Cisco 642-354 Questions And Answers, Real Cisco 642-354 Exams Is What You Need To Take

Nowadays,Flydumps has published the newest Cisco 642-354 exam dumps with free vce test software and pdf dumps,and the latest  Cisco 642-354 question answers ensure you 100% pass and money bcak guarantee.

QUESTION 51
Which three statements describe automatically supported, basic zone features (no additional configuration required) in the Cisco MDS 9000 Family of switches? (Choose three.)
A. A VSAN contains the zone sets.
B. Zone reactivation can disrupt existing traffic.
C. A zone or zone set with the same name can exist in each VSAN.
D. Hard zoning can be disabled.
E. Active zone sets are preserved across switch reboots.
F. Default zoning behavior is to distribute the Full Zone Database.

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
A system administrator suspects possible host/device connectivity problems.The show interface command
displays the fc1/5 interface in VSAN 200 as Administratively Down.
Drag and drop the next troubleshooting commands the administrator should enter in order from top to
bottom.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 53
After performing the initial switch configuration by running the setup utility, an administrator notices that ports configured to connect to other Cisco MDS 9000 switches invariably come up as E_Ports rather than TE_Ports. Which error was made at initial configuration?
A. VSAN capabilities were not enabled.
B. Default switchport trunk mode was set to auto.
C. Full zoneset distribution was not enabled.
D. Default switchport trunk mode was set to on.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
Drag the backup technology on the left to its respective definition on the right.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 55
Host1 and Storage1 are in VSAN 10 and have been communicating successfully. An administrator creates and activates an IVR zoneset enabling Host1 and Storage2 to communicate. Unexpectedly, after this new IVR zoneset is activated, Host1 loses connectivity with Storage1.
Why did this happen?

A. The default zone policy in VSAN 10 is set to permit.
B. The zoneset distribution policy for VSAN 10 is set to full.
C. Standard zones and IVR zones cannot coexist in the same VSAN.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
Which MDS 9000 feature is defined by a standard specification that enables various network monitors and console systems to exchange network-monitoring data?
A. RMON
B. SNMPv3
C. SNMP
D. POST

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
Reference the exhibit.
A customer has lost communication with a host. The customer enters the show interface command for the
port with the host connection. Given the output from the show interface command in the above exhibit,
which steps should the customer perform to continue troubleshooting the port?

A. switch # show vsan membership if the port does not appear in a VSAN switch(config-if)# shutdown switch(config-if)# no shutdown
B. switch# show flogi database vsan 200 if the port does not appear in VSAN 200 switch(config-if)# shutdown switch(config-if)# no shutdown
C. switch# show flogi database if the port does not appear in the FLOGI database switch# debug fcns events register vsan 99 switch(config-if)# shutdown switch(config-if)# no shutdown
D. switch# show environment if the port does not appear in the output switch# debug fcns events register vsan 99 switch(config-if)# shutdown switch(config-if)# no shutdown

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
What is the result of entering the command: switch (config-role-vsan)# permit vsan 15-20?
A. The command adds the permission for this role to perform commands for VSANs 15 through 20. All other configured VSANs in this role would be denied.
B. The command removes the permission for this role to perform commands or VSANs 15 and 20. All other configured VSANs in this role would be permitted.
C. The command removes permission for all VSANs in this role.
D. It is not a valid command since the command must be entered at the switch (config-role-policy-vsan)# level.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
Drag the TCP/IP configuration command on the left to the appropriate result on the right.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 60
What is the default policy when defining role-based access for a VSAN?
A. Deny
B. Permit
C. Permit only for the default VSAN.
D. There is no default role policy for a VSAN.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
An administrator determines that Sender 1 is generating traffic faster than Receiver 1 can process it. To reduce the amount of traffic entering the fabric, the administrator turns on FCC on both switches. What will be the effect of this action if Switch 2 detects congestion caused by excessive traffic being sent from Sender 1 to Receiver 1?

A. Switch 2 will send a quench message to Switch 1, which will use Fibre Channel flow control to reduce ingress traffic at fc1/3.
B. No effect will take place because FCC is only effective if the sender and receiver are on the same switch.
C. Switch 1 will temporarily shut down fc1/3.
D. There will be no effect because FCC quench messages are only sent across TE_Ports and EISLs.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
A customer wants to prioritize only traffic going from pWWN
23:15:00:05:30:00:2a:1f to FCID 0x12ee00.
Which set of commands will classify the appropriate traffic?

