish the desired goal?(Choose two)
A. Under sub interface IP VRF SITEMAP SoO with the same SoO value.
B. no neighbor AS-override.
C. Neighbor route-map SoO in with the same SoO value.
D. Neighbor route-map SoO in with a different SoO value.
E. Neighbor route-map SoOout with the same SoO value.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
400-151 dumps
Refer to the exhibit Customer ABC is peering with two service providers for internet access. In order to prevent the AS 100 from becoming a transit AS between ISP_1 and ISP_2. Which BGP configuration must be applied to achieve this goal?
A. CE1# CE2#
ip as-path access-list 1 permit^100$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^100$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in neighbor 1.1.1.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in
B. CE1# CE2#
ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out
C. CE1# CE2#
ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out
D. CE1# CE2#
ip as-path access-list 1 permit^11$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^11$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out
E. CE1# CE2#
ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in neighbor 1.1.1.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in
400-201 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A network operation engineer has these requirement:
*prevent multicast transit when it is enforced by unicast stub routing.
*Reduce the overall processing of PIM control traffic. Especially when the number of stub links increases on the stub device.
*protect against multicast spoofing of PM designated router messages and PIM assert messages.
Which solution meets these requirements?
A. explicit tracking of receivers.
B. multicast stub routing.
C. Source Specific Multicast.
D. PIM allow RP.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which option is the benefit of per-link LFA over per-prefix LFA?
A. It has a greater applicability
B. It provides greater protection coverage
C. It is simpler
D. It enables better bandwidth utilization
400-201 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which standard provides insurance that the new hardware rollout plan meets certain environment design guidelines before deployment?
A. NAS
B. eTOM
C. NEBS
D. ITIL
E. COBIT
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
ISP A provides L2VPN services to Company B through an MPLS network. Company B uses all available CoS values to classify and different traffic forwarding within all Company B sites. ISP A uses the following CoS values to differentiate service classes for the VPN customer traffic
*MPLS EXP 0 for Bronze service class
*MPLS EXP 1 for Silver service class
*MPLS EXP 2 for Gold service class
*Remaining MPLS EXP values for ISP A internal use
ISP A’s policy is to forward VPN customer traffic based only on their Bronze, silver and Gold service classes. Which QoS method must ISP A implement to achieve this?
A. Short-pipe Mode
B. Russian Doll Model
C. Pipe Mode
D. Uniform Mode
E. Maximum Allocation Model
400-201 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which two options are characteristics of MoFRR? ( Choose two)
A. Uses additional PIM join toward source
B. Based on multicast forward error correction feature
C. Based on PIM Fast Route
D. Requires MPLS TE FRR enabled with link protection and node protection
E. Utilizes two equal-cost paths toward source
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 9
Which routing table is used by PEs and ASBRs to store all VPN routes that need to be exchanged in an Inter-AS L3VPN option B scenario?
A. IGP table
B. VRF routing table
C. Global routing table
D. BGP table
400-201 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
In the MC-LAG environment, which two statements about clustering HA are true?
A. Public connection is used to access the active node of cluster from the outside cluster
B. Private connection is used to connect the nodes of the cluster for private communication
C. Private connection is used to access the active node of cluster from the outside cluster
D. Public connection is used to connect the nodes of cluster for private communication
E. Public connection is used to monitor the health and status of each node in the HA cluster using the heartbeat system
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
400-151 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. After the BGP TCP negotiation between Router A and Router B, what will be the value of the keep alive timer and the hold-down timer, respectively?
A. 3 seconds and 9 seconds
B. 60 seconds and 180 seconds
C. 10 seconds and 9 seconds
D. no value, because BGP negotiation will not be successful
E. 10 seconds and 10 seconds
F. 10 seconds and 30 seconds
G. 3 seconds and 30 seconds
H. 3 seconds and 10 seconds
400-201 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which are two benefits of using segment routing over RSVP-TE for traffic engineering? (Choose two)
A. Segment routing traffic engineering tunnels always follow the low-latency path
B. ECMP-aware traffic engineering is natively supported by segment routing
C. Per-flow state is present only at the ingress node to the Segment routing-enabled network
D. Per-flow state is present at the ingress and egress node to the segment routing-enabled network
E. Per-flow state is maintained on all nodes of the segment routing-enabled network
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
Which three PIM modes require RP? (Choose three)
A. PIM-DM
B. PIM-SM
C. PIM with mLDP
D. PIM-SSM
E. PIM anycast
F. PIM-BIDIR
400-201 pdf Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 14
Which option is the benefit of per-link LFA over per-prefix LFA?
A. It has a greater applicability
B. It provides greater protection coverage
C. It is simpler
D. It enables better bandwidth utilization
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
In which two ways does the BGP graceful restart capability preserve prefix information during a restart? (Choose two.)
A. The peer router sends an end -of RIB message to the restarting router
B. The peer router immediately removes the BGP routes that it learned from the restarting router from its BGP routing table
C. The restarting router waits to receive updates from the neighboring routers.
D. The restarting router does not remove any stale prefixes after the timer for stale entries exTs.
E. The restarting router removes any stale prefixes after the timer for stale entries expires
400-201 vce Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 16
What is the port number of an IPsec Encapsulating Security Payload packet? (ESP)
A. IP protocol 51
B. UDP port 50
C. Ip protocol 50
D. TCP Port 50
E. UDP port 51
F. TCP port 51
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Two routers that are running MPLS and LDP have multiple links that than connect them to each other. An engineer wants to ensure that the label bindings are not flushed from the LIB if one of the links fails. Which configuration meets this requirement?
A. the mpls ldp neighbor targeted command
B. the mpls ip command on a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel
C. the mpls ldp autoconfig command
D. the mpls ldp session protection command
400-201 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
A network engineer has a requirement to configure IP flow exporting using standard protocols on a cisco IOS XE device. Which configuration achieves this goal?
A. flow exporter EXPORTER
destination 10.1.1.1
export-protocol version 9
transport udp 90
B. flow exporter EXPORTER
destination 10.1.1.1
source Loopback 0
transport udp 90
C. flow exporter EXPORTER
destination 10.1.1.1
source Loopback 0
transport udp 90
version ipfix
D. flow exporter EXPORTER
destination 10.1.1.1
export-protocol ipfix
transport udp 90
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
A customer has a requirements record voice calls for IPT connected on switch A using VLAN 200.Record traffic should be forwarded to the IPCC recording server, which is connected on switch B, voice recording is not working. Assuming that
RSPAN source monitoring is properly set, which action fixes this problem?
A. On switch B, the monitor session 1 destination remote command must be applied
B. On switch B, the port connects to the recording server must have an IP address and be accessible via VLAN 200
C. On switch B, the port that connects to the reording server must be accessed on VLAN
D. On switch A and switch B, the remote-span command must be configured on the mirroring dedicated VLAN
400-201 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
A service provider engineering team must design a solution that supports end-to-end LSPS for multiple IGP domains within different AS numbers. According to RFC 3107, which solution achieves this goal?
A. LDP and BGP
B. BGP and Send-label
C. RSVP and IS-IS or OSPF
D. RSVP and BGP
E. mLDP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
A service provider is implementing an nV Edge system with the two ASR 9000 chassis has two RSPs. Which two cabling methods reflect the minimum configuration needed for full synchronization between the two Cisco ASR 9000 chassis?
(Choose two)
A. Create the single virtual control plane that connect the two RSPs between the two chassis via Layer 2 connections
B. Create the IRL connections between the two chassis via Layer 3 connections using the EOBC 10 Gbps ports of the RSPs
C. Create the IRL connections between the two chassis via Layer 3 connections using the ports of the line cards
D. Create the single virtual control plane that connect the two chassis via Layer 3 connections using the 10 Gbps ports of the line cards
E. Create the IRL connections between the two chassis via Layer 1 connections using the10 Gbps ports of the line cards
F. Create the single virtual control plane that connect the two chassis via 100 Gbps bundle interfaces
G. Create the IRL connections between the two chassis via Layer 1 connections using the EOBC 10 Gbps ports of the RSPs
400-201 pdf Correct Answer: AE

