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Pass4itsure offers the latest PMI-001 practice test free of charge (30Q&A)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is a tool and technique used in all processes within Project
Integration Management?
A. Records management system
B. Expert judgment
C. Project management software
D. Issue log
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Impacts to other organizational areas, levels of service, and acceptance criteria
are typical components of which
document?
A. Business case
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Requirements documentation
D. Risk register
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is used to illustrate the connections between work
packages or activities and project team
members?
A. Hierarchical-type charts (HTC)
B. Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)
C. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
D. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which tool or technique is used in Close Procurements?
A. Contract plan
B. Procurement plan
C. Closure process
D. Procurement audits
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Initiating
D. Planning
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
The following is a network diagram for a project.
pass4itsure question
The total float for the project is how many days?
A. 5
B. 9
C. 12
D. 14
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Project management processes ensure the:
A. alignment with organizational strategy
B. efficient means to achieve the project objectives
C. performance of the project team
D. effective flow of the project throughout its life cycle
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A weighting system is a tool for which area of Conduct Procurements?
A. Plan contracting
B. Requesting seller responses
C. Selecting seller\’s
D. Planning purchase and acquisition
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which category of contracts are sellers legally obligated to complete, with
possible financial damages if the project
objectives are not met?
A. Cost-reimbursable contracts
B. Time and Material contracts (Tandamp;M)
C. Fixed-price contracts
D. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contracts (CPFF)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the
Develop Project Charter process?
A. Organizational standard processes
B. Marketplace conditions
C. Historical information
D. Templates
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope?
A. Cost-benefit analysis
B. Variance analysis
C. Reserve analysis
D. Stakeholder analysis
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which standard has interrelationships to other project management disciplines
such as program management and
portfolio management?
A. Program Management Body of Knowledge Guide
B. The Standard for Program Management
C. Organizational Project Management Maturity Model (OPM3$)
D. Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK?
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
When is a project finished?
A. After verbal acceptance of the customer or sponsor
B. After lessons learned have been documented in contract closure
C. When the project objectives have been met
D. After resources have been released
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which of the following is a project constraint?
A. Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.
B. The technology to be used is cutting-edge.
C. Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.
D. The product is needed in 250 days.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
The product scope description is used to:
A. Gain stakeholders support for the project.
B. Document the characteristics of the product.
C. Describe the project in great detail.
D. Formally authorize the project.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Organizations manage portfolios based on which of the following types of plans?
A. Strategic
B. Project
C. Program
D. Operational
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
An input of the Plan Procurement Management process is:
A. Make-or-buy decisions.
B. Activity cost estimates.
C. Seller proposals.
D. Procurement documents.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
What happens to a stakeholder\’s project influence over time?
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Stays the same.
D. Has no bearing.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority and their level of
concern regarding project outcomes
describes which classification model for stakeholder analysis?
A. Influence/impact grid
B. Power/influence grid
C. Power/interest grid
D. Salience model
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which of the following are inputs into the Administer Procurements process?
A. Payment systems, organizational process assets update, and claims
administration
B. Inspections and audits, contract change control system, and project
management plan updates
C. Procurement documents, performance reports, and approved change requests
D. Project documents, seller proposals, and payment systems
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
The precedence diagramming method (PDM) is also known as:
A. Arrow Diagram.
B. Critical Path Methodology (CPM).
C. Activity-On-Node (AON).
D. schedule network diagram.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
How is the schedule variance calculated using the earned value technique?
A. EV less AC
B. AC less PV
C. EV less PV
D. AC less EV
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
Which process group contains the processes performed to finalize all activities?
A. Planning Process Group
B. Executing Process Group
C. Monitoring and Controlling Process Group
D. Closing Process Group
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which type of team can be defined as a group of people with a shared goal who
fulfill their roles although spending little
or no time meeting face to face?
A. Co-location team
B. Virtual team
C. Departmental team
D. Consultant team
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?
A. Activity sequencing
B. Resource leveling
C. Lead and lag adjusting
D. Crashing
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Which output of Project Cost Management consists of quantitative assessments
of the probable costs required to
complete project work?
A. Activity cost estimates
B. Earned value management
C. Cost management plan
D. Cost baseline
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
The Identify Stakeholders process is found in which Process Group?
A. Initiating
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Executing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Which of the following is a tool and technique used in all processes within Project
Integration Management?
A. Records management system
B. Expert judgment
C. Project management software
D. Issue log
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
Which tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process can be
conducted during the execution of the project
to verify compliance with deliverables?
A. Procurement documents
B. Inspection and audits
C. Estimate budget
D. Risk register
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Which tools or techniques will the project manager use for developing the project
team?
A. Negotiation
B. Roles and responsibilities
C. Recognition and rewards
D. Prizing and promoting
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit to the right and the Load script provided below. Exhibit.
pass4itsure question
LOAD ltemlD
LocationlD,
Quantity
FROM
[inventory.txt]
(txt, codepage is 1252, embedded labels, delimiter is \’\’, msq);
When the developer runs the script, which values will the field Quantity contain?
A. NULL
B. 1; 2; 3
C. 1100; 1300; 2210; 2250; 3125; 3130; 3120
D. 1100; 1300; 2210; 2250; 3125; 3130; 3120
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A developer needs to load data for products from a database table and a text file.
The database table and text file can
be joined by the field ProductlD
The database table contains the master list of all available products. The text file
contains additional data fields, but not
for all products.
The developer loads the data from the database table first.
The developer needs to load the additional data fields from the text file into the
existing table. The resulting table needs
to contain the master list of all available
products.
Which type of join should the developer use when loading the text file? A. lnner
Join
B. Left Join
C. Right Join
D. Outer Join
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A Straight Table Chart calculates several metrics for each individual
alphanumeric transaction detail record (TRAN_lD)
and it\’s Amount over several years of data.
The calculation time for the chart is over two minutes.
How can a designer decrease the calculation time for the chart without
compromising core functionality?
A. create a Calculation Condition. =count(TRAN_lD) andlt;= 10000
B. create a Calculation Condition. =sum(TRAN_lD) andlt;= 10000
C. create a Calculation Condition. =sum(Amount) andgt; 0
D. create a Calculation Condition. =TRAN_lD andlt; 10000
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit to the right.
pass4itsure question
What is the primary key of ACCOUNT_TRANS? A. ACCOUNT_lD
B. TRANS_SEQ
C. ACCOUNT_lD and TRANS_SEQ
D. ACCOUNT_lD, TRANS_SEQ, and TRANS_TYPE
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit below.
pass4itsure question
Schema A displayed in the exhibit has been transformed into schema B. How
can the before and after schemas be
described?
A. The snowfake schema has been transformed into a de-normalized schema.
B. The snowfake schema has been transformed into a normalized schema.
C. The star schema has been transformed into a de-normalized schema.
D. The star schema has been transformed into a normalized schema.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit to the right.
pass4itsure question
pass4itsure question
A customer needs the data displayed in the exhibit loaded into QlikView for
analysis. The data is stored in a fat file and
new rows are appended daily. Which two data quality issues will a developer
have to resolve? (Choose two.)
A. the Transaction lD field name contains a space
B. one or more Product field values contain spaces
C. the Date field values contain special characters
D. one or more header rows are included in the file data
E. one or more Product field values contain the file delimiter
F. the Date field name is also a function name and is a reserved word
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 7
A customer created 20 expressions that will be used repetitively throughout a
QlikView application. These expressions
could appear in more than 50 objects located on 15 tabs.
How can a developer efficiently apply and maintain these expressions?
A. create the required expression in each object as needed and edit them in the
Expression Overview
B. load the text for each expression from a text file into a table in the data model
and link it to the fact table
C. create a table of indices and expression text and use the index value in place
of the expression text in each object
D. create a variable for each expression that contains the expression text and
use the variable in place of the
expression in each object
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit to the right.
pass4itsure question
What is the cardinality of the relationship between CUSTOMER and ACCOUNT?
A. many-to-many
B. one-to-many
C. one-to-none
D. one-to-one
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which technique should a developer use to clearly describe dimensions and
measures for end users who need to use
collaborative objects?