A. switch(config)# qos enable switch(config)# qos class-map MyClass switch(config)# qos class-map MyClass match-any switch(config-cmap)# match source-wwn 23:15:00:05:30:00:2a:1f switch(config-cmap)# match destination-address 0x12ee00
B. switch(config)# qos enable switch(config)# qos class-map MyClass switch(config-cmap)# match source-wwn 23:15:00:05:30:00:2a:1f switch(config-cmap)# match destination-address 0x12ee00
C. switch(config)# qos enable switch(config)# qos class-map MyClass switch(config)# qos class-map MyClass match-all switch(config-cmap)# match destination-address 0x12ee00
D. switch(config)# qos enable switch(config)# qos class-map MyClass switch(config)# qos class-map MyClass match-all switch(config-cmap)# match destination-wwn 23:15:00:05:30:00:2a:1f switch(config-cmap)# match destination-address 0x12ee00

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
The output from the switch show interface command indicates that the link from a host comes up as an FL_Port. The switch port is configured as auto. Which three of these HBA configurations could cause this scenario? (Choose three.)
A. the HBA is configured as an N_Port
B. the HBA is configured as an NL_Port
C. the HBA supports only NL mode
D. the HBA is configured as a TE_Port
E. the HBA supports only FC-AL technology
F. the HBA is configured as an TL_Port

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
Which of these protocols supports in-band SAN management?
A. FCIP
B. IPFC
C. FC-SP
D. FCC

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
Drag the Cisco analysis tool on the left to its appropriate description on the right.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 66
What MDS feature can be used to notify an administrator or call center that a serious event has occurred in the fabric?
A. Call Home
B. FCC
C. FLOGI
D. Logging
E. SPAN

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
Reference the exhibit.
After configuring zones, a server no longer has visibility to the storage devices. No ports show as isolated.
The zone set has been activated in the proper VSAN, but the show zoneset active command displays only
the pWWN of the server HBA without its associated storage.

What is the probable cause of the storage not being visible?
A. The storage pwwn 20:00:00:e0:69:41:a0:12 was not added to zone-hr by mistake.
B. The server pwwn 20:00:00:e0:69:41:a0:12 was not added to zone-hr by mistake.
C. A zone name was incorrectly typed as Zone-HR in VSAN 2 and added to ZoneSet1 therefore creating a separate zone containing pwwn 50:00:00:20:37:6f:db:aa.
D. The server 50:00:00:20:37:6f:db:aa was administratively added to Zone-HR in vsan 2 by mistake.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 68
A customer is having performance problems in their SAN. The customer has multiple physical fabrics and would like to track and compare the device read-write I/O and LUN use for the last seven days.
Which group of MDS 9000 tools should the customer acquire and configure?
A. Cisco Fabric Manager, Cisco Performance Manager, Cisco Traffic Analyzer
B. Cisco Fabric Manager Server and Fabric Manager Server License, Cisco Performance Manager, Cisco Traffic Analyzer, PAA
C. Cisco Fabric Manager, Cisco Performance Manager, Cisco Traffic Analyzer, PAA
D. Cisco Fabric Manager Server, Cisco Performance Manager, Cisco Protocol Analyzer, PAA

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
The MDS 9000 family switches use what three technologies to protect against unauthorized management access? (Choose three.)
A. SNMPv3
B. SSH
C. RBAC
D. RMON
E. SES
F. WEBM

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 70
Drag Drop question

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 71
Using the Cisco Fabric Analyzer, which expression will capture and decode the data traffic in a particular VSAN?
A. switch(config)# fcanalyzer local brief display-filter(mdshdr.vsan==0x01)&&((fc.d==\”ff.ff.fe\”\|\|fc.s_id==\”ff.ff.fe\”))
B. switch(config)#fcanalyzer local brief display-filter mdshdr.vsan==0x03e7
C. switch(config)#fcanalyzer local vsan 10
D. Fabric Analyzer does not capture and decode data traffic.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 72
Given a fabric with three different switch vendors, which interop mode must a VSAN be in to interoperate with the other vendor switches?
A. native mode
B. interop mode 1
C. interop mode 2
D. interop mode 3

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 73
Before Call Home can be enabled, which four parameters must be configured? (Choose four.)
A. street address
B. contact person’s phone number
C. contact person’s name (sysContact)
D. interop mode
E. contact person’s e-mail address
F. syslog server address

Correct Answer: ABCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 74
While attempting to add a new Fibre Channel device to port fc7/31, the link fails to initialize. Entering the command show interface fc7/31 returns the following output: fc7/31 is down (Fcot not present). What is the best troubleshooting choice?
A. Verify optical fiber matched with laser type (ex. multimode fiber for shortwave laser and single mode fiber for longwave laser).
B. Verify switch port type is valid for device type.
C. Verify SFP functionality by reseating or replacing.
D. Verify optical fiber continuity with an optical tester.
E. Verify speed configuration on the switch port.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 75
Reference the exhibit. Which option from the Tools menu in the above exhibit would you select to verify connectivity and latency to a Fibre Channel end device?

A. Switch Health
B. Fabric Configuration
C. End to End Connectivity
D. Ping
E. Traceroute

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Flydumps is ready to provide Cisco 642-354 candidates with Cisco 642-354 training materials which can be very much helpful for getting Cisco 640-863 certification, which means that candidates.Cisco 642-354 can easily get access to the services of Cisco 642-354 for practice exam,which will assure them 100% Cisco 642-354 success rate.Though Cisco 642-354 tests are not easy at all, but they do not make Cisco 642-354 things complicated.