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Q&As: 491

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QUESTION 1
Drag and drop the feature form the left onto the correct benefits on the right.
Select and Place:
400-151 dumps
400-151 exam Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps

QUESTION 2
Drag and drop the spanning-tree port from the left onto the correct description on the right
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 3
Drag and drop the objects of the ACI policy model from left onto the correct definition on right.
Select and Place:
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400-151 dumps Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 4
Drag and drop the feature from the left onto the left onto the correct description on the right
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps

QUESTION 5
Drag and drop me concept of Cisco UCS Director orchestrator from the left onto the correct description on the right.
Select and Place:
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400-151 pdf Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 6
Drag and drop terms at the Cisco Prime Service Catalog from the left onto the definition on the right.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 7
Drag and drop the method from the left onto the correct description on the right.
Select and Place:
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400-151 vce Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps

QUESTION 8
An admin is updating an existing Cisco UCS environment to accommodate a new storage array that will be directly attached to the Cisco UCS. Unmanaged servers external to the Cisco UCS fabric interconnects will also access the new array existing Cisco UCS service profiles will be used to access the new storage array. Drag and drop the appropriate steps from left into the correct order on the right to migrate the Cisco UCS to support the new storage array.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps

QUESTION 9
Drag and drop the correct port security configuration on the left to the correct action on the right.
Select and Place:
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400-151 exam Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps

QUESTION 10
Drag and drop the mode of operation on left onto the correct definition on right.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 11
Drag and drop feature on the left onto the appropriate business benefits on the right
Select and Place:
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QUESTION 12
Drag and drop the actions in the left column into the right column in the order in which you would perform those actions in a step-by-step in-service software upgrade process
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 13
Drag and drop two configurations that should fail without data loss from the left column into the 2 Devices Lost column on the right.
Select and Place:
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400-151 pdf Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 14
Drag and drop the correct description on the left onto the protocols and features on the right. Not all options will be used.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 15
Drag and drop sequence of the steps on left for ISSU software of dual supervisor switches to achieve a non-disruptive upgrade on the right.
Select and Place:
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400-151 vce Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 16
Drag and drop the vPC feature on the left onto the correct description on the right.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 17
Drag and drop the feature form the left onto the correct description on the right
Select and Place:
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400-151 exam Correct Answer:
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Exam Code: 400-151
Exam Name: CCIE Data Center Written Exam
Q&As: 491

The CCIE Data Center Written Exam (CCIE Data Center)(400-151) exam is a 120-minute, 90-110 item exam that assesses how sales teams can effectively position in the CCIE Data Center. Some of the topics assessed are how to consider the challenges faced by business and IT today and how this relates to Cisco opportunities. The pass4itsure 400-151 dumps exam also assesses who β€œthe customer” is and the importance of applications to many of the customers that are influential in purchasing application-based solutions. This certificate proves that the candidate has an advanced understanding within the CCIE Data Center Written Exam.
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2018 New Pass4isture Microsoft 70-341 Dumps Version: Candidates for this exam are senior administrators who act as the technical lead over a team of administrators. Candidates serve as a third level of support between the Exchange Recipient Administrator and the Exchange Server Administrator. Candidates should have a minimum of three years of experience managing Exchange servers and Exchange messaging in an enterprise environment.
QUESTION 1
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization named adatum.com. The organization contains five Mailbox servers and two Client Access servers. You need to ensure that an administrator named user1 receives a daily email message that contains a log of all the Exchange Server administrative actions. Which cmdlet should you use in a scheduled task?
A. Search-AdminAuditLog
B. Set-Mailbox
C. New-AdminAuditLogSearch
D. Set-ExchangeServer
E. Set-AdminAuditLogConfig
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 270-341 dumps
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization named Contoso. The organization contains a server named Server1 that has Exchange Server 2013 installed. Server1 has the Mailbox server role and the Client Access server role installed. Server1 has a Send connector for a partner company. The Send connector is configured for Domain Security with a domain named adatum.com.
The only certificate installed on Server1 expires. You discover that all email messages sent to adatum.com remain in the queue on Server1. On Server1, you install a new certificate from a trusted third-party. You need to ensure that the email messages are delivered to adatum.com. What should you do?
A. Assign the new certificate to the IIS service.
B. Send the new certificate to the administrator at adatum.com.
C. Assign the new certificate to the SMTP service.
D. Create a new send connector that contains an address space to adatum.com.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A user fails to connect to his mailbox by using Outlook Anywhere. The user successfully connects to the mailbox by using an Exchange ActiveSync-enabled mobile device and Outlook Web App. You need to identify what prevents the users from connecting to the mailbox by using Outlook Anywhere. Which tool should you use?
A. Microsoft Outlook
B. Microsoft Exchange Server Deployment Assistant
C. Microsoft Exchange RPC Extractor
D. Microsoft Exchange Server Profile Analyzer
E. Microsoft Exchange Server User Monitor
F. Microsoft Exchange Load Generator
G. Exchange Remote Connectivity Analyzer
H. Exchange Server MAPI Editor
Correct Answer: G