A. add field metadata tags to fields in the load script
B. put a How To sheet in the application
C. put descriptive information in each object\’s help text
D. add a system table to the application
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A customer has a sales data table and needs a chart to display sales figures by
date, including dates without sales. The
sales table is sorted by the primary key
which is generated based on the type of order and the salesPersonlD who
generated it.
Which technique should a developer use to achieve this requirement?
A. a Resident Load and Peek, to determine the minimum and maximum dates
and then AutoGenerate to create amaster calendar
B. the today() function, to determine the required date range and use an lnline
load to generate the master calendar
C. Peek, when loading the sales data, to create records within the sales data
table for dates with no sales
D. calculated dimensions in Chart Objects and expressions in List Boxes, to
generate the required dates
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which object should a designer use to integrate QlikView with an interactive
third-party web service for use in the AJAX
Zero Footprint client?
A. Custom Object
B. ButtonObject
C. QlikView Macro
D. Extension Object
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
A customer needs to measure the Amount of sales by Days sales Outstanding
(DSO). Days sales Outstanding does not
exist in the data model. Which technique should a developer use to meet the
customer\’s need?
A. on the Dimensions tab, press the Add Calculated Dimension button
B. on the Expressions tab, add an expression using the Class function C. on the
Expressions tab, add an expression using the Aggr function
D. on the Dimensions tab, press the Add Dynamic Dimension button
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
How can a developer use QVD files to optimize reload performance?
A. create an incremental load strategy that reduces the query selects against the
source data
B. decrease latency between the QlikView reload engine and the source data
C. enable a direct interface between the database server memory and the
QlikView server memory
D. enable the binary load functionality and directly load files in binary from the
hard disk into system memory
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A customer with a complex chart is experiencing performance issues when the
organization\’s users view the chart
without first applying several filters. A designer needs to place a restriction on
the chart so that the users are forced to
make a selection before QlikView will calculate and render the chart. Which
common object property can the designer
use to accomplish this?
A. the Help Text property on the Caption tab to enter instructions directing the
user to make a selection and filter their
data before performing their analysis
B. the Auto Minimize property on the Caption tab so that the chart will be
minimized and not calculate or render until the
user has first made a selection and restored the chart
C. the Calculate Condition property on the General tab to create a control
condition that will keep the chart from
calculating until user has filtered the data
D. the size to Data property on the Layout tab to automatically select the filter
criteria to the chart
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
A customer specified that the QlikView application should be designed to fit a
screen resolution of 1280 x 800 as a
standard. Which option will assist a designer while creating the user interface?
A. Go to View menu andgt; Reselect Window andgt; 1280 x 800
B. Go to View menu andgt; Fit Zoom to Window andgt; 1280 x 800
C. Go to settings menu andgt; User Preferences andgt; Design Tab and select
1280 x 800
D. Go to settings menu andgt; User Preferences andgt; Design Tab and select
Display Grid Lines
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
A designer needs to create a chart displaying the number of patients currently
checked into a hospital by age group.
What is the appropriate Dimension for the chart?
A. number of patients
B. checked-in status
C. hospital
D. age group
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
How can a designer display the field selections that have been made within a
chart caption?
A. by inserting a Current selections box into the Text in Chart
B. by using an expression with GetCurrentselections in the Window Title option
on the General tab
C. by using an expression with SET Analysis and the system Fields in the Title
Text option on the Caption tab
D. by selecting show Current selections on the Caption tab
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
A customer has a set of date values in different formats.
Some dates are in Julian date format; Some dates are text strings.
How can a developer ensure the data is loaded in a consistent format?
A. change the default DateFormat variable assignment on the Main script tab
B. use the Date function to format the field during load
C. use the Alt function with different Date# functions
D. use the Lookup function with a format table
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which QlikView feature should a developer use to provide information
throughout the QVW application about how a field
was calculated in the Load script?
A. Field Tag
B. Field Comment
C. Dimension Tag
D. Variable Comment E. Expression Comment
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
pass4itsure question
A customer has two databases containing employee data for different regions.
Based on the script displayed in the
exhibit, what will be the resulting table schema?
A. one table named Employees_US
B. one table named Employees_UK
C. two tables named Employees_US and Employees_UK with no associations
D. two tables named Employees_US and Employees_UK with a synthetic key
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which objects are the most appropriate for setting one or more values for use in
a andquot;what-ifandquot; scenario?
A. lnput Box Object and Chart Object
B. lnput Box Object and Calendar/slider Object C. Button Object and Extension
Object
D. Calendar/slider Object and Chart Object
E. lnput Box Object and Text Object
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
A customer\’s data set contains information for multiple departments. The
customer needs a document to show only one
specific department when a user first
accesses the application.
Which trigger and action will meet the requirement?
A. trigger. OnPostReload; action. Lock Field
B. trigger. OnOpen; action. SET Variable
C. trigger. OnOpen; action. select in Field
D. trigger. Onselect; action. select in Field
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
Which action should a developer perform on a table to reduce required memory
and optimize the application?
A. convert numeric fields into text fields using the Text function
B. combine multiple fields into one complex field, reducing the number of fields
per table
C. make all numeric fields a fixed length by left padding with leading 0\’s using
the Num function
D. split out a single complex field into multiple fields reducing the number of
distinct values per field
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
A customer needs to produce formatted output as a PDF to distribute it to non-
QlikView users. Each page should show
sales trending for a different sales team.
The number of sales teams will change frequently.
What should a developer create to efficiently enable users to create the required
output?
A. a report with banding on salesTeam
B. a report with GROUP BY on salesTeam
C. separate reports with where clauses for each salesTeam
D. separate reports referencing bookmarks for each salesTeam E. a report thatuses current selections where the user selects each salesTeam in turn
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
A global sales organization needs sales figures in both the local currencies and
the corporate standard of $USD. How
can a developer achieve this goal and enable users to only consume a single
Document CAL?
A. create a separate QVW containing values in the data model for both the local
and $USD currency amounts
B. create a single QVW and add a table containing currency multipliers while
using $USD as a baseline currency
C. create a separate QVW for each currency ($USD is considered its own
currency) and document chain them all
together
D. create a single QVW with duplicate tables for each currency in data islands
and associate each data island to each
user or group
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Which statement describes a required field characteristics that will ensure
QlikView associations across multiple
tables?
A. The field formats (such as numeric or string) must be the same in the original
data sources.
B. The fields must be defined as primary or foreign keys in the original data
sources.
C. The fields must be aliased to the same name when loading into QlikView.
D. The number of distinct values in each field must be the same.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit to the right.
pass4itsure question
When the script displayed in the exhibit is reloaded, an error message is
displayed.
Table not found
Left Join (salesPerson)
LOAD lD
DepartmentlD
FROM
[DatasourceA.xlsx]
(ooxml, embeddedlabels, tableissalesPersonDepartment);
What is the likely cause of the error?
A. When loaded, the salesPerson table is auto concatenated to Customer and
does not exist when referenced.
B. The Left Join statement fails to correctly bracket the referenced table name,
such as Left Join ([salesPerson]).
C. The Left Join statement fails to correctly quote the referenced table name,
such as Left Join (IsalesPersonI).D. There is an error in the Customer table load and it is not created in memory.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
A developer made several changes to a 25-tab load script that normally runs for
at least two hours. Which step should
the developer take first to efficiently debug the script logic?
A. place a Go To Exit statement after each block of revised script code, run the
script, and comment each successive
Go To Exit after a successful run
B. move each revised tab in succession to the second tab position, place an Exit
script statement at the end of the tab
script, and run the script
C. open the QlikView Debugger and use the step button to execute each line of
the script
D. open the QlikView Debugger and use Limited Load to execute the script
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
A client has a data set with two tables.
The Customer table has fields CustomerlD, AssignedTo, FirstName, and
LastName.
The Orders table has fields CustomerlD, AssignedTo, Product, and Quantity.
The AssignedTo field holds an employee reference.
Users need to see Customers and Orders by employee.
The employee assigned to the Customer may not be the same as the employee
assigned to the Order.
Which technique should be used in the script to meet the requirement?
A. load the tables leaving the automatic associations
B. comment out the AssignedTo from the Orders table
C. comment out the AssignedTo from the Customer table
D. use Rename Field syntax to alias one of the AssignedTo fields
E. create a concatenated key of CustomerlD and AssignedTo in both tables
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
A customer needs to have QlikView deployed to tablet devices.
When creating the QVW application, which two actions must a developer take to
meet the customer\’s need? (Choose
two.)
A. convert the QVW application into a .mob document on the server
B. ensure that screen resolution is appropriate for the device
C. convert the QVW application into a HTML5 document
D. create a specific QVW application for each device E. use only sheet objects
suitable for tablet devicesCorrect Answer: BE