Cisco 640-816 Practise Questions, Helpful Cisco 640-816 Vce & PDF Guaranteed Success

Flydumps Cisco 640-816 exam questions which contain almost 100% correct answers are tested and approved by senior Cisco lecturers and experts.They have been devoting themselves to providing candidates with the best study materials to make sure what they get are valuable.Get a complete hold on Cisco 640-816 brain dumps on Flydumps,you will pass the exam absolutely.

QUESTION 50
The corporate LAN shown in the Certkiller network uses IP network 172.28.4.0/22 for all departments. All workstations use 172.28.4.1 as a default gateway address.

In this network, administrators have recently become concerned that excessive broadcasts are slowing network performance. Which change is most likely to reduce broadcast traffic on the corporate LAN?
A. Configure an access control list on the router to prevent broadcast forwarding.
B. Configure each NIC and switch port to operate at full duplex.
C. Change the router-to-switch connection from Fast Ethernet to Gigabit Ethernet.
D. Implement VLANs after creating IP subnets for each department.
E. Increase the number of switches in the network closet of each department.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
The Certkiller LAN is displayed below:

A technician is investigating a problem with the exhibited network. These symptoms have been observed:
1.
None of the user hosts can access the Internet.

2.
None of the user hosts can access the server in VLAN 9.

3.
Host A can ping Host B.

4.
Host A CANNOT ping Host C or Host D.

5.
Host C can ping Host D. What could cause these symptoms?
A. Interface S0/0 on the router is down.
B. Interface Fa1/0 on the router is down.
C. Interface Fa0/5 on Certkiller 3 is down.
D. Certkiller 1 is turned off.
E. Certkiller 3 is turned off.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 52
Which of the following steps are necessary in order to add a new VLAN to the Certkiller switched network? (Select all that apply)
A. Create the VLAN.
B. Name the VLAN.
C. Configure an IP address for the VLAN.
D. Add the desired ports to the new VLAN.
E. Add the VLAN to the VTP domain.
Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 53
You need to create a new VLAN on your Catalyst switch. This VLAN is to be named Certkiller . Which of the following need to be completed for the creation of this new VLAN? (Select all that apply)
A. The Certkiller VLAN must be created.
B. The desired ports must be added to the new Certkiller VLAN.
C. The Certkiller VLAN must be added to all of the domains.
D. The Certkiller VLAN must be named.
E. An IP address must be configured for the Certkiller VLAN.
F. None of the above. VLAN creations are automatic.

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 54
What must the Certkiller network administrator do in order to successfully configure a VLAN trunk between two switches named CK1 and CK2 ? (Select two answer choices)
A. Set each end of the trunk line to IEEE 802.1Q encapsulation.
B. Set the same VTP management domain name on both switches.
C. Set all ports on the two switched as access ports.
D. Configure one of the two switches as a VTP server.
E. Connect the two switches using a rollover cable.
F. Use a router to forward VTP traffic between the VLANs.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 55
After connecting a PC to an available port on a switch, you find that the PC can not access any of the resources on the LAN. No other PC’s connected to the switch appear to be having any issues. What is the most likely cause for this problem?
A. The router lacks a routing table entry for the new host
B. The host switch port is assigned to the incorrect VLAN
C. The host MAC address is incorrectly configured
D. A STP instance for the new host has not been initialized
E. The switch does not have the MAC address hard coded in the CAM table.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 56
The Certkiller network administrator needs to verify that switch interface 0/5 has been assigned to the Marketing VLA.N. Which command will accomplish this task?
A. Show vlan
B. Show mac-address-table
C. Show vtp status
D. show spanning-tree root
E. show ip interface brief
F. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 57
Exhibit: Please study the exhibit shown above carefully. The Certkiller switch that generated this output has 24 ports. Why are some of the ports missing from VLAN1?

A. The missing ports are in VLAN 86.
B. The missing ports are administratively disabled.
C. The missing ports are not participating in spanning tree.
D. The missing ports are configured as trunk ports.
E. The missing ports have a status problem such as a speed or duplex mismatch.
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
You need to configure VLANs on some new Cisco switches in the Certkiller network. Which two statements describe the Cisco implementation of VLANs? (Select two)
A. VLANs 1002 through 1005 are automatically created and cannot be deleted.
B. VLAN 1 is the default Ethernet VLAN.
C. By default, the switch IP address is in VLAN 1005.
D. CDP advertisments are only sent on VLAN 1002.
E. VLAN 100 is the default Ethernet VLAN.

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 59
Exhibit:

You configure a new Certkiller switch as shown. Which two statements about the configuration of this switch interface are correct? (Select two)
A. A network host can be connected to this interface.
B. The switchport belongs only to VLAN 2.
C. The exhibit shows interface fa0/0 to be dynamically mapped to VLAN 2.
D. Interface fa0/0 will be in both VLAN 1 (by default) and VLAN 2.
E. This command is invalid as all access ports must reside in VLAN1.