2018 New Pass4isture Microsoft 70-410 Dumps Version: This exam is part one of a series of three exams that test the skills and knowledge necessary to implement a core Windows Server 2012 infrastructure in an existing enterprise environment. Passing this exam validates a candidate’s ability to implement and configure Windows Server 2012 core services, such as Active Directory and the networking services. Passing this exam along with the other two exams confirms that a candidate has the skills and knowledge necessary for implementing, managing, maintaining, and provisioning services and infrastructure in a Windows Server 2012 environment.
QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All client computer accounts are in an organizational unit (OU) named AllComputers. Client computers run either windows 7 or Windows 8.
You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1.
You link GP1 to the AllComputers OU.
You need to ensure that GP1 applies only to computers that have more than 8 GB of memory. What should you configure?
A. The Security settings of GP1
B. The Block Inheritance option for AllComputers
C. The Security settings of AllComputers
D. The WMI filter for GP1
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI) filters allow you to dynamically determine the scope of Group Policy objects (GPOs) based on attributes of the target computer. When a GPO that is linked to a WMI filter is applied on the target computer, the filter is evaluated on the target computer. If the WMI filter evaluates to false, the GPO is not applied (except if the client computer is running Windows Server, in which case the filter is ignored and the GPO is always applied).If the WMI filter evaluates to true, the GPO is applied.
References: Training Guide: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012 R2: Chapter 10: Implementing Group Policy, p.470, 482

QUESTION 270-410 dumps
Your network contains multiple subnets. On one of the subnets, you deploy a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You install the DNS Server server role on Server1, and then you create a standard primary zone named contoso.com.
You need to ensure that client computers can resolve single-label names to IP addresses. What should you do first?
A. Create a reverse lookup zone.
B. Convert the contoso.com zone to an Active Directory-integrated zone.
C. Create a GlobalNames zone.
D. Configure dynamic updates for contoso.com.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You should use GlobalNames zone to take advantage of single-label names. This will also ensure that the zone remains valid.
References:

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The DNS zone for contoso.com is Active-Directory integrated. The domain contains 500 client computers. There are an additional 20 computers in a workgroup. You discover that every client computer on the network can add its record to the contoso.com zone. You need to ensure that only the client computers in the Active Directory domain can register records in the contoso.com zone. What should you do?
A. Sign the contoso.com zone by using DNSSEC.
B. Configure the Dynamic updates settings of the contoso.com zone.
C. Configure the Security settings of the contoso.com zone.
D. Move the contoso.com zone to a domain controller that is configured as a DNS server.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
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The following course is the recommended training for this exam.

  • Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals (CLDFND) v1.1

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Latest and Most Accurate Pass4itsure 210-451 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-30)