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QUESTION 1
Which role is responsible for carrying out the activities of a process?
A. Process owner
B. Change manager
C. Service manager
D. Process practitioner
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which process or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT infrastructure?
A. Service level management
B. IT operations management
C. Capacity management
D. Incident management
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in knowledge management?
A. Wisdom – Information – Data – Knowledge
B. Data – Information – Knowledge – Wisdom
C. Knowledge – Wisdom – Information – Data
D. Information – Data – Knowledge – Wisdom
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
At which stage of the service lifecycle should the processes necessary to operate a new service be
defined?
A. Service design: Design the processes
B. Service strategy: Develop the offerings
C. Service transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
D. Service operation: IT operations management
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Why are public frameworks, such as 1TIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?
A. Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented
B. Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt
C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do
D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the following is an objective of business relationship management?
A. To identify patterns of business activity
B. To ensure high levels of customer satisfaction
C. To secure funding to manage the provision of services
D. To ensure strategic plans for IT services exist
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
The design of IT services requires the effective and efficient use of “the four Ps”. What are these four Ps?
A. People, process, partners, performance
B. Performance, process, products, plans
C. People, process, products, partners
D. People, products, plans, partners
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of the following BEST describes service strategies value to the business?
A. Allows higher volumes of successful change
B. Reduction in unplanned costs through optimized handling of service outages
C. Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages
D. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their
customers successful
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection?
A. Incident and financial management
B. Change and release and deployment management
C. Incident and event management
D. Knowledge and service level management
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which of the following would be used to communicate a high level description of a major change that
involved significant cost and risk to the organization?
A. Change proposal
B. Change policy
C. Service request
D. Risk register
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which of the following should be documented in an incident model?
1. Details of the service level agreement (SLA) pertaining to the incident
2. Chronological order of steps to resolve the incident
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Why is it important for service providers to understand patterns of business activity (PBA)?
A. PBA are based on organizational roles and responsibilities
B. IT service providers CANNOT schedule changes until they understand PBA
C. Demand for the services delivered by service providers are directly influenced by PBA
D. Understanding PBA is the only way to enable accurate service level reporting
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which one of the following would NOT be defined as part of every process?
A. Roles
B. Inputs and outputs
C. Functions
D. Metrics
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which process is responsible for recording the current details, status, interfaces and dependencies of all
services that are being run or being prepared to run in the live environment?
A. Service level management
B. Service catalogue management
C. Demand management
D. Service transition
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
A process owner has been identified with an “I” in a RACI matrix. Which one of the following would be
expected of them?
A. Be accountable for the outcome of an activity
B. Perform an activity
C. Be kept up-to-date on the progress of an activity
D. Manage an activity
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which of the following are objectives of service level management?
1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of FT services to be provided
2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided
3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction
4: Identifying possible future markets that the service provider could operate in
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which one of the following do technology metrics measure?
A. Components
B. Processes
C. The end-to-end service
D. Customer satisfaction
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which process includes business, service and component sub-processes?
A. Capacity management
B. Incident management
C. Service level management
D. Financial management
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?
A. Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages
B. Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services
C. Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the
service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service known as?
A. Outcome
B. Incident
C. Change
D. Problem
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?
A. Change management
B. Service portfolio management
C. Supplier management
D. Continual service improvement
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation?
1. Local service desk
2. Virtual service desk
3. IT help desk
4. Follow the sun
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
What are the categories of event described in the UIL service operation book?
A. Informational, scheduled, normal
B. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C. Informational, warning, exception
D. Warning, reactive, proactive
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and
deliverables from service management?
A. Employers
B. Stakeholders
C. Regulators
D. Accreditors
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?
1. To automatically detect service-affecting events
2. To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
3. To minimize adverse impacts on business operations
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
What is the name of the group that should review changes that must be implemented faster than the
normal change process?
A. Technical management
B. Emergency change advisory board
C. Urgent change board
D. Urgent change authority
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which of the following is NOT an objective of service transition?
A. To ensure that a service can be operated, managed and supported
B. To provide training and certification in project management
C. To provide quality knowledge and information about services and service assets
D. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
Which of the following types of service should be included in the scope of service portfolio management?
1. Those planned to be delivered
2. Those being delivered
3. Those that have been withdrawn from service
A. 1 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
The BEST description of an incident is:
A. An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service
B. An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service
C. Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned
D. Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk, regardless of whether the service is
impacted or not
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Which one of the following is the CORRECT set of steps for the continual service improvement approach?
A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution; Continually
improve
B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?; How do we keep the
momentum going?
C. Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan;
Check the plan has been properly implemented; Improve the solution
D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get
there?; How do we keep the momentum going?
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 31
When can a known error record be raised?
1. At any time it would be useful to do so
2. After a workaround has been found
A. 2 only
B. 1 only
C. Neither of the above
D. Both of the above
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32
What body exists to support the authorization of changes and to assist change management in the
assessment and prioritization of changes?
A. The change authorization board
B. The change advisory board
C. The change implementer
D. The change manager
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 33
Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met
their targets?
A. Continual service improvement
B. Change management
C. Service level management
D. Availability management
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 34
What do customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define?
A. The value of a service
B. Governance
C. Total cost of ownership (TCO)
D. Key performance indicators (KPIs)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 35
Which of the following are basic concepts used in access management?
A. Personnel, electronic, network, emergency, identity
B. Rights, access, identity, directory services, service/service components
C. Physical, personnel, network, emergency, service
D. Normal, temporary, emergency, personal, group
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 36
Which of these statements about resources and capabilities is CORRECT?
A. Resources are types of service asset and capabilities are not
B. Resources and capabilities are both types of service asset
C. Capabilities are types of service asset and resources are not
D. Neither capabilities nor resources are types of service asset
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 37
Within service design, what is the key output handed over to service transition?
A. Measurement, methods and metrics
B. Service design package
C. Service portfolio design
D. Process definitions
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 38
What should a service always deliver to customers?
A. Applications
B. Infrastructure
C. Value
D. Resources
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 39
Which process is responsible for the availability, confidentiality and integrity of data?
A. Service catalogue management
B. Service asset and configuration management
C. Change management
D. Information security management
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 40
Availability management is directly responsible for the availability of which of the following?
A. IT services and components
B. IT services and business processes
C. Components and business processes
D. IT services, components and business processes
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 41
What type of baseline captures the structure, contents and details of the infrastructure and represents a
set of items that are related to each other?
A. Configuration baseline
B. Project baseline
C. Change baseline
D. Asset baseline
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 42
Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of access management?
A. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
B. Provides the rights for users to be able to use a service or group of services
C. To prevent problems and resulting Incidents from happening
D. To detect security events and make sense of them
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 43
Which of the following are reasons why ITIL is successful?
1. ITIL is vendor neutral
2. It does not prescribe actions
3. ITIL represents best practice
A. All of the above
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 44
Which one of the following includes four stages called Plan, Do, Check and Act?
A. The Deming Cycle
B. The continual service improvement approach
C. The seven-step improvement process
D. The service lifecycle
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 45
The consideration of value creation is a principle of which stage of the service lifecycle?
A. Continual service improvement
B. Service strategy
C. Service design
D. Service transition
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 46
Which process is responsible for dealing with complaints, comments, and general enquiries from users?
A. Service level management
B. Service portfolio management
C. Request fulfilment
D. Demand management
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 47
Which of the following BEST describes partners’ in the phrase people, processes, products and partners”?
A. Suppliers, manufacturers and vendors
B. Customers
C. Internal departments
D. The facilities management function
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 48
Which process will perform risk analysis and review of all suppliers and contracts on a regular basis?
A. The service level management
B. The IT service continuity management
C. The service catalogue management
D. The supplier management
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 49
The experiences, ideas, insights and values of individuals are examples of which level of understanding
within knowledge management?
A. Data
B. Information
C. Knowledge
D. Governance
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 50
Which one of the following contains information that is passed to service transition to enable the
implementation of a new service?
A. A service option
B. A service transition package (STP)
C. A service design package (SDP)
D. A service charter
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which sequence of steps is correct for mapping business drivers with collaboration solutions?
A. Ask questions; aggregate the business drivers; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; present collaboration solution.
B. Ask questions; present collaboration solution; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; aggregate the business drivers.
C. Ask questions; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; present collaboration solution; aggregate the business drivers.
D. Ask questions; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; aggregate the business drivers; present collaboration solution.
700-038 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which statement best describes Cisco Smart Business Architecture?
A. Cisco Smart Business Architecture is a set of modeling tools that help customers design their future Cisco Collaboration Architecture model
B. Cisco Smart Business Architecture is a set of advanced design guides to help customers and partners design new advanced architectures.
C. Cisco Smart Business Architecture is a solution-level series of step-by-step solution and architecture guides to help quickly and efficiently implement mainstream architectures.
D. Similar to Cisco Validated Designs, Cisco Smart Business Architecture helps early adaptors to implement new technologies before they become mainstream technologies
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Cisco Collaboration Architecture differentiates from other solutions in terms of a unified workspace that creates a unique user experience. What is the main need of end users that needs to be addressed?
A. to have a centrally managed unified communication solution
B. to build up the architecture on any platform
C. to allow collaboration any time, on any device, and with any content
D. to ensure that telepresence is a mandatory part of any Cisco Collaboration Architecture
E. to establish appropriate security policies around collaboration applications
700-038 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What are two reasons for virtualizing Cisco Unified Communications applications? (Choose two)
A. lower configuration costs
B. reduce licensing costs
C. reduce carbon footprint
D. lower implementation costs
E. reduce cabling, rack space, and switch port costs
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 5
Which two options are business requirements in the public sector vertical market? (Choose two.)
A. creating rich opportunities for effective collaboration and learning
B. transforming customer experience
C. increasing employee productivity
D. supporting mobile environment
E. increasing revenue
700-038 pdf Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 6
Which two options should you keep in mind when presenting a solution for the business side to the non-IT executives? (Choose two)
A. They need to know how the collaboration architecture will help achieve their strategicgoals.
B. They need detailed information about the different layers of the future collaboration architecture.
C. They need to understand the applications and services that you have embedded in your architectural design.
D. They need information on how collaboration architecture will be deployed and serviced.
E. They need to know how the collaboration architecture will provide benefits and supporttheir operational business.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 7
Security plays an essential role in the Cisco Collaboration Architecture. In which layers of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture is security implemented?
A. Cisco provides advanced security solutions in the infrastructure and collaboration services layers while the collaboration applications layer security is ensured by third-party solutions.
B. Advanced Cisco security solutions are implemented in all layers of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture model.
C. Cisco security solutions are integrated into the infrastructure layer and partially into the collaboration services layer.
D. Security is implemented in all the layers except in the medianet services interface layer.
700-038 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which two statements indicate that the customer needs an infrastructure that can efficiently accommodate organizational changes? (Choose two.)
A. Collaboration equipment must be deployed at several locations and data centers.
B. Collaboration applications must be flexible to quickly adapt to changes in user demand.
C. The lifetime of any technology in our company is approximately two to three years
D. We need technology to dictate and lead business processes.
E. Future success of our company depends on operational agility.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 9
Which three options belong to primary activities that directly create value in a value chain model? (Choose three)
A. research and development
B. service
C. operations
D. procurement
E. inbound logistics
F. infrastructure
700-038 exam Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 10
Which two options are characteristics of Cisco collaboration cloud-based solutions? (Choose two.)
A. private cloud collaboration solution
B. data center interconnected solution
C. hosted collaboration solution partner cloud
D. security intelligence operations
E. integrated computed stacks
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
Which two questions represent market trend complexities for considering a new collaboration experience? (Choose two.)
A. How can we ensure that our employees are making the best use of all this information?
B. How do you deal with cultural and language differences, not to mention conference callsat all hours?
C. How can we make sure we and our employees are getting the information we need, when we need it?
D. How can we manage operational and capital costs in the face of increasing needs from the business?
E. How can we build customer intimacy when we have so many customers communicatingwith us?
700-038 dumps Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
How can the Cisco collaboration services layer of Cisco Collaboration Architecture help managers to measure KPIs?
A. The Cisco collaboration services layer is a standalone element of Cisco Collaboration Architecture and delivers services that directly improve business KPIs
B. Cisco collaboration services and infrastructure layers compose Cisco Collaboration Architecture that improves technical KPIs.
C. The Cisco collaboration services layer delivers additional performance information to demonstrate increased business performance.
D. Conferencing, IP communications, telepresence, and other Cisco collaboration services deliver additional information to show the increased business performance.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which two options are correct statements about the corporate value chain? (Choose two)
A. The corporate value chain helps identify relevant departments but does not provide a link to the associated executives.
B. The corporate value chain is a straight map to identify stakeholders within the customer’s organization.
C. The corporate value chain shows hierarchies or reporting lines that help identify whom to approach outside of the IT department.
D. The corporate value chain is an organization chart that helps identify different departments and business process owners
E. The corporate value chain and core processes help map the relevant departments to the customer’s organizational chart.
700-038 pdf Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 14
Which three options are assessment types for gap analysis? (Choose three)
A. outsourcing assessments
B. architectural assessments
C. operational assessments
D. business assessments
E. technology assessments
F. virtualization assessments
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 15
Cisco supply chain agility solutions are addressing a crucial part within the manufacturing industry. Which of the following is the main driver of that branch of industry?
A. achieve lower unit costs
B. ensure quality standards to customers
C. increase utilization of manufacturing plants
D. achieve stronger competitive position in the marketplace
E. adopt the supply chain to changing markets
700-038 vce Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 16
Which option represents a megatrend in the marketplace that has impacted collaboration?
A. dispersed workforces
B. virtualization of the workplace
C. device flexibility
D. expertise on demand
Correct Answer: B