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 60
A new trunk has been configured on a switch in the Certkiller LAN. By default, which VLANs are allowed over this trunk link?
A. No VLANs
B. Only the VLANs that are specified when creating the trunk
C. Only VLANs 1-64
D. All VLANs
E. All VLAN’s except VLAN 1
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 61
The Certkiller network administrator has just issued the “switchport trunk native vlan 998” command on switch CK2 . What is the function of this command?
A. It designates VLAN 998 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic
B. It designates VLAN 998 for untagged traffic
C. It blocks VLAN 998 traffic from passing on the trunk
D. It creates a VLAN 998 interface
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 62
Part of the Certkiller switched LAN is shown in the following exhibit:

As a network associate for Certkiller , you need to configure the switches and router in the graphic shown above so that the hosts in VLAN3 and VLAN4 can communicate with the enterprise server ( Certkiller E) in VLAN2. To accomplish this, which two Ethernet segments would need to be configured as trunk links? (Choose two)
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
F. F
Correct Answer: CF
QUESTION 63
You are bringing up a new Certkiller switch, and wish to connect it via a trunk to another switch from a different vendor, which uses the IEEE standard for the trunking method. When setting the encapsulation type on the trunk, what should you configure on the Cisco switch?
A. Switch(config)# switchport trunk encapsulation isl
B. Switch(config)# switchport trunk encapsulation ietf
C. Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation isl
D. Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation ietf
E. Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 64
A new switch is being installed in the Certkiller network and you have been assigned the task of connecting it to an existing switch. In doing this, you want to set up the VLAN Trunking Protocol so that VLAN information can be passed between the switches. Which of the following must you do to accomplish this? (Choose all that apply).
A. You must set each end of the trunk line to IEEE 802.1e encapsulation.
B. You must set the same VTP management domain name on both switches.
C. You must set all ports on the two switches as access ports.
D. You must configure one of the switches as a VTP server.
E. You must use a rollover cable to connect the two switches.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 65
A new Certkiller switch is installed into an existing LAN and a new VTP trunk is set up with an existing switch. Which VLANs will be allowed on this new trunk?
A. All defined VLANs are allowed on the trunk by default.
B. Each VLAN, or VLAN range, that is specified with the switchport mode command.
C. Each VLAN, or VLAN range, that is specified with the vtp domain command.
D. Each VLAN, or VLAN range, that is specified with the vlan database command.
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 66
You need to decide on which trunking method to implement in the Certkiller network. What is a characteristic of ISL and 802.1q frame tagging in a switched LAN environment?
A. They are used to find the best path through a network.
B. They allow the exchange of filtering tables.
C. They specify different implementations of the Spanning-Tree Protocol.
D. They allow the exchange of routing tables
E. They provide inter-switch VLAN communication.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 67
Which one of the following protocols allows the information about the configuration of a new VLAN to be distributed across entire switched network?
A. STP
B. VTP
C. EIGRP
D. SNMP
E. CDP
F. None of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 68
Which encapsulation types are configurable on a Cisco switch for a trunk? (Select two answer choices)
A. VTP
B. ISL
C. CDP
D. 802.1Q
E. 802.1p

F. LLC
G. IETF
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 69
You need to configure an 802.1Q link on a Certkiller switch. Which commands, when used together, would do this? (Select two answer choices)
A. Switch(vlan)# mode trunk
B. Switch(config)# switchport access mode trunk
C. Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
D. Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
E. Switch(config)# switchport access mode 1
F. Switch(vlan)# trunk encapsulation dot1q

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 70
Which of the following are VLAN frame encapsulation types that may be configured on a Catalyst switch? (Choose two.)
A. VTP
B. ISL
C. CDP
D. 802.1Q
E. 802.1p

F. LLC
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 71
There are 2 switches in the Certkiller LAN, with no routers. Ports 1, 2 & 3 are assigned to VLAN 1 in switch 1 and 2 and ports 4, 5 & 6 are assigned to VLAN 2 in both switches. These two switches are connected together via a trunked link. Which of the conditions below would verify trunk and VLAN operation? (Select all valid answers)
A. Host 1 on VLAN 1 can ping Host 2 on VLAN 1
B. Host 1 on VLAN 1 can ping Host 4 on VLAN 2
C. Host 1 on VLAN 1 can not ping Host 2 on VLAN 1
D. Host 4 on VLAN 2 can not ping Host 1 on VLAN 1
E. Host 4 on VLAN 2 can ping Host 2 on VLAN 2

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 72
Two Certkiller switches are connected as shown below:

Please study the exhibit carefully. Configuration of both switches has been completed. During testing, the network administrator notices that users on SwitchA can not connect with users in the same VLAN on SwitchB. What should be done to solve this problem?
A. Ensure that the IP address of SwitchA is on the same network as the IP address of SwitchB.
B. Ensure that the same interface number is used to connect both switches.
C. Ensure that the ports connecting the two switches are configured to trunk.
D. Ensure that SwitchA and SwitchB are connected with a straight-through cable.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 73
The Certkiller network is displayed in the diagram below:

A network associate is trying to understand the operation of the Certkiller network by studying the graphic.
All hosts are able to reach the enterprise server on VLAN4. The associate needs to determine which
interfaces are functioning as a trunk ports.
Which of the interfaces are trunks? (Choose two)