QUESTION 1
Which description of the elasticity of a Cloud-based infrastructure is true?
A. provides dynamic on-demand provisioning of services in near real time
B. enables sharing of resources and costs across a large pool of users
C. multisite architecture to reduce impact from outages in any one site
D. provides a security posture that is manageable from a single point of control
210-451 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which characteristic is an inoperative attribute of a private Cloud deployment?
A. self service and on demand
B. shared by many companies
C. highly scalable
D. metered for reporting or billing purposes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which option is one essential characteristic of Cloud computing?
A. It must use virtualization.
B. It must provide load balancing services.
C. It must provide on-demand self service.
D. It must run on open source software.
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What are the five specific characteristics common to the Cloud environments?
A. on-demand usage, ubiquitous access, multi-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
B. on-demand usage, ubiquitous access, tiered-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
C. on-demand usage, autonomous access, multi-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
D. dynamic usage, ubiquitous access, multi-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which best describes a SaaS Cloud model?
A. infrastructure that presents the user with an operating system allowing programming language
execution environment for testing database and web servers
B. infrastructure that virtualizes server functions on a hypervisor
C. infrastructure that provides elastic storage and computing resources
D. a platform that provides access to application software or database resources
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
IaaS is an acronym for what type of Cloud?
A. Instances as a Service
B. Infrastructure as a Service
C. Internet as a Service
D. Images as a Service
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which Cloud service model is appropriate for a physical data center move to the Cloud?
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Compute as a Service
D. Software as a Service
210-451 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which statement defines Cloud Service Models?
A. infrastructure as a service, software as a service, platform as a service
B. internet as a service, software as a service, platform as a service
C. infrastructure as a service, big data as a service, platform as a service
D. infrastructure as a service, software as a service, grid as a service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which best describes a Cloud deployment model that relies on interoperability between Cloud providers?
A. Hybrid Cloud
B. Multi-Cloud
C. InterCloud
D. Community Cloud
210-451 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which three options are considered Cloud deployment models? (Choose three.)
A. Public Cloud
B. Hybrid Cloud
C. Open Cloud
D. Private Cloud
E. Stack Cloud
F. Distributed Cloud
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 11
Company ABC hosts all their applications internally. During one day of the month, the demand for their
applications far exceeds the capacity of their datacenter. Which Cloud model should Company ABC
consider using?
A. Community
B. Private
C. Hybrid
D. Public
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which option lists the Cloud deployment models?
A. public, community, private, hybrid
B. cluster, community, private, hybrid
C. public, performance, private, hybrid
D. public, community, secure, hybrid
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
What is an invalid Cloud deployment model?
A. distributed
B. private
C. community
D. hybrid
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which three options are Common Cloud characteristics? (Choose three.)
A. single tenancy
B. elasticity
C. ubiquitous network access
D. metered service
E. QoS
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 15
Which description of Cisco vPath is true?
A. a protocol that provides end-to-end path assurance for Cloud-based systems
B. an embedded intelligence in Cisco VEM that provides abstracted control and forward plane functionality
C. a service that provides forwarding plane abstraction for inline redirection of traffic for vServices
D. a vService that allows for security policy enforcement through transparent bridging
210-451 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which description of RAID6 is true?
A. block-level striping of data with double distributed parity
B. drive-level striping of data with double distributed parity
C. block-level striping of data with single distributed parity
D. block-level mirroring of data with double distributed parity
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which Cloud storage technology would be accessed via the following URL?
A. pNFS
B. WebDAV
C. Cinder
D. Swift
210-451 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which of the following protocols are considered to be “file based”?
A. NFS, FCoE, iSCSI, CIFS
B. iSCSI, NFS, CIFS
C. NFS or CIFS
D. FCoE or NFS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which of the following two storage technologies would require that its’ block device be attached to an instance before you can perform any filesystem commands? (Choose two.)
A. SCSI LUN
B. Cinder Volume
C. NFS Filesystem Meta-Volume
D. Direct Object Block Device
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 20
Which type of zoning is represented? zone name zone1 vsan 10 member pwwn 20:00:00:55:a5:00:00:04 member pwwn
50:00:d3:10:00:18:e1:05 member pwwn 50:00:d3:10:00:18:e1:06
A. Single Initiator Multi Target
B. Multi Initiator Single Target
C. Single Target Single Initiator
D. Multi Initiator Multi Target
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
What are two characteristics of a LUN? (Choose two.)
A. A LUN must be fully comprised of one physical disk
B. A LUN handles file system creation
C. A LUN can be comprised of multiple physical disks
D. A LUN is a unique identifier
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 22
In an Openstack Cloud deployment which has a fibre channel SAN providing the block storage, which two options are valid fibre channel zone member types? (Choose two.)
A. FCID
B. DomainID
C. WWPN
D. OpenStack Volume ID
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 23
Which option describes what the use of no_root_squash does in an NFS environment?
A. It causes the NFS share to be mounted by a non-root user and is required for hypervisors that utilize RBAC for users.
B. It allows a NFS share to be mounted and written to as the root user by the hypervisor.
C. It allows a NFS share to be mounted by root, but all subsequent writes are as a non-root user.
D. It allows a NFS share to be mounted by a non-root user and all subsequent writes are as a non-root user.
210-451 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Which two options are characteristics of NAS? (Choose two.)
A. NAS provides block-based storage only.
B. NAS provides storage and filesystems.
C. NAS requires no authentication.
D. SMB is a protocol that can be used for NAS.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 25
Which /etc/exports line will allow you to enable read-only access from the NFS client 192.168.1.100?
A. /images 192.168.1.100 (ro,async)
B. /images 192.168.1.100 (755,async)
C. /images 192.168.1.1/24 (755,no_root_squash,async)
D. /images 192.168.1.1/27 (ro,async)
210-451 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Refer to the command line display below:
vsan database
vsan 1000 name FCoE
vlan 1000
fcoe vlan 1000
int e1/1
switchport mode trunk
switchport trunk allowed vlan 1000
no shut
int vfc10
bind interface e1/1
switchport trunk allowed vsan 1000
no shut
On which line does the error occur that prevents FCoE from operating correctly in a Cisco Nexus switch?
A. fcoe vlan 1000
B. switchport trunk allowed vsan 1000
C. int vfc10
D. bind interface e1/1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which Cisco product can provide an iSCSI target for an iSCSI initiator?
A. Cisco MDS 9710
B. Cisco Nexus 7010
C. Cisco UCS Invicta
D. Cisco Nexus 9510
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which Cisco product is outside of a Vblock?
A. Cisco Nexus 1k
B. Cisco C-Series UCS
C. Cisco Nexus 3k
D. Cisco UCS Central
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
Which integrated infrastructure rely on OpenStack technology?
A. FlexPod
B. Vblock
C. VSPEX
D. OpenBlocks
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
Which platform is ideally used to orchestrate a FlexPod from a single management platform?
A. Cisco UCS Manager
B. Cisco UCS Director
C. Cisco Prime Cloud Automation Manager
D. Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure Manager
Correct Answer: B

The Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals (CLDFND) exam (210-451) is a 90-minute assessment with 55-65 questions. This exam tests a candidate’s ability to develop network applications in the Cisco environment. With the complete collection of questions and answers, Pass4itsure has assembled to take you through 82 Q&As to your 210-451 dumps exam preparation.

Exam Code: 210-451
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals
Q&As: 82

The Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals (CLDFND) (210-451) exam is a 90-minute, 55-65 item exam that assesses how sales teams can effectively position in the CCNA Cloud. Some of the topics assessed are how to consider the challenges faced by business and IT today and how this relates to Cisco opportunities. The pass4itsure 210-451 dumps exam also assesses who β€œthe customer” is and the importance of applications to many of the customers that are influential in purchasing application-based solutions. This certificate proves that the candidate has an advanced understanding within the Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals.
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“I passed my exam earlier this morning. You know what I just use study materials from this site, no other books at all! It is really helpful if you do not get much time to prepare your exam. You should have a try. It won’t let you down. Why do you want to take roundabout ways if there is a shortcut.Trust me or not. Good luck to you all. Bob”

Awesome
“This is my first time to sit a Cisco exam, so you will know how nervous I was! Thanks for your help, Kingexam! I passed. I think 95% questions are more or less the same as your guidance. Some questions with the answer are in the different sequence, and, sorry to point out that one answer of your questions is incorrect, I’ll email you to let you know, you guys need to revise it. Well, I think your kingexam’s guidance is still more accurate than others. The most important thing is I got passed πŸ™‚ Paul Hussler”

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The following course is the recommended training for this exam:

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  • Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) v3.0 – Instructor-led training

Courses listed are offered by Cisco Learning Partners-the only authorized source for Cisco IT training delivered exclusively by Certified Cisco Instructors. Check the List of Learning Partners for a Cisco Learning Partner nearest you.