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Latest and Most Accurate Pass4itsure 300-460 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-17)

QUESTION 1
A Cisco UCS Director administrator is changing the boot order in a boot policy. Which option lists the steps that accomplish this task?
A. On the menu bar, choose Physical > Storage.
In the left pane, expand the pod and then click the Cisco UCS Manager account.
In the right pane, click the Organizations tab.
Click the organization in which you want to modify a policy and then click View Details.
Click the Manage Boot Order tab.
Choose the boot policy that you want to clone and click Manage Boot Order.
B. On the menu bar, choose Physical > Compute.
In the left pane, expand the pod and then click the Cisco UCS Manager account.
In the right pane, click the Organizations tab.
Click the organization in which you want to modify a policy and then click View Details.
Click the Boot Policies tab.
Choose the boot policy that you want to clone and click Manage Boot Devices Order.
C. On the menu bar, choose Physical > Storage.
In the left pane, expand the pod and then click the Cisco UCS Manager account.
In the right pane, click the Organizations tab.
Click the organization in which you want to modify a policy and then click View Details.
Click the Boot Policies tab.
Choose the boot policy that you want to clone and click Manage Boot Devices Order.
D. On the menu bar, choose Physical > Compute.
In the left pane, expand the pod and then click the Cisco UCS Manager account.
In the right pane, click the Organizations tab.
Click the organization in which you want to modify a policy and then click View Details.
Click the Manage Boot Order tab.
Choose the boot policy that you want to clone and click Manage Boot Order.
300-460 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 2
A Cisco UCS Director administrator is configuring vHBA. Which four fields are needed to configure vHBA? (Choose four.)
A. vHBA Name
B. Adapter Policy
C. Template Type
D. Organizations
E. Description
F. Fabric ID
G. UCS Organization Name
H. UCS Account Name
Correct Answer: ACEF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
Which three options does the Cisco UCS Manager boot policy determine? (Choose three.)
A. initiator port range
B. selection of the boot device
C. location from which the server boots
D. initiator and target ports
E. global boot device priority
F. order in which boot devices are invoked
300-460 dumps Correct Answer: BCF
Explanation

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
300-460 dumps
Which three commands complete the configuration for this Cisco Nexus 1000V port profile that is assigned to a vmkernel used for L3 VSM control plane? (Choose three.)
A. service-policy type qos output vmk-control
B. vmware port-group
C. system vlan 119
D. capability 13control
E. swithchport mode trunk
F. mtu 9000
G. swithchport 12control
Correct Answer: BCD
Explanation

QUESTION 5
An administrator is installing a hypervisor and has provisioned a dedicated LAN connectivity, set the boot order, and is now rebooting the server to start installation. Which method is the administrator using to install the hypervisor?
A. host image mapping
B. KVM console
C. PXE installation
D. virtual boot
300-460 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 6
An architect must choose a VXLAN architecture that utilizes hardware-based VXLAN adapters. Which type of architecture must be selected?
A. Layer 3
B. NSX
C. ACI
D. Layer 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 7
Which three options describe the correct methods to install the Cisco Nexus 1000V VEM (VIB) software module on the VMware ESXi hypervisor? (Choose three.)
A. using the “Add Host to vSphere Distributed Switch” dialog on the vSphere Network tab when Update Manager is installed
B. esxcli software vib install –n/tmp/Cisco_bootbank_cisco-vem –v173-esx_5.2.1.3.1.4.0-3.2.1.vib
C. executing the Deploy-Nexus 1000V-VSEM.ps1 script
D. esxcli software vib install –v/tmp/Cisco_bootbank_cisco-vem –v173-esx_5.2.1.3.1.4.0-3.2.1.vib
E. using the Host Selection dialog box in Cisco Virtual Switch Update Manager
F. creating a baseline group in VMware Update Manager
300-460 vce Correct Answer: ADE
Explanation

QUESTION 8
An engineer must ensure that all VXLAN and VTEP processes are kept on purpose-built hardware to ensure that all overlay functions are as fast as possible. In which solution is all VXLAN and VTEP decision making moved to the hardware, versus potentially slower software control?
A. Layer 3
B. ACI
C. NSX
D. Layer 2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 9
Which three statements about server pools are true? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco USC Director Displays only the managed servers in a server pool, but the size of the pool includes all servers.
B. Servers pools cannot be assigned to a Cisco USC Director group.
C. A given server can belong only to a specific server pool.
D. A server pool contains a set of servers that share the same attributes such as server type, amount of memory, local storage, type of CPU, or local drive configuration.
E. A server pool only includes servers from a specific chassis in the system.
F. If your system implements multitenansy through organizations, you can designate one ore more server pools to be used by a specific organization.
300-460 exam Correct Answer: ADF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
After implementing VXLAN VTEPs in a VMware NSX deployment, an engineer discovers that the VXLAN tunnel does not appear to function across the physical network. A pair of Cisco Nexus 5596UP Switches onnet the virtual network to the
physical network. To permit the VXLAN tunnel to operate correctly, which action must the engineer take?
A. Upgrade Cisco Nexus to version 7.0 code.
B. Establish a dynamic routing protocol between the vSphere virtual router and the Cisco Nexus switches.
C. Remove storm control mechanisms that are blocking the establishment of the VXLAN tunnel.
D. Configure jumbo frame support on the Cisco Nexus switches.
E. Build a GRE tunnel to correctly encapsulate VXLAN between the networks.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 11
A Cisco UCS Director administrator is installing a Bare Metal Agent and is in the process of adding an NFS mount point. Which Administration menu option does the administrator choose to add an NFS mount point?
A. Compute Accounts
B. Storage Accounts
C. Physical Accounts
D. Bare Metal Accounts
300-460 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 12
An engineer opens a KVM to a Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Server and boots off a Windows Server ISO with a virtual mapped drive. The server is not attempting to boot from the ISO. What must the engineer modify first?
A. boot policy to KVM CD
B. BIOS policy to CD
C. boot policy to CD
D. local disk policy to CD
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:

QUESTION 13
Which four issues are often detected when validating workflows in Cisco UCS Director? (Choose four.)
A. Task Handler not found
B. missing administrator tasks or input tasks after import or upgrade
C. mapping mismatch
D. version incompatibilities
E. debugging logging information
F. missing optional values for tasks
G. missing task action value
H. missing mandatory values for tasks
300-460 pdf Correct Answer: ABCH
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: Section Workflow validation of the link:

QUESTION 14
A Cisco UCSM administrator has been tasked with deploying a new data center. Which two recommendations aid in the ability to associate a service with a server? (Choose two.)
A. The host control setting for a QoS policy applies to vNICs only. It has no effect on a vHBA.
B. You can assign only a QoS policy to a vHBA if the priority setting for that policy is set to fc, which represents the Fibre Channel system class.
C. The host control setting for a QoS policy applies to vHBAs only.
D. Power capping is supported for rack servers. If you include a power control policy in a service profile that is associated with a rack-mount server, the policy is implemented.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation

QUESTION 15
A Cisco UCS Director administrator is attempting to resolve a workflow validation issue. Which option lists the steps that accomplish this task?
A. On the menu bar, choose Policies > Catalogs.
Click the Activities tab.
Choose the workflow that failed validation.
Click Validate Workflow.
In the Workflow Validation dialog box, double click the description under Resolution.
In the Validation Errors dialog box, view the summary for the issue detected and complete the wizard to resolve the validation error.
B. On the menu bar, choose Policies > Orchestration.
Click the Activities tab.
Choose the workflow that failed validation.
Click Validate Workflow.
In the Workflow Validation dialog box, double click the description under Resolution.
In the Validation Errors dialog box, view the summary for the issue detected and complete the wizard to resolve the validation error.
C. On the menu bar, choose Policies > Orchestration.
Click the Workflows tab.
Choose the workflow that failed validation.
Click Validate Workflow.
In the Workflow Validation dialog box, double click the description under Resolution.
In the Validation Errors dialog box, view the summary for the issue detected and complete the wizard to resolve the validation error.
D. On the menu bar, choose Policies > Catalogs.
Click the Workflows tab.
Choose the workflow that failed validation.
Click Validate Workflow.
In the Workflow Validation dialog box, double click the description under Resolution.
In the Validation Errors dialog box, view the summary for the issue detected and complete the wizard to resolve the validation error.
300-460 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 16
An engineer must create Cisco UCS service profiles for a new B-Series ESXi deployment. Which two configuration steps must be performed to isolate live migration traffic within a single Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect? (Choose two.)
A. Install Cisco Nexus 1000V.
B. Enable fabric failover.
C. Create a single vNIC for the vSwitch.
D. Disable fabric failover.
E. Create one vNIC per fabric for the vSwitch.
F. Install VM-FEX.
Correct Answer: BF
Explanation

QUESTION 17
Which Cisco Nexus 1000V configuration implements VxLAN segment 5001 as unicast and segment 5002 as multicast?
A. bridge-domain bd-5001
segment id 5001
no segment distribution mac
!
Bridge-domain bd-5002
segment id 5002
group 239.1.1.2
B. segment mode multicast
bridge-domain bd-5001
segment id 5001
segment mode unicast-only
!
Bridge-domain bd-5002
segment id 5002
group 239.1.1.2
segment mode multicast
C. segment mode unicast-only
bridge-domain bd-5001
segment id 5001
!
Bridge-domain bd-5002
segment id 5002
group 239.1.1.2
no segment mode unicast-only
D. segment mode unicast-only
bridge-domain bd-5001
segment id 5001
!
Bridge-domain bd-5002
segment id 5002
300-460 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:

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Exam Code: 300-460
Exam Name: Implementing and Troubleshooting the Cisco Cloud Infrastructure
Q&As: 107

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Latest and Most Accurate Pass4itsure 300-550 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-28)

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
300-550 dumps
To make this code work properly, which tine of code should you insert at the blank line?
A. r = requests.get(url, headers=header, verify-False)
B. r = requesis.post(url, data:payload, headers:header, verify:False)
C. r = requests.post(url, data=payload, headers=header, verify=False)
D. r = requests(method=’POST’, url, data=payload, headers=header. verify=False)
300-550 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You want to implement a new feature in a home-grown network automation tool. Because your development team uses the Agile development methodology, which documentation must you create for them, in order to put this feature on the roadmap?
A. ROI analysis
B. case study
C. user story
D. SCIPAB breakdown
E. enhancement request
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which two parts are required for a RESTful API call? (Choose two.)
A. resource
B. parameter
C. method
D. query
E. fragment
300-550 dumps Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
300-550 dumps
Which action effectively secures the controller?
A. Enable HTTP to HTTPS redirect.
B. Require complex passwords.
C. Use NAT on the router before the controller.
D. Blacklist the public WAN.
E. Whitelist the Admins network and block all others.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-550 dumps
A network engineer created a Bash script to automate some network device tasks. What are two potential risks when a network operator runs this script as written? (Choose two.)
A. The script results in network devices losing connectivity.
B. The script executes too slowly.
C. The script configures unintended commands.
D. The script exposes users’ passwords.
E. The script passes configuration data in cleartext.
300-550 pdf Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
Which tool streamlines the development of network applications?
A. Java Runtime Engine
B. software development kit
C. command-line interface
D. General Public License
E. package management system
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
What are two node types in a YANG data model? (Choose two.)
A. grouping
B. leaf
C. container
D. module
E. instance
300-550 vce Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
Where is the node-ui.log stored on the Cisco APIC-EM appliance?
A. in the /var/Iog/grapevine/services/node-ui directory within the container that is running the node-ui instance
B. in the Cassandra database instance that is running within the container that is running the node-ui instance
C. in the /opt/CSCOapicem/logs/node-ui directory within the Cisco APIC-EM appliance root
D. in the /var/log/grapevine/services/node-ui directory within the Cisco APIC-EM appliance root
E. in the Cisco APIC-EM Cassandra database instance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which statement is used to associate a submodule and a parent module in a YANG data model?
A. import
B. namespace
C. include
D. belongs-to
300-550 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You can use Visore to accomplish which task?
A. Monitor faults and events by using a subscription model.
B. Read object properties and information.
C. Update any properties of an object that are not read-only.
D. Update any properties of an object.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A web service returns a JSON object to your Python script. What is the most logical object in which to store the JSON response?
A. an integer
B. a dictionary
C. a tuple
D. a string
E. a list
300-550 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
300-550 dumps
Which Linux command provides output that is similar to the output in the exhibit?
A. cat /etc/hosts
B. tcpdump -a
C. ifconfig -av
D. netstat -an
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
What is the main benefit of having an out-of-band management network for an infrastructure controller?
A. Data plane disruption is less likely.
B. It provides separation of the management and data planes.
C. Configuration of the controller is faster and simpler.
D. It is less expensive.
300-550 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which field in Visore can you use to find a unique instance of a managed object?
A. IcOwn
B. dn
C. class name
D. classld
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which communication mechanism does NETCONF use?
A. SOAP over HTTPS
B. YAML over SSH
C. YAML over HTTPS
D. RPC over SSH
300-550 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Management protocols like NETCONF access network elements on well-known ports. Which design practice hardens a network device implementation?
A. Specify the source interface for SSH.
B. Limit access to port 830, well-known clients, and SSH VTY.
C. Enable CoPP.
D. Configure ip http secure-server.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which two protocols are examples of southbound APIs? (Choose two.)
A. VXLAN-GPE
B. LLDP
C. NETCONF
D. IPFIX
E. SYSLOG
F. OpFlex
300-550 exam Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 18
Which two northbound protocols are supported by the Cisco NSO Controller? (Choose two)
A. REST
B. SOAP
C. OpenFlow
D. NETCONF
E. PCEP
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 19
Which statement about shading in ACI is true?
A. Sharding is the technology that is designed to prevent “split-brain” scenarios in ACI.
B. Sharding is the service that presents the API on a Cisco APIC.
C. Sharding is the mechanism for distributing the database and configuration changes on a Cisco APIC cluster.
D. Sharding is the distributed topology that is used in ACI (also referred to as spine-leaf).
300-550 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
After completing the OSC setup wizard, the configuration does not get applied. Which two log files should you check to determine the errors that occurred? (Choose two.)
A. /var/log/node_config_state.log
B. /var/log/platform_services.log
C. /var/log/ansible.log
D. /var/log/messages.log
E. /var/log/controller.log
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 21
YANG modeling supports which two comment styles? (Choose two.)
A. A block comment is enclosed within “<–” and “–>”.
B. A single-line comment starts with “#” and ends at the end of the line.
C. A single-line comment starts with “!” and ends at the end of the line.
D. A block comment is enclosed within “/*” and “*/”.
E. A single-line comment starts with “//” and ends at the end of the line.
300-550 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
How is a service ticket used when constructing a Cisco APIC-EM API request?
A. to identify the service type
B. to identify a service on the controller
C. to determine the request type
D. as a security token
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which statement about NX-API REST is true?
A. Configuration and state information is stored in the MIT.
B. NX-API REST requires a commercial license to enable.
C. Partial commits are supported.
D. Fault objects may be queried, but event objects cannot be queried.
300-550 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the protocol on the left to its purpose in ACI fabric discovery on the right.
Select and Place:
300-550 dumps
Correct Answer:
300-550 dumps