A. Switch1 – Fa0/2
B. Switch1 – Fa0/9
C. Switch2 – Fa0/3
D. Switch2 – Fa0/4
E. Switch2 – Fa0/6
F. Router – Fa1/0

Correct Answer: BF QUESTION 74
Network topology exhibit:

Certkiller 3 configuration exhibit:

Certkiller 4 configuration exhibit:

You work as a network administrator at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibits carefully. Certkiller connects two different office segments, supporting two VLANs through the two switches shown in the exhibit. Inter-VLAn communications is not required. The network is working properly and there is full connectivity. Certkiller needs to add additional VLANs, so it has been decided to implement VTP. Both switches are configured as VTP servers in the same VTP domain. VLANs added to Certkiller 3 are not learned by Certkiller 4. Based on this information and the partial configurations in the exhibit, what is the problem?
A. STP has blocked one of the links between the switches, limiting connectivity.
B. Certkiller 4 should be configured as a VTP client.
C. The links between the switches are access links.
D. VTP is Cisco proprietary and requires a different trunking encapsulation.
E. A router is required to route VTP advertisements between the switches.
F. None of the above.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 75
Two Certkiller hosts reside in different VLANs as shown below:

The Certkiller network shown in the diagram above is experiencing connectivity problems. Which of the following will correct the problems? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the gateway on Host Certkiller A as 10.1.1.1
B. Configure the IP Address of Host Certkiller B as 10.1.2.2
C. Configure the IP Address of Host Certkiller A as 10.1.2.2
D. Configure the gateway on host Certkiller B as 10.1.2.254

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 76
A Certkiller network is shown below:

Based on the information shown above, what commands must be configured on the Certkiller switch and the router to allow communication between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two)
A. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config-if)# no shut down
B. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# no shutdown Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.1 Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2 Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 20 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
C. Router(config)# router eigrp 100 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.20.0
D. Switch1(config)# vlan database Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp domain XYZ Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp server
E. Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
F. Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1 Switch1(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 77
Two Certkiller devices are connected as shown below:

The Certkiller network administrator needs to add a new VLAN, named VLAN3, to the network shown above. Unfortunately, there is not another FastEthernet interface on CK1 to connect to the new VLAN3. Which approach is the most cost effective solution for this problem?
A. Purchase a new FastEthernet module and install it on CK1 .
B. Replace CK1 with a new router that has at least three FastEthernet interfaces.
C. Configure a second switch to support VLAN3 with a VLAN trunk between SW1 and the new switch.
D. Configure a single VLAN trunk between CK1 and SW1 and configure a subinterface on the CK1 interface for each VLAN.
E. Connect another router to a serial interface of CK1 . Use a FastEthernet interface on the new router for VLAN3.
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 78
The Certkiller Network consists of a router, switch, and hub as shown below:

In accordance with the above diagram; which of the statements below correctly describe the switch port configuration and the router port configurations? (Select three answer choices)
A. The Certkiller 1 WAN port is configured as a trunking port.
B. The Certkiller 1 port connected to Switch1 is configured using subinterfaces.
C. The Certkiller 1 port connected to Switch1 is configured as 10 Mbps.
D. The Switch1 port connected to Certkiller 1 is configured as a trunking port.
E. The Switch1 port connected to Host B is configured as an access port.
F. The switch1 port connected to Hub1 is configured as full duplex.
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 79

A Certkiller router is configured as shown in the graphic above. The switch is connected to the router over
a VLAN trunk. The switch has been configured with three VLANs: VLAN1, VLAN2, and VLAN3. In addition,
the IP address of the switch is 192.168.1.2. A host is being added to the switch on VLAN 2.
What is the correct default gateway for this computer?

A. 192.168.1.1
B. 192.168.1.2
C. 192.168.2.1
D. 192.168.2.2
E. 192.168.3.1
F. 192.168.3.2
G. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 80
A portion of the Certkiller network is displayed below:

Host A in the graphic is connected to a switch port assigned to VLAN 1. Which two settings on host A are required to allow connectivity with Host B on VLAN 2? (Choose two)
A. IP address: 192.1.1.66 255.255.255.240
B. IP address: 192.1.1.130 255.255.255.192
C. IP address: 192.1.1.142 255.255.255.240
D. Default gateway: 192.1.1.129
E. Default gateway: 192.1.1.65
F. Default gateway: 192.1.1.1

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 81
Part of the Certkiller WAN is shown below:

Certkiller 2 configuration exhibit:

In this network segment, the Certkiller network administrator has created a new VLAN on Certkiller 1 and added host Certkiller C and host Certkiller D. This administrator has properly configured switch interfaces FastEthernet0/13 through FastEthernet0/24 to be members of the new VLAN. However, after the network administrator completed the configuration, host Certkiller A could communicate with host Certkiller B, but host Certkiller A could not communicate with host Certkiller C or host Certkiller D. Which commands are required to resolve this problem?
A. Certkiller 2(config)# router rip Certkiller 2(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 Certkiller 2(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 Certkiller 2(config-router)# network 192.168.3.0
B. Certkiller 2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1.3 Certkiller 2(config-if)# encapsulation dot1q 3 Certkiller 2(config-if)# ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0
C. Certkiller 1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 Certkiller 1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk Certkiller 1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation isl
D. Certkiller 1# vlan database Certkiller 1(vlan)# vtp v2-mode Certkiller 1(vlan)# vtp domain Certkiller Certkiller 1(vlan)# vtp server
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 82
Part of the Certkiller network is shown below: Based on the information provided above, which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in this Certkiller network segment? (Choose two)