Latest and Most Accurate Pass4itsure 210-260 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-20)

QUESTION 1
Which three ESP fields can be encrypted during transmission? (Choose three.)
A. Security Parameter Index
B. Sequence Number
C. MAC Address
D. Padding
E. Pad Length
F. Next Header
210-260 exam Correct Answer: DEF
Explanation

QUESTION 2
What mechanism does asymmetric cryptography use to secure data?
A. a public/private key pair
B. shared secret keys
C. an RSA nonce
D. an MD5 hash
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 3
Whit which type of Leyer 2 attack can you “do something” for one host:
A. MAC spoofing
B. CAM overflow….
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps

How many times was a read-only string used to attempt a write operation?
A. 9
B. 6
C. 4
D. 3
E. 2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 5
Which feature allows a dynamic PAT pool to select the next address in the PAT pool instead of the next port of an existing address?
A. next IP
B. round robin
C. dynamic rotation
D. NAT address rotation
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 6
Which label is given to a person who uses existing computer scripts to hack into computers lacking the expertise to write their own?
A. white hat hacker
B. hacktivist
C. phreaker
D. script kiddy
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 7
When Cisco IOS zone-based policy firewall is configured, which three actions can be applied to a traffic class? (Choose three.)
A. pass
B. police
C. inspect
D. drop
E. queue
F. shape
210-260 vce Correct Answer: ACD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Zone-Based Policy Firewall Actions
ZFW provides three actions for traffic that traverses from one zone to another:
Drop — This is the default action for all traffic, as applied by the “class class-default” that terminates every inspect-type policy-map. Other class-maps within a policy-map can also be configured to drop unwanted traffic. Traffic that is handled by the drop action is “silently” dropped (i.e., no notification of the drop is sent to the relevant end-host) by the ZFW, as opposed to an ACL’s behavior of sending an ICMP “host unreachable” message to the host that sent the denied traffic. Currently, there is not an option to change the “silent drop” behavior. The log option can be added with drop for syslog notification that traffic was dropped by the firewall. Pass — This action allows the router to forward traffic from one zone to another. The pass action does not track the state of connections or sessions within the traffic. Pass only allows the traffic in one direction. A corresponding policy must be applied to allow return traffic to pass in the opposite direction. The pass action is useful for protocols such as IPSec ESP, IPSec AH, ISAKMP, and other inherently secure protocols with predictable behavior. However, most application traffic is better handled in the ZFW with the inspect action. Inspect–The inspect action offers state-based traffic control. For example, if traffic from the private zone to the Internet zone in the earlier example network is inspected, the router maintains connection or session information for TCP and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) traffic. Therefore, the router permits return traffic sent from Internet-zone hosts in reply to private zone connection requests. Also, inspect can provide application inspection and control for certain service protocols that might carry vulnerable or sensitive application traffic. Audit-trail can be applied with a parameter-map to record connection/session start, stop, duration, the data volume transferred, and source and destination addresses.

QUESTION 8
Which type of security control is defense in depth?
A. Threat mitigation
B. Risk analysis
C. Botnet mitigation
D. Overt and covert channels
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 9
Which statement about a PVLAN isolated port configured on a switch is true?
A. The isolated port can communicate only with the promiscuous port.
B. The isolated port can communicate with other isolated ports and the promiscuous port.
C. The isolated port can communicate only with community ports.
D. The isolated port can communicate only with other isolated ports.
210-260 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 10
Which statement about Cisco ACS authentication and authorization is true?
A. ACS servers can be clustered to provide scalability.
B. ACS can query multiple Active Directory domains.
C. ACS uses TACACS to proxy other authentication servers.
D. ACS can use only one authorization profile to allow or deny requests.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
If a supplicant supplies incorrect credentials for all authentication methods configured on the switch, how will the switch respond?
A. The supplicant will fail to advance beyond the webauth method.
B. The switch will cycle through the configured authentication methods indefinitely.
C. The authentication attempt will time out and the switch will place the port into the unauthorized state.
D. The authentication attempt will time out and the switch will place the port into VLAN 101.
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 12
What configure mode you used for the command ip ospf authentication-key c1$c0?
A. global
B. privileged
C. in-line
D. Interface
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: ip ospf authentication-key is used under interface configuration mode, so it’s in interface level, under global configuration mode. If it asks about interface level then choose that. interface Serial0 ip address 192.16.64.1 255.255.25

QUESTION 13
Which two features are commonly used CoPP and CPPr to protect the control plane? (Choose two.)
A. QoS
B. traffic classification
C. access lists
D. policy maps
E. class maps
F. Cisco Express Forwarding
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 14
What is one requirement for locking a wired or wireless device from ISE?
A. The ISE agent must be installed on the device.
B. The device must be connected to the network when the lock command is executed.
C. The user must approve the locking action.
D. The organization must implement an acceptable use policy allowing device locking.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 15
Which three statements are characteristics of DHCP Spoofing? (choose three)
A. Arp Poisoning
B. Modify Traffic in transit
C. Used to perform man-in-the-middle attack
D. Physically modify the network gateway
E. Protect the identity of the attacker by masking the DHCP address
F. can access most network devices
210-260 vce Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation

QUESTION 16
Which statement correctly describes the function of a private VLAN?
A. A private VLAN partitions the Layer 2 broadcast domain of a VLAN into subdomains
B. A private VLAN partitions the Layer 3 broadcast domain of a VLAN into subdomains
C. A private VLAN enables the creation of multiple VLANs using one broadcast domain
D. A private VLAN combines the Layer 2 broadcast domains of many VLANs into one major broadcast domain
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 17
which feature allow from dynamic NAT pool to choose next IP address and not a port on a used IP address?
A. next IP
B. round robin
C. Dynamic rotation
D. Dynamic PAT rotation
210-260 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 18
Which type of encryption technology has the broadcast platform support?
A. Middleware
B. Hardware
C. Software
D. File-level
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 19
When an IPS detects an attack, which action can the IPS take to prevent the attack from spreading?
A. Deny the connection inline.
B. Perform a Layer 6 reset.
C. Deploy an antimalware system.
D. Enable bypass mode.
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 20
Which four tasks are required when you configure Cisco IOS IPS using the Cisco Configuration Professional IPS wizard? (Choose four.)
A. Select the interface(s) to apply the IPS rule.
B. Select the traffic flow direction that should be applied by the IPS rule.
C. Add or remove IPS alerts actions based on the risk rating.
D. Specify the signature file and the Cisco public key.
E. Select the IPS bypass mode (fail-open or fail-close).
F. Specify the configuration location and select the category of signatures to be applied to the selected interface(s).
Correct Answer: ABDF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Step 11. At the `Select Interfaces’ screen, select the interface and the direction that IOS IPS will be applied to, then click `Next’ to continue
210-260 dumps
Step 12. At the `IPS Policies Wizard’ screen, in the `Signature File’ section, select the first radio button “Specify the signature file you want to use with IOS IPS”, then click the “…” button to bring up a dialog box to specify the location of the
signature package file, which will be the directory specified in Step 6. In this example, we use tftp to download the signature package to the router.
210-260 dumps
Step 13. In the `Configure Public Key’ section, enter `realm-cisco.pub’ in the `Name’ text field, then copy and paste the following public key’s key-string in the `Key’ text field. This public key can be downloaded from
Cisco.com at: http://www.cisco.com/pcgi-bin/tablebuild.pl/ios-v5sigup. Click `Next’ to continue.
30820122 300D0609 2A864886 F70D0101 01050003 82010F00 3082010A 02820101 00C19E93 A8AF124A D6CC7A24 5097A975 206BE3A2 06FBA13F 6F12CB5B 4E441F16 17E630D5 C02AC252 912BE27F 37FDD9C8 11FC7AF7
DCDD81D9 43CDABC3 6007D128
B199ABCB D34ED0F9 085FADC1 359C189E F30AF10A C0EFB624 7E0764BF 3E53053E
5B2146A9 D7A5EDE3 0298AF03 DED7A5B8 9479039D 20F30663 9AC64B93 C0112A35 FE3F0C87 89BCB7BB 994AE74C FA9E481D F65875D6 85EAF974 6D9CC8E3 F0B08B85
50437722 FFBE85B9 5E4189FF CC189CB9 69C46F9C A84DFBA5 7A0AF99E AD768C36
006CF498 079F88F8 A3B3FB1F 9FB7B3CB 5539E1D1 9693CCBB 551F78D2 892356AE 2F56D826 8918EF3C 80CA4F4D 87BFCA3B BFF668E9 689782A5 CF31CB6E B4B094D3
F3020301 0001
210-260 dumps

The Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) exam (210-260) is a 90-minute assessment with 60-70 questions. This exam tests a candidate’s ability to develop network applications in the Cisco environment. With the complete collection of questions and answers, Pass4itsure has assembled to take you through 329 Q&As to your 210-260 dumps exam preparation.

Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 329

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Cisco 210-065 Dumps Recommended Traing

The following course is the recommended training for this exam.

  • Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices, Part 1 (CIVND1)
  • Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices, Part 2 (CIVND2) v1.0

Courses listed are offered by Cisco Learning Partners-the only authorized source for Cisco IT training delivered exclusively by Certified Cisco Instructors. Check the List of Learning Partners for a Cisco Learning Partner nearest you.

Latest and Most Accurate Pass4itsure 210-065 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-22)

210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 is unable to call the Cisco IP Video Phone. Assuming that the calling search space has been configured correctly, which of the these can cause this issue?
A. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 can only be registered to a Cisco Telepresence Video Communication Server.
B. A multipoint control unit is required in order for the call to work.
C. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 can only be registered as a SIP endpoint to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. H.323 is not supported.
D. URI dialing has not been configured on Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
E. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 Profile 1 > CallSetupMode must be configured as a gateway since Cisco Unified Communications Manager does not have a gatekeeper functionality.
F. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 is not registered as a SIP endpoint on Cisco Unified Communications Manager. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 needs to be registered as both SIP and H.323.
210-065 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
An engineer is connecting a VISCA cable. What is the purpose of this cable?
A. to connect camera to codec
B. to connect camera to monitor
C. to connect camera to touch panel
D. to connect camera to network
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 3
An engineer encounters video quality issues with an endpoint. To capture ongoing call statistics from the CLI, which command should the engineer use?
A. xStatus Call Feature Display
B. xStatus OutgoingVideoChannel Netstat 1
C. xStatus Diagnostics
D. xCommand Diagnose
210-065 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
An engineer must ensure that a user can create content playlists for Digital Signs and Show and Share. Which Cisco Digital Media Suite component allows playlists to be created?
A. Cisco DMD
B. Cisco DMM
C. Cisco TMS
D. Cisco MXE
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 5
Which two tools can be used to extract traces from a Cisco Unified Communications Manager server? (Choose two.)
A. RTMT
B. TraceRT
C. Wireshark
D. CLI
E. Syslog
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: AD
Explanation

QUESTION 6
A manager requires multiparty video meetings with presentation capability. Which endpoint meets the requirement assuming there is no centralized bridge?
A. Cisco SX20
B. Cisco DX650
C. Cisco 7800
D. Cisco Jabber
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
Refer to the Exhibits, in order to create a scheduled or ad-hoc multipoint conference, which two tolls can be used? (Choose two)
A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
E. Exhibit E
210-065 vce Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
An administrator is troubleshooting an endpoint whose SIP Registration Status shows “Failed: 403 Forbidden” and must obtain information about the cause of the failure. To which two menu locations must an engineer navigate? (Choose two.)
A. Endpoint > Log Files > messages.log
B. Endpoint > Diagnostics > Log Files > all.log
C. VCS > Maintenance > Diagnostics > Incident Reporting > View
D. VCS > Status > logs > Configuration Log
E. VCS > Status > logs > Event Log
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation

QUESTION 9
Which type of lighting is recommended for Cisco TelePresence immersive solutions?
A. point
B. reflective
C. direct
D. indirect
210-065 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
A Cisco EX60 is connected to the network, but users cannot make calls and the device is unregistered. The voice engineer configured the device on Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which two options are causes of this problem? (Choose two.)
A. SIP URI is not configured correctly.
B. H.323 parameters are not configured correctly.
C. IP address is in a different subnet.
D. No user is associated to a device.
E. SIP proxy is not configured correctly.
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation

QUESTION 11
Which desktop endpoint support 802.3af PoE?
A. DX70
B. DX80
C. DX90
D. DX650
210-065 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
An engineer is backing up a VCS configuration. Which two methods can be used? (Choose two.)
A. FTP
B. SFTP
C. SSH
D. web administration
E. local
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
An engineer sees a video camera icon on the Cisco IP phone screen status line. Which meaning of this icon is true?
A. The Cisco VT camera is connected to the PC, and the PC is connected to the Cisco IP phone.
B. The Cisco IP phone has web access.
C. The Cisco IP phone is receiving a video call.
D. The Cisco IP phone is configured with video capabilities.
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 14
A company just acquired a Cisco MCU 5300 for multi videoconferencing. The networking engineer must create a conference. To which tab does the engineer go to create a conference?
A. Endpoints
B. Conferences
C. Network
D. Settings
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In this tutorial the instruction `Go to Conferences > Move participants’ means click the Conferences link on the menu bar and then click the Move participants tab.