QUESTION 25
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the HTTP status code number on the left to the corresponding status code name on the right.
Select and Place:
300-550 dumps
300-550 exam Correct Answer:
300-550 dumps

QUESTION 26
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the tools on the left to their corresponding functions on the right.
Select and Place:
300-550 dumps
Correct Answer:
300-550 dumps

QUESTION 27
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the network automation protocol on the left to the transport protocol that it supports on the right. Some options are used more than once.
Select and Place:
300-550 dumps
300-550 dumps Correct Answer:
300-550 dumps

QUESTION 28
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the protocol on the loft to its correct description on the right.
Select and Place:
300-550 dumps
Correct Answer:
300-550 dumps

The Cisco Network Programmability Design and Implementation Specialist (NPDESI) exam (300-550) is a 90-minute assessment with 65-75 questions. This exam tests a candidate’s ability to develop network applications in the Cisco environment. With the complete collection of questions and answers, pass4itsure has assembled to take you through 70 Q&As to your 300-550 dumps exam preparation.

Exam Code: 300-550
Exam Name: Cisco Network Programmability Design and Implementation Specialist
Q&As: 70

The Cisco Network Programmability Design and Implementation Specialist (NPDESI) (300-550) exam is a 90-minute, 65-75 item exam that assesses how sales teams can effectively position in the Cisco Network Programmability Design and Implementation Specialist certification. Some of the topics assessed are how to consider the challenges faced by business and IT today and how this relates to Cisco opportunities. The pass4itsure 300-550 dumps exam also assesses who “the customer” is and the importance of applications to many of the customers that are influential in purchasing application-based solutions. This certificate proves that the candidate has an advanced understanding within the Cisco Network Programmability Design and Implementation Specialist.
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“This is my first time to sit a Cisco exam, so you will know how nervous I was! Thanks for your help, Kingexam! I passed. I think 95% questions are more or less the same as your guidance. Some questions with the answer are in the different sequence, and, sorry to point out that one answer of your questions is incorrect, I’ll email you to let you know, you guys need to revise it. Well, I think your kingexam’s guidance is still more accurate than others. The most important thing is I got passed 🙂 Paul Hussler”

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Latest and Most Accurate Pass4itsure 400-201 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-21)

QUESTION 1
Which option is the Cisco cloud management platform that is designed for enterprise and public sector IT organizations to help build private and hybrid clouds?
A. Cisco Cloud Orchestrator
B. Cisco UCS Director
C. Cisco Intercloud Fabric
D. Cisco Intelligent Automation for Cloud
400-201 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
400-151 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. An MPLS VPN service was provisioned for customer ABC both sites must be communication to each other primarily over the wan link with no traffic over the wan circuits PE1 has the same configuration as PE2 which two
commands can be configure on the PEs to accomplish the desired goal?(Choose two)
A. Under sub interface IP VRF SITEMAP SoO with the same SoO value.
B. no neighbor AS-override.
C. Neighbor route-map SoO in with the same SoO value.
D. Neighbor route-map SoO in with a different SoO value.
E. Neighbor route-map SoOout with the same SoO value.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
400-151 dumps
Refer to the exhibit Customer ABC is peering with two service providers for internet access. In order to prevent the AS 100 from becoming a transit AS between ISP_1 and ISP_2. Which BGP configuration must be applied to achieve this goal?
A. CE1# CE2#
ip as-path access-list 1 permit^100$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^100$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in neighbor 1.1.1.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in
B. CE1# CE2#
ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out
C. CE1# CE2#
ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out
D. CE1# CE2#
ip as-path access-list 1 permit^11$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^11$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out
E. CE1# CE2#
ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in neighbor 1.1.1.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in
400-201 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A network operation engineer has these requirement:
*prevent multicast transit when it is enforced by unicast stub routing.
*Reduce the overall processing of PIM control traffic. Especially when the number of stub links increases on the stub device.
*protect against multicast spoofing of PM designated router messages and PIM assert messages.
Which solution meets these requirements?
A. explicit tracking of receivers.
B. multicast stub routing.
C. Source Specific Multicast.
D. PIM allow RP.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which option is the benefit of per-link LFA over per-prefix LFA?
A. It has a greater applicability
B. It provides greater protection coverage
C. It is simpler
D. It enables better bandwidth utilization
400-201 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which standard provides insurance that the new hardware rollout plan meets certain environment design guidelines before deployment?
A. NAS
B. eTOM
C. NEBS
D. ITIL
E. COBIT
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
ISP A provides L2VPN services to Company B through an MPLS network. Company B uses all available CoS values to classify and different traffic forwarding within all Company B sites. ISP A uses the following CoS values to differentiate service classes for the VPN customer traffic
*MPLS EXP 0 for Bronze service class
*MPLS EXP 1 for Silver service class
*MPLS EXP 2 for Gold service class
*Remaining MPLS EXP values for ISP A internal use
ISP A’s policy is to forward VPN customer traffic based only on their Bronze, silver and Gold service classes. Which QoS method must ISP A implement to achieve this?
A. Short-pipe Mode
B. Russian Doll Model
C. Pipe Mode
D. Uniform Mode
E. Maximum Allocation Model
400-201 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which two options are characteristics of MoFRR? ( Choose two)
A. Uses additional PIM join toward source
B. Based on multicast forward error correction feature
C. Based on PIM Fast Route
D. Requires MPLS TE FRR enabled with link protection and node protection
E. Utilizes two equal-cost paths toward source
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 9
Which routing table is used by PEs and ASBRs to store all VPN routes that need to be exchanged in an Inter-AS L3VPN option B scenario?
A. IGP table
B. VRF routing table
C. Global routing table
D. BGP table
400-201 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
In the MC-LAG environment, which two statements about clustering HA are true?
A. Public connection is used to access the active node of cluster from the outside cluster
B. Private connection is used to connect the nodes of the cluster for private communication
C. Private connection is used to access the active node of cluster from the outside cluster
D. Public connection is used to connect the nodes of cluster for private communication
E. Public connection is used to monitor the health and status of each node in the HA cluster using the heartbeat system
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
400-151 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. After the BGP TCP negotiation between Router A and Router B, what will be the value of the keep alive timer and the hold-down timer, respectively?
A. 3 seconds and 9 seconds
B. 60 seconds and 180 seconds
C. 10 seconds and 9 seconds
D. no value, because BGP negotiation will not be successful
E. 10 seconds and 10 seconds
F. 10 seconds and 30 seconds
G. 3 seconds and 30 seconds
H. 3 seconds and 10 seconds
400-201 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which are two benefits of using segment routing over RSVP-TE for traffic engineering? (Choose two)
A. Segment routing traffic engineering tunnels always follow the low-latency path
B. ECMP-aware traffic engineering is natively supported by segment routing
C. Per-flow state is present only at the ingress node to the Segment routing-enabled network
D. Per-flow state is present at the ingress and egress node to the segment routing-enabled network
E. Per-flow state is maintained on all nodes of the segment routing-enabled network
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
Which three PIM modes require RP? (Choose three)
A. PIM-DM
B. PIM-SM
C. PIM with mLDP
D. PIM-SSM
E. PIM anycast
F. PIM-BIDIR
400-201 pdf Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 14
Which option is the benefit of per-link LFA over per-prefix LFA?
A. It has a greater applicability
B. It provides greater protection coverage
C. It is simpler
D. It enables better bandwidth utilization
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
In which two ways does the BGP graceful restart capability preserve prefix information during a restart? (Choose two.)
A. The peer router sends an end -of RIB message to the restarting router
B. The peer router immediately removes the BGP routes that it learned from the restarting router from its BGP routing table
C. The restarting router waits to receive updates from the neighboring routers.
D. The restarting router does not remove any stale prefixes after the timer for stale entries exTs.
E. The restarting router removes any stale prefixes after the timer for stale entries expires
400-201 vce Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 16
What is the port number of an IPsec Encapsulating Security Payload packet? (ESP)
A. IP protocol 51
B. UDP port 50
C. Ip protocol 50
D. TCP Port 50
E. UDP port 51
F. TCP port 51
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Two routers that are running MPLS and LDP have multiple links that than connect them to each other. An engineer wants to ensure that the label bindings are not flushed from the LIB if one of the links fails. Which configuration meets this requirement?
A. the mpls ldp neighbor targeted command
B. the mpls ip command on a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel
C. the mpls ldp autoconfig command
D. the mpls ldp session protection command
400-201 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
A network engineer has a requirement to configure IP flow exporting using standard protocols on a cisco IOS XE device. Which configuration achieves this goal?
A. flow exporter EXPORTER
destination 10.1.1.1
export-protocol version 9
transport udp 90
B. flow exporter EXPORTER
destination 10.1.1.1
source Loopback 0
transport udp 90
C. flow exporter EXPORTER
destination 10.1.1.1
source Loopback 0
transport udp 90
version ipfix
D. flow exporter EXPORTER
destination 10.1.1.1
export-protocol ipfix
transport udp 90
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
A customer has a requirements record voice calls for IPT connected on switch A using VLAN 200.Record traffic should be forwarded to the IPCC recording server, which is connected on switch B, voice recording is not working. Assuming that
RSPAN source monitoring is properly set, which action fixes this problem?
A. On switch B, the monitor session 1 destination remote command must be applied
B. On switch B, the port connects to the recording server must have an IP address and be accessible via VLAN 200
C. On switch B, the port that connects to the reording server must be accessed on VLAN
D. On switch A and switch B, the remote-span command must be configured on the mirroring dedicated VLAN
400-201 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
A service provider engineering team must design a solution that supports end-to-end LSPS for multiple IGP domains within different AS numbers. According to RFC 3107, which solution achieves this goal?
A. LDP and BGP
B. BGP and Send-label
C. RSVP and IS-IS or OSPF
D. RSVP and BGP
E. mLDP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
A service provider is implementing an nV Edge system with the two ASR 9000 chassis has two RSPs. Which two cabling methods reflect the minimum configuration needed for full synchronization between the two Cisco ASR 9000 chassis?
(Choose two)
A. Create the single virtual control plane that connect the two RSPs between the two chassis via Layer 2 connections
B. Create the IRL connections between the two chassis via Layer 3 connections using the EOBC 10 Gbps ports of the RSPs
C. Create the IRL connections between the two chassis via Layer 3 connections using the ports of the line cards
D. Create the single virtual control plane that connect the two chassis via Layer 3 connections using the 10 Gbps ports of the line cards
E. Create the IRL connections between the two chassis via Layer 1 connections using the10 Gbps ports of the line cards
F. Create the single virtual control plane that connect the two chassis via 100 Gbps bundle interfaces
G. Create the IRL connections between the two chassis via Layer 1 connections using the EOBC 10 Gbps ports of the RSPs
400-201 pdf Correct Answer: AE