A. Router Certkiller 3 and Switch Certkiller 2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
B. Host Certkiller E and host Certkiller F use the same IP gateway address.
C. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router Certkiller 3 and Switch Certkiller 2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.
D. Router Certkiller 3 will not play a role in communications between host Certkiller A and host Certkiller
D.
E. Router Certkiller 3 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router Certkiller 3 must be configured using subinterfaces.

Correct Answer: CF
QUESTION 83
The Certkiller network administrator cannot connect to Switch CK1 over a Telnet session, although the hosts attached to Switch CK1 can ping the interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given the information shown below and assuming that the router and Switch2 are configured properly, which of the following commands should be issued on Switch CK1 to correct this problem? Exhibit:

A. Switch CK1 (config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.24.1
B. Switch CK1 (config)# interface fa0/1 Switch CK1 (config-if)# ip address 192.168.24.3 255.255.255.0
C. Switch CK1 (config)# line con0 Switch CK1 (config-line)# password cisco
Switch CK1 (config-line)#login
D. Switch CK1 (config)# interface fa0/1 Switch CK1 (config-if)# duplex full Switch CK1 (config-if)# speed 100
E. Switch CK1 (config)# interface fa0/1 Switch CK1 (config-if)# switchport mode trunk
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 84
The Certkiller network administrator has issued the “VTP password Certkiller ” command on a Cisco device. What is the purpose of this command?
A. It allows two VTP servers to exists in the same domain, each configured with different passwords
B. It is the password required when promoting a switch from VTP client mode to VTP server mode
C. It is used to access the VTP server to make changes to the VTP configuration
D. It is used to validate the sources of VTP advertisements sent between switches
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: D

Each Answers in Cisco 640-816 study guides are checked by the concerned professional to provide you the best quality dumps. If you are looking to get certified in short possible time, you will never find quality product than Flydumps.com.

Cisco 640-811 Try Free Demo, Sale Best Cisco 640-811 Exam Practice PDF On Sale

Are you interested in successfully completing the Cisco 640-811 certification then start to earning the high salary? Flydumps.com has leading edge developed test questions that will ensure you pass your exams! Flydumps.com provides the latest Cisco 640-811 Dumps to help you pass you Cisco 640-811 exam.

QUESTION 51
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is troubleshooting a connectivity problem on R2. The technician enters the show cdp neighbors command at the R2 console. If the network is composed only of Cisco devices, for which devices should entries be displayed?

A. R1
B. SW-B and R1
C. SW-B, R1, and SW-C
D. R3, SW-B, R1, and SW-C
E. SW-A, R3, SW-B, R1, and SW-C
F. Host A, SW-A, R3, SW-B, R1, and SW-C

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 52
A network administrator issues the ping 192.168.2.5 command and successfully tests connectivity to a host that has been newly connected to the network. Which protocols were used during the test? (Choose two.)
A. ARP
B. CDP
C. DHCP
D. DNS
E. ICMP

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 53
Refer to the exhibit. A technician has configured the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Sw11 as an access link in VLAN 1. Based on the output from the show vlan brief command issued on Sw12, what will be the result of making this change on Sw11?

A. Only the hosts in VLAN 1 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
B. The hosts in all VLANs on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
C. Only the hosts in VLAN 10 and VLAN 15 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
D. Hosts will not be able to communicate between the two switches.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 54
Refer to the exhibit. A technician has installed SwitchB and needs to configure it for remote access from the management workstation connected to SwitchA. Which set of commands is required to accomplish this task?

A. SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1 SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
B. SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1 SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0 witchB(config-if)# no shutdown
C. SwitchB(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1 SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
D. SwitchB(config)# ip default-network 192.168.8.254 SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

E. SwitchB(config)# ip route 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1 SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 55
The network administrator has configured NAT as shown in the graphic. Clients still cannot access the Internet. What should the network administrator do to resolve this problem?

A. Configure an IP NAT address pool.
B. Properly configure the ACL.
C. Apply the ip nat command to the S0 interface.
D. Configure the ip nat inside and ip nat outside commands on the interfaces.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
Drag Drop A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 57
Refer to the output of the two show commands in the exhibit. If an administrator tries to ping host 10.1.8.5 from host 10.1.6.100, how will the ICMP packets be processed by Router A?

A. The packets will be discarded.
B. The packets will be routed out the S0/0 interface.
C. The packets will be routed out the S0/1 interface.
D. The packets will be routed out the Fa0/0 interface.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
Drag Drop A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 59
Refer to the exhibit. How can a network administrator ensure that the STP election process would result in Switch B being elected as the root switch?