QUESTION 15
Which option is the Cisco recommended minimum viewing distance for a 52″ monitor installed in a video conferencing room?
A. 1.5 m
B. 3.0 m
C. 2.5 m
D. 2.0 m
210-065 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 16
Which effect of the CLI set audio aec enable command on the immersive Cisco Telepresence system is true?
A. Echo cancellation is enabled.
B. Call economy quality feature is enabled.
C. Noise cancellation is enabled.
D. AEC audio codec is enabled.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 17
What is the process for resetting a Cisco VCS control appliance back to initial default configuration?
A. Push down and hold the reset button on the back of the VCS appliance for 10 seconds and power cycle the device.
B. Log onto the CLI console as root and initiate the defaults-reset command.
C. Log into the GUI interface as administrator, choose System Settings, select Restore, select Factory Reset.
D. Log onto the CLI console as root and initiate the factory-reset command.
210-065 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 18
Which two Cisco TelePresence endpoints support hosting embedded multisite conferences? (Choose two.)
A. sx20
B. MX800
C. DX70
D. DX80
E. Jabber Video for Cisco TelePresence
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: For reference, the below endpoints support Multisite:
MX200/300 G2
MX700/800
SX20/80

QUESTION 19
Which option is the Cisco recommended layout if cascading is being used?
A. Enhanced Continuous Presence
B. Full Participant
C. Continuous Presence
D. Active Speaker
210-065 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 20
When an administrator schedules a conference, which three devices are part of the process? (Choose three.)
A. endpoint
B. Cisco Prime Collaboration Manager
C. Cisco TelePresence Management Suite
D. Cisco Communications Manager
E. MCU appliance
F. Cisco TelePresence Content Server
Correct Answer: BDF
Explanation

QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
You are deploying a Cisco VCS Expressway with the Advanced Networking option key into two separate DMZs.
Gateways for all networks are the lowest usable IP address in the subnet. While you are logged in as an admin user,
which command should you enter into the CLI, to enable IP routing to the Cisco VCS Control and nothing else on the
internal network?
A. xConfiguration IP Gateway: 172.18.105.1
B. xConfiguration RouteAdd Address:192.168.10.25 PrefixLength:16 Gateway:172.18.105.1 Interface: LAN1
C. xCommand RouteAdd Address:192.168.0.0 PrefixLength:16 Gateway: 172.18.105.1 Interface: LAN1
D. xCommand RouteAdd Address:192.168.10.25 PrefixLength:32 Gateway: 172.18.105.1 Interface: LAN1
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
Users in a Cisco TelePresence room report audio and video quality issues. You have been asked to troubleshoot the issue. You log in to the endpoint GUI and check telephony settings. Which option would you recommend to resolve the issue?
A. Audio/video quality issues are generally due to low bandwidth. Contact your carrier to increase the bandwidth.
B. andquot;DSCP For TelePresenceandquot; is not correct. Configure the correct value via codec GUI.
C. andquot;DSCP For Audioandquot; is not correct. Configure the correct value via codec GUI.
D. DSCP values are correct. Check the QoS configuration on the router.
E. The andquot;DSCP For TelePresenceandquot; and andquot;DSCP For Audioandquot; values are not correct.
Configure the correct value in codec GUI.
F. The andquot;DSCP For TelePresenceandquot; and andquot;DSCP For Audioandquot; values are not correct.
Configure the correct value in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager service parameter.
Correct Answer: F

The Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices v1.0 (CIVND) exam (210-065) is a 75-minute assessment with 55-65 questions. This exam tests a candidate’s ability to develop network applications in the Cisco environment. With the complete collection of questions and answers, Pass4itsure has assembled to take you through 311 Q&As to your 210-065 dumps exam preparation.

Exam Code: 210-065
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices v1.0
Q&As: 311

The Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices v1.0 (CIVND) (210-065) exam is a 75-minute, 55-65 item exam that assesses how sales teams can effectively position in the CCNA Collaboration Cisco Video Network Specialist. Some of the topics assessed are how to consider the challenges faced by business and IT today and how this relates to Cisco opportunities. The pass4itsure 210-065 dumps exam also assesses who β€œthe customer” is and the importance of applications to many of the customers that are influential in purchasing application-based solutions. This certificate proves that the candidate has an advanced understanding within the Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices v1.0.
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Exam Number 300-175 DCUCI
Associated Certifications CCNP Data Center
Duration 90 minutes (55 – 65 questions)
Available Languages English
Exam Name DCUCI Implementing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing (DCUCI)

Latest and Most Accurate Pass4itsure 300-175 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-35)

QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following situations would force a wireless client to renew its IP address?
A. Roaming between two BSSIDs assigned to the same VLAN
B. Roaming between controllers supporting the same VLANs
C. Roaming between two BSSIDs assigned to different VLANs
D. All of the above would force a client to renew its IP address
300-175 exam Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 2
The IEEE 802.lln amendment to the standard addresses several PHY layer enhancements. One of these enhancements is “Channel Bonding” allowing for 40 MHz wide channels. Without taking any specific local regulatory domain into consideration, what is the maximum number of non overlapping 40 MHz wide channels that can exist in the 2.4 GHz ISM band?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6
E. 11
F. 20
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 3
You are a network design engineer and are assigned to provide an enterprise S02.1X/EAP solution to secure your company’s IEEE 802.11n WLAN. What networking protocol/service that provides centralized Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) management for computers to connect and use wireless network resources can be implemented?
A. Secure Shell (SSH)
B. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
C. Virtual Private Networking (VPN)
D. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) Passphrase
E. Remote Authentication DialinUser Service (RADIUS)
300-175 dumps Answer: E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 4
You are a computer network consultant at a small medical office and responsible for the design and deployment of the IEEE 802.11b/g WLAN. Some of the users of the WLAN are complaining about the performance of the network. You use a layer 2 WLAN analyzer to view the frames traversing the wireless medium to see if you can determine the problem. After careful examination of the data recorded you notice a significant amount of CTS-to-Self frames. What is a potential reason for the high number of these frame types?
A. The access points are in OFDM only mode
B. The access points support Quality of Service
C. The access points are in HR/DSSS only mode
D. The access points are in ERP protection mode
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 5
You have been assigned to design a new IEEE wireless LAN that will require six access points for both coverage and capacity. Based on expected client device usage, it has been determined the 2.4 GHz ISM band will be the most appropriate for this deployment. Without taking any specific local regulatory domain into consideration, how many channels are available for selection in the 2.4 GHz ISM band?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 11
D. 14
E. 23
300-175 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 6
Which of the following duplexing methods is used by the radios in Motorola’s WLAN products?
A. Half-duplex
B. Full-duplex
C. Simplex
D. Half-duplex Tx / Full-duplex Rx
E. Full-duplex Tx / Ha If-duplex Rx
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 7
Which of the following terms refers to the strength of an emitted RF signal measured at its strongest point?
A. EIRP (Equivalent Isotropic Radiated Power)
B. 1FZ (First Fresnel Zone)
C. Azimuth
D. dBi
E. IR (Intentional Radiator)
300-175 vce Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 8
In radio frequency transmission the term Modulation Coding Scheme (MCS) is defined by which of the following?
A. The combination of digital modulation method and a forward error correction mechanism.
B. A set of AES/CCMP cipher modes which assure integrity of an OFDM transmission.
C. The use of an encryption algorithm to securely code a modulated signal before transmission.
D. A multiplexing technique that uses orthogonal codes in place of X.509 digital certificates for message validation.
300-175 exam Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 9
You are designing a new 802.11 installation that will be built on an IEEE 802.3 10/100/1000 BaseT-backbone infrastructure. All IEEE 802.11n access points and VoIP phones will be IEEE 802.3 Power over Ethernet (PoE) powered devices. The 802.11n access points will utilize dual band 3X3 MIMO and require 802.3at PoE. Which is a true statement regarding a WLAN
deployment of this nature?
A. This installation can only use endpoint Power Sourcing Equipment (PSE) devices.
B. Only IEEE 802.3af PoE devices can operate on a Gigabit network infrastructure.
C. VoIP phones and access points cannot be located on the same access layer PoE switches.
D. An accurate power sourcing equipment (PSE) power budget must be performed.
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 10
You are assigned the task of evaluating a wireless network. While using a layer 2 wireless LAN analysis capture tool you notice support of a minimum rate of 6 Mbps. What IEEE 802.11 standard or amendment to the standard operating in the U-NII band is in use on the company’s WLAN (select TWO)?
A. 802.11
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11n
D. 802.11g
E. 802.11a
300-175 dumps Answer: C,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 11
Network Layer TCP/IP packets that are prepared to be sent across the 802.11 wireless medium are commonly known as which of the following?
A. MAC service data unit
B. MAC protocol data unit
C. LLC sub-layer data unit
D. MAC service switch unit
E. PHY layer service data unit
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 12
You are responsible for designing an 802.11n controller based wireless LAN for your organization using independent access point technology, The Information Technology team has decided the wireless LAN controllers should be installed on the core layer at the headquarters office location configured for centralized forwarding. Which statements are true concerns with respect to this type of installation (select TWO)?
A. S02.11n independent access points require the controller be installed at the network access layer only.
B. The WLAN controller at the core layer may be a bottleneck and limit scalability if not properly planned.
C. Network core layer deployments should always use 10 Gigabit (or faster) Ethernet components.
D. With centralized forwarding enabled all wireless traffic is tunneled to the WLAN controller that is connected to the network core layer.
300-175 pdf Answer: B,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 13
Which of the following statements is CORRECT concerning the IEEE 802.11 Open Authentication procedure?
A. Uses four way frame exchange
B. Is optional before additional authentication
C. May occur after the association
D. Must occur before additional authentication
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 14
Which of the following must occur prior to a WLAN client device being assigned a TCP/IP address through DHCP?
A. Successful 802.11 roaming
B. Successful 802.11 association
C. Successful 802.11 authentication
D. Successful 802.11 probe response
300-175 vce Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 15
XYZ Company is deploying a companywide Motorola Solutions wireless infrastructure. The following list is a breakdown of XYZ Company facilities with the number of access points required for each location:
– Corporate HQ: 36 AP
– Distribution Centers (3): 48 AP each
– Warehouses (5): 34, 64, 28, 12, 20 AP respectively
– Satellite offices (25): 1-2 AP each.
– Stores (1100): 3-4 AP each.
XYZ is looking for the most cost effective solution, while still being able to manage and configure the system centrally. Which of the following would you recommend?
A. AP7131s at each location.
B. NX9000 at Corporate HQ and AP7131’s at all locations.
C. NX9000 at Corporate HQ, RFS6000 and AP650 at locations with more than 24 AP’s, AP6532 at locations with less than 24 AP’s.
D. 4 RFS7000 at Corporate HQ, RFS6000 and AP650 at locations with 24 or more AP’s, AP6532 at locations with less than 24 AP’s.
E. NX9000 at Corporate HQ, RFS7000 and AP650 at locations with more than 24 AP’s, AP7131 at locations with up to 24 AP’s.
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 16
Motorola’s “Site Survivability” concept gives the wireless network the power of wireless computing on the edge. What does this mean?
A. RFID traffic load-balancing with rate limiting and bandwidth management
B. If your T1/E1 link fails, Access Points or controllers can automatically switch over to a 3g network backhaul
C. Application-aware smart RF adjusts power and channel to provide best coverage if there is RF interference or a neighboring AP is having a problem.
D. With direct routing, QoS, security, and mobility services on the Access Point, the network keeps running even if there is a problem with the wireless controller or the wired network
300-175 exam Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 17
You have a client that would like you to design a large wireless network that will include access in remote locations. Requirements include:
– High availability
– High level of security
– No globally used login/passwords
– Multiple RADIUS servers in dual data-centers to authenticate the wireless client
The client uses ActiveDirectory as their credential-store and have AD servers at the data center and remote locations. What is the best way to design a wireless network where users could still be authenticated in case of a WAN-link failure at the remote site?
A. If the WAN link is severed, there is no way to reach primary or backup RADIUS servers.
B. Install RADIUS servers at each remote location.
C. Create a common login/password that could be hard coded into APs for emergency use.
D. Use the on-board RADIUS server in the AP as the secondary server and configure it to use the local LDAP server as its data-store.
Answer: D
Explanation:

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Exam Code: 300-175
Exam Name: DCUCI Implementing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing (DCUCI)
Q&As: 249

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