The CCIE Service Provider Written Exam Version 4.1 (CCIE Service Provider) exam (400-201) is a 120-minute assessment with 90-110 questions. This exam tests a candidate’s ability to develop network applications in the Cisco environment. With the complete collection of questions and answers, pass4itsure has assembled to take you through 711 Q&As to your 400-201 dumps exam preparation.

Exam Code: 400-201
Exam Name: CCIE Service Provider Written Exam Version 4.1
Q&As: 491

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Latest and Most Accurate Pass4itsure 400-151 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-17)

QUESTION 1
Drag and drop the feature form the left onto the correct benefits on the right.
Select and Place:
400-151 dumps
400-151 exam Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps

QUESTION 2
Drag and drop the spanning-tree port from the left onto the correct description on the right
Select and Place:
400-151 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps

QUESTION 3
Drag and drop the objects of the ACI policy model from left onto the correct definition on right.
Select and Place:
400-151 dumps
400-151 dumps Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps

QUESTION 4
Drag and drop the feature from the left onto the left onto the correct description on the right
Select and Place:
400-151 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps

QUESTION 5
Drag and drop me concept of Cisco UCS Director orchestrator from the left onto the correct description on the right.
Select and Place:
400-151 dumps
400-151 pdf Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps

QUESTION 6
Drag and drop terms at the Cisco Prime Service Catalog from the left onto the definition on the right.
Select and Place:
400-151 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps

QUESTION 7
Drag and drop the method from the left onto the correct description on the right.
Select and Place:
400-151 dumps
400-151 vce Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps

QUESTION 8
An admin is updating an existing Cisco UCS environment to accommodate a new storage array that will be directly attached to the Cisco UCS. Unmanaged servers external to the Cisco UCS fabric interconnects will also access the new array existing Cisco UCS service profiles will be used to access the new storage array. Drag and drop the appropriate steps from left into the correct order on the right to migrate the Cisco UCS to support the new storage array.
Select and Place:
400-151 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps

QUESTION 9
Drag and drop the correct port security configuration on the left to the correct action on the right.
Select and Place:
400-151 dumps
400-151 exam Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps

QUESTION 10
Drag and drop the mode of operation on left onto the correct definition on right.
Select and Place:
400-151 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps

QUESTION 11
Drag and drop feature on the left onto the appropriate business benefits on the right
Select and Place:
400-151 dumps
400-151 dumps Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps

QUESTION 12
Drag and drop the actions in the left column into the right column in the order in which you would perform those actions in a step-by-step in-service software upgrade process
Select and Place:
400-151 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps

QUESTION 13
Drag and drop two configurations that should fail without data loss from the left column into the 2 Devices Lost column on the right.
Select and Place:
400-151 dumps
400-151 pdf Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps

QUESTION 14
Drag and drop the correct description on the left onto the protocols and features on the right. Not all options will be used.
Select and Place:
400-151 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps

QUESTION 15
Drag and drop sequence of the steps on left for ISSU software of dual supervisor switches to achieve a non-disruptive upgrade on the right.
Select and Place:
400-151 dumps
400-151 vce Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps

QUESTION 16
Drag and drop the vPC feature on the left onto the correct description on the right.
Select and Place:
400-151 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps

QUESTION 17
Drag and drop the feature form the left onto the correct description on the right
Select and Place:
400-151 dumps
400-151 exam Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps

The CCIE Data Center Written Exam (CCIE Data Center ) exam (400-151) is a 120-minute assessment with 90-110 questions. This exam tests a candidate’s ability to develop network applications in the Cisco environment. With the complete collection of questions and answers, pass4itsure has assembled to take you through 491 Q&As to your 400-151 dumps exam preparation.

Exam Code: 400-151
Exam Name: CCIE Data Center Written Exam
Q&As: 491

The CCIE Data Center Written Exam (CCIE Data Center)(400-151) exam is a 120-minute, 90-110 item exam that assesses how sales teams can effectively position in the CCIE Data Center. Some of the topics assessed are how to consider the challenges faced by business and IT today and how this relates to Cisco opportunities. The pass4itsure 400-151 dumps exam also assesses who “the customer” is and the importance of applications to many of the customers that are influential in purchasing application-based solutions. This certificate proves that the candidate has an advanced understanding within the CCIE Data Center Written Exam.
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2018 New Pass4isture Microsoft 70-341 Dumps Version: Candidates for this exam are senior administrators who act as the technical lead over a team of administrators. Candidates serve as a third level of support between the Exchange Recipient Administrator and the Exchange Server Administrator. Candidates should have a minimum of three years of experience managing Exchange servers and Exchange messaging in an enterprise environment.
QUESTION 1
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization named adatum.com. The organization contains five Mailbox servers and two Client Access servers. You need to ensure that an administrator named user1 receives a daily email message that contains a log of all the Exchange Server administrative actions. Which cmdlet should you use in a scheduled task?
A. Search-AdminAuditLog
B. Set-Mailbox
C. New-AdminAuditLogSearch
D. Set-ExchangeServer
E. Set-AdminAuditLogConfig
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 270-341 dumps
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization named Contoso. The organization contains a server named Server1 that has Exchange Server 2013 installed. Server1 has the Mailbox server role and the Client Access server role installed. Server1 has a Send connector for a partner company. The Send connector is configured for Domain Security with a domain named adatum.com.
The only certificate installed on Server1 expires. You discover that all email messages sent to adatum.com remain in the queue on Server1. On Server1, you install a new certificate from a trusted third-party. You need to ensure that the email messages are delivered to adatum.com. What should you do?
A. Assign the new certificate to the IIS service.
B. Send the new certificate to the administrator at adatum.com.
C. Assign the new certificate to the SMTP service.
D. Create a new send connector that contains an address space to adatum.com.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A user fails to connect to his mailbox by using Outlook Anywhere. The user successfully connects to the mailbox by using an Exchange ActiveSync-enabled mobile device and Outlook Web App. You need to identify what prevents the users from connecting to the mailbox by using Outlook Anywhere. Which tool should you use?
A. Microsoft Outlook
B. Microsoft Exchange Server Deployment Assistant
C. Microsoft Exchange RPC Extractor
D. Microsoft Exchange Server Profile Analyzer
E. Microsoft Exchange Server User Monitor
F. Microsoft Exchange Load Generator
G. Exchange Remote Connectivity Analyzer
H. Exchange Server MAPI Editor
Correct Answer: G