A. Clear the Switch B STP revision number.
B. Assign Switch B a low priority number.
C. Increase the Switch B priority number.
D. Change the MAC address of Switch B.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 60
A network associate is trying to understand the operation of the FLD Corporation by studying the network in the exhibit. The associate knows that the server in VLAN 4 provides the necessary resources to support the user hosts in the other VLANs. The associate needs to determine which interfaces are access ports. Which interfaces are access ports? (Choose three.)

A. Switch1 – Fa 0/2
B. Switch1 – Fa 0/9
C. Switch2 – Fa 0/3
D. Switch2 – Fa 0/4
E. Switch2 – Fa 0/8
F. Router – Fa 1/0

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 61
What is the media access method used by Gigabit Ethernet?
A. CSMA/CA
B. CSMA/CD
C. token passing
D. point-to-point
E. logical link control

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 62
Which of the following statements are true regarding the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4? (Choose two.)
A. The command is used to establish a static route.
B. The default administrative distance is used.
C. The command is used to configure the default route.
D. The subnet mask for the source address is 255.255.255.0.
E. The command is used to establish a stub network.

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 63
The company internetwork is subnetted using 29 bits. Which wildcard mask should be used to configure an extended access list to permit or deny access to an entire subnetwork?
A. 255.255.255.224
B. 255.255.255.248
C. 0.0.0.224
D. 0.0.0.8
E. 0.0.0.7
F. 0.0.0.3

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 64
Refer to the topology and partial router configurations shown in the exhibit. The network is fully operational and all routing tables are converged. Which route will appear in the output of the show ip route command issued on the Branch router?

A. S* 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 192.168.10.82
B. R 172.16.11.4/30 [120/1] via 192.168.10.82, 00:00:22, Serial0/0
C. R 192.168.10.80/30 [120/0] via 192.168.10.81, 00:00:22, Serial0/0
D. R 192.168.11.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.10.81, 00:00:22, Serial0/0
E. C 192.168.12.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 65
Which wild card mask will enable a network administrator to permit access to the Internet for only hosts that are assigned an address in the range of 192.168.8.0 through 192.168.15.255?
A. 0.0.0.0
B. 0.0.0.255
C. 0.0.255.255
D. 0.0.7.255
E. 0.0.3.255

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 66
Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct addressing for a frame and packet received by Host B from Host A?

A. Destination MAC: 0011.43da.2c98 Source MAC: 0070.0e8f.088a Destination IP: 192.168.60.5 Source IP: 192.168.24.5
B. Destination MAC: 0011.43da.2c98 Source MAC: 00b0.d0ef.5f6a Destination IP: 192.168.60.5 Source IP: 192.168.24.5
C. Destination MAC: 0011.43da.2c98 Source MAC: 0070.0e8f.088a Destination IP: 192.168.60.5 Source IP: 192.168.60.1
D. Destination MAC: 0011.43da.2c98 Source MAC: 0070.0e97.af4e Destination IP: 192.168.60.5 Source IP: 192.168.60.2

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 67
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the entire network topology is shown, what is the operational status of the interfaces of R2 as indicated by the command output shown?

A. One interface has a problem.
B. Two interfaces have problems.
C. The interfaces are functioning correctly.
D. The operational status of the interfaces cannot be determined from the output shown.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 68
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the router is configured with the default settings, what type of router interface is this?

A. Ethernet
B. FastEthernet
C. Gigabit Ethernet
D. asynchronous serial
E. synchronous serial

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 69
The show interfaces serial 0/0 command resulted in the output shown in the graphic. What are possible causes for this interface status? (Choose three.)

A. The interface is shut down.
B. No keepalive messages are received.
C. The clockrate is not set.
D. No loopback address is set.
E. No cable is attached to the interface.
F. There is a mismatch in the encapsulation type.

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 70
Refer to the exhibit. A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the exhibit. Which subnet mask should be used to provide valid IP addresses for the number of hosts connected to router A, while wasting the fewest addresses?

A. /24
B. /25
C. /26
D. /27
E. /28
F. /29

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 71
The EIGRP configuration in the Glencoe router uses a single network statement. From the output shown in the graphic, which network statement would advertise these networks in EIGRP?

A. network 172.26.168.128 0.0.0.127
B. network 172.26.168.128 area 478
C. network 172.26.0.0
D. network 172.26.168.0 area 478

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 72
The exhibited network is stable and operating properly. Assuming that default STP configurations are running on both switches, which port will be in blocking mode?

A. Port Fa0/1 on Switch1
B. Port Fa0/2 on Switch1
C. Port Fa0/1 on Switch2
D. Port Fa0/2 on Switch2

Correct Answer: A

Flydumps.com practice test training resources are versatile and highly compatible with Microsoft exam formats. We provide up to date resources and comprehensive coverage on Cisco 640-811 exam dumps help you to advance your skills

Polycom 1k0-002 Self Study, Helpful IBM Polycom 1k0-002 Certification Material Provider Is What You Need To Take

Attention Please:Professional new version Polycom 1k0-002 PDF and VCE dumps can now free download on Flydumps.com,all are updated timely by our experts covering all Polycom 1k0-002 new questions and questions.100 percent pass your exam.