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QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All client computer accounts are in an organizational unit (OU) named AllComputers. Client computers run either windows 7 or Windows 8.
You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1.
You link GP1 to the AllComputers OU.
You need to ensure that GP1 applies only to computers that have more than 8 GB of memory. What should you configure?
A. The Security settings of GP1
B. The Block Inheritance option for AllComputers
C. The Security settings of AllComputers
D. The WMI filter for GP1
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI) filters allow you to dynamically determine the scope of Group Policy objects (GPOs) based on attributes of the target computer. When a GPO that is linked to a WMI filter is applied on the target computer, the filter is evaluated on the target computer. If the WMI filter evaluates to false, the GPO is not applied (except if the client computer is running Windows Server, in which case the filter is ignored and the GPO is always applied).If the WMI filter evaluates to true, the GPO is applied.
References: Training Guide: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012 R2: Chapter 10: Implementing Group Policy, p.470, 482

QUESTION 270-410 dumps
Your network contains multiple subnets. On one of the subnets, you deploy a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You install the DNS Server server role on Server1, and then you create a standard primary zone named contoso.com.
You need to ensure that client computers can resolve single-label names to IP addresses. What should you do first?
A. Create a reverse lookup zone.
B. Convert the contoso.com zone to an Active Directory-integrated zone.
C. Create a GlobalNames zone.
D. Configure dynamic updates for contoso.com.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You should use GlobalNames zone to take advantage of single-label names. This will also ensure that the zone remains valid.
References:

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The DNS zone for contoso.com is Active-Directory integrated. The domain contains 500 client computers. There are an additional 20 computers in a workgroup. You discover that every client computer on the network can add its record to the contoso.com zone. You need to ensure that only the client computers in the Active Directory domain can register records in the contoso.com zone. What should you do?
A. Sign the contoso.com zone by using DNSSEC.
B. Configure the Dynamic updates settings of the contoso.com zone.
C. Configure the Security settings of the contoso.com zone.
D. Move the contoso.com zone to a domain controller that is configured as a DNS server.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
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Latest and Most Accurate Pass4itsure 210-451 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-30)

QUESTION 1
Which description of the elasticity of a Cloud-based infrastructure is true?
A. provides dynamic on-demand provisioning of services in near real time
B. enables sharing of resources and costs across a large pool of users
C. multisite architecture to reduce impact from outages in any one site
D. provides a security posture that is manageable from a single point of control
210-451 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which characteristic is an inoperative attribute of a private Cloud deployment?
A. self service and on demand
B. shared by many companies
C. highly scalable
D. metered for reporting or billing purposes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which option is one essential characteristic of Cloud computing?
A. It must use virtualization.
B. It must provide load balancing services.
C. It must provide on-demand self service.
D. It must run on open source software.
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What are the five specific characteristics common to the Cloud environments?
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B. on-demand usage, ubiquitous access, tiered-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
C. on-demand usage, autonomous access, multi-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
D. dynamic usage, ubiquitous access, multi-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which best describes a SaaS Cloud model?
A. infrastructure that presents the user with an operating system allowing programming language
execution environment for testing database and web servers
B. infrastructure that virtualizes server functions on a hypervisor
C. infrastructure that provides elastic storage and computing resources
D. a platform that provides access to application software or database resources
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
IaaS is an acronym for what type of Cloud?
A. Instances as a Service
B. Infrastructure as a Service
C. Internet as a Service
D. Images as a Service
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which Cloud service model is appropriate for a physical data center move to the Cloud?
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Compute as a Service
D. Software as a Service
210-451 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which statement defines Cloud Service Models?
A. infrastructure as a service, software as a service, platform as a service
B. internet as a service, software as a service, platform as a service
C. infrastructure as a service, big data as a service, platform as a service
D. infrastructure as a service, software as a service, grid as a service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which best describes a Cloud deployment model that relies on interoperability between Cloud providers?
A. Hybrid Cloud
B. Multi-Cloud
C. InterCloud
D. Community Cloud
210-451 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which three options are considered Cloud deployment models? (Choose three.)
A. Public Cloud
B. Hybrid Cloud
C. Open Cloud
D. Private Cloud
E. Stack Cloud
F. Distributed Cloud
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 11
Company ABC hosts all their applications internally. During one day of the month, the demand for their
applications far exceeds the capacity of their datacenter. Which Cloud model should Company ABC
consider using?
A. Community
B. Private
C. Hybrid
D. Public
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QUESTION 12
Which option lists the Cloud deployment models?
A. public, community, private, hybrid
B. cluster, community, private, hybrid
C. public, performance, private, hybrid
D. public, community, secure, hybrid
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
What is an invalid Cloud deployment model?
A. distributed
B. private
C. community
D. hybrid
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which three options are Common Cloud characteristics? (Choose three.)
A. single tenancy
B. elasticity
C. ubiquitous network access
D. metered service
E. QoS
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 15
Which description of Cisco vPath is true?
A. a protocol that provides end-to-end path assurance for Cloud-based systems
B. an embedded intelligence in Cisco VEM that provides abstracted control and forward plane functionality
C. a service that provides forwarding plane abstraction for inline redirection of traffic for vServices
D. a vService that allows for security policy enforcement through transparent bridging
210-451 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which description of RAID6 is true?
A. block-level striping of data with double distributed parity
B. drive-level striping of data with double distributed parity
C. block-level striping of data with single distributed parity
D. block-level mirroring of data with double distributed parity
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which Cloud storage technology would be accessed via the following URL?
A. pNFS
B. WebDAV
C. Cinder
D. Swift
210-451 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which of the following protocols are considered to be “file based”?
A. NFS, FCoE, iSCSI, CIFS
B. iSCSI, NFS, CIFS
C. NFS or CIFS
D. FCoE or NFS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which of the following two storage technologies would require that its’ block device be attached to an instance before you can perform any filesystem commands? (Choose two.)
A. SCSI LUN
B. Cinder Volume
C. NFS Filesystem Meta-Volume
D. Direct Object Block Device
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 20
Which type of zoning is represented? zone name zone1 vsan 10 member pwwn 20:00:00:55:a5:00:00:04 member pwwn
50:00:d3:10:00:18:e1:05 member pwwn 50:00:d3:10:00:18:e1:06
A. Single Initiator Multi Target
B. Multi Initiator Single Target
C. Single Target Single Initiator
D. Multi Initiator Multi Target
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
What are two characteristics of a LUN? (Choose two.)
A. A LUN must be fully comprised of one physical disk
B. A LUN handles file system creation
C. A LUN can be comprised of multiple physical disks
D. A LUN is a unique identifier
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 22
In an Openstack Cloud deployment which has a fibre channel SAN providing the block storage, which two options are valid fibre channel zone member types? (Choose two.)
A. FCID
B. DomainID
C. WWPN
D. OpenStack Volume ID
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 23
Which option describes what the use of no_root_squash does in an NFS environment?
A. It causes the NFS share to be mounted by a non-root user and is required for hypervisors that utilize RBAC for users.
B. It allows a NFS share to be mounted and written to as the root user by the hypervisor.
C. It allows a NFS share to be mounted by root, but all subsequent writes are as a non-root user.
D. It allows a NFS share to be mounted by a non-root user and all subsequent writes are as a non-root user.
210-451 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Which two options are characteristics of NAS? (Choose two.)
A. NAS provides block-based storage only.
B. NAS provides storage and filesystems.
C. NAS requires no authentication.
D. SMB is a protocol that can be used for NAS.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 25
Which /etc/exports line will allow you to enable read-only access from the NFS client 192.168.1.100?
A. /images 192.168.1.100 (ro,async)
B. /images 192.168.1.100 (755,async)
C. /images 192.168.1.1/24 (755,no_root_squash,async)
D. /images 192.168.1.1/27 (ro,async)
210-451 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Refer to the command line display below:
vsan database
vsan 1000 name FCoE
vlan 1000
fcoe vlan 1000
int e1/1
switchport mode trunk
switchport trunk allowed vlan 1000
no shut
int vfc10
bind interface e1/1
switchport trunk allowed vsan 1000
no shut
On which line does the error occur that prevents FCoE from operating correctly in a Cisco Nexus switch?
A. fcoe vlan 1000
B. switchport trunk allowed vsan 1000
C. int vfc10
D. bind interface e1/1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which Cisco product can provide an iSCSI target for an iSCSI initiator?
A. Cisco MDS 9710
B. Cisco Nexus 7010
C. Cisco UCS Invicta
D. Cisco Nexus 9510
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which Cisco product is outside of a Vblock?
A. Cisco Nexus 1k
B. Cisco C-Series UCS
C. Cisco Nexus 3k
D. Cisco UCS Central
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
Which integrated infrastructure rely on OpenStack technology?
A. FlexPod
B. Vblock
C. VSPEX
D. OpenBlocks
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
Which platform is ideally used to orchestrate a FlexPod from a single management platform?
A. Cisco UCS Manager
B. Cisco UCS Director
C. Cisco Prime Cloud Automation Manager
D. Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure Manager
Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 210-451
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals
Q&As: 82

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