QUESTION 37
UDP Media Channels are identified by
A. 32 bit Source Port Number and 32 bit Destination Port Number.
B. 48 bit MCU Number and the 32 bit Gateway Number.
C. V35 Port and RS449 Port.
D. None of the other alternatives apply..
E. 16 bit Source Port Number and 16 bit Destination Port Number.
F. 32 bit Address or Signaling Port and ISDN Port Number.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 38
The scope of H.225 Standard describes
A. video and audio coders for H.323.
B. the Coding Operation details for video and audio.
C. channel bandwidth sub-division.
D. the means by which audio, video, data, and control are associated, coded, and channelized for transport between H.320 equipment on a channel network.
E. the means by which audio, video, data, and control are associated, coded, and packetized for transport between H.323 equipment on a packet-based network.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 39
The T.127 and T.128 ITU-T Standards are used for which two functions?
A. Video and Audio Switching and Routing.
B. Scan Converter Application
C. Sharing Windows Applications
D. White Boarding Application
E. Multipoint File Transfer Application
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 40
What are the termination impedance and the signal level for PAL video?
A. 75 Ohms and 1Vpp
B. 50 Ohms and 2Vrms
C. 75 Ohms and 1Vrms
D. 50 Ohms and 1Vpp

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
Clocking Hierarchy for Channel Networks from the Public Network to the customer premise station equipment is as follows:
A. Master Clock / Nodal Clock / Local Clock / Recovered Clock
B. Master Clock / Nodal Clock / Recovered Clock / Local Clock
C. Master Clock / Local Clock / Recovered Clock / Nodal Clock
D. Recovered Clock / Nodal Clock / Master Clock

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 42
E1 trunks are capable of supporting up to
A. 5 – 384,000 bit per second connections.
B. 7 – 384,000 bit per second connections.
C. 6 – 384,000 bit per second connections.
D. 4 – 384,000 bit per second connections.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
Which of the following best describes 64,000 bits per second?
A. DS0
B. CEPT1
C. DS1
D. DS3
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
Gatekeeper messages for registration and admission that are successful will always have the Generic
structure as:
(Note – “XX” – is a variable value that represents specific Gatekeeper names)

A. RequestXX, DenyXXC
B. RequestXX, ReplyXX
C. XXRequest, XXConfirm
D. XXRequest, XXAcnowledged
E. XXRequest, XXReply
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
Which test equipment is used to verify ISDN Q.931 messages?
A. Break out Box
B. Protocol Analyzer
C. Bit Error Rate Test set
D. Distortion Analyzer
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
Which of the following describe video dynamics as processed through a videoconference system?
A. Codecs have more restrictive limits than cameras, and the best way to accurately assess the video quality sent to the far-end is to view a video scene fully coded and then decoded.
B. Codecs have the same limits as cameras and therefore will not change the perceived qualities of the video as rendered by the cameras.
C. Cameras react to light the same as ones eye and video monitors accurately render the video information so what one sees by eye is what the far-end sees.
D. Cameras have limits to the range of light levels which can be accommodated and tend to process the darker regions further toward black than what ones eye sees.

Correct Answer: AD

Polycom 1k0-002 tests containing questions that cover all sides of tested subjects that help our members to be prepared and keep high level of professionalism. The main purpose of Polycom 1k0-002 exam is to provide high quality test that can secure and verify knowledge, give overview of question types and complexity that can be represented on real exam certification

Cisco 642-780 Exam Download, Latest Updated Cisco 642-780 Questions Online Shop

Flydumps Cisco 642-780 exam questions and answers in PDF are prepared by our expert, Moreover, they are based on the recommended syllabus covering all the Cisco 642-780 exam objectives. You will find them to be very helpful and precise in the subject matter since all the Cisco 642-780 exam content is regularly updated and has been checked for accuracy by our team of Microsoft expert professionals.

QUESTION 51
What does this Cease Notification Syslog message indicate? May 19.12.43.45 CET: % BGP-3-NOTIFICATION: received from neighbor 10.1.2.3 6/1 (cease) 0 bytes.
A. The port is shut down
B. The connection was rejected
C. BGP became disabled
D. The maximum number of prefixes was reached
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
You want to collect net flow-related information from your core links. You also want label switch traffic to be included in the information collected by NetFlow. You have MPLS, MPLS VPN, and protected TE tunnel in your core. How many labels should NetFlow analyze to collect information for all types of MPLS applications used in your core network?
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-780
A. Two labels
B. Three labels
C. four labels
D. five labels

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
When MPLS layer 3 VPN services are implemented, what is the function of the VRF table?
A. The VRF table determines the pseudowire virtual circuits used to for forward labeled packets
B. Multiple VRF instances are used to isolate potently overlapping routing and forwarding information for VPNs.
C. VRF tables are used to translate IP routing prefixes
D. OSPF and IS-IS routing prefixes are MAPPED to there corresponding MPLS labeled prefixes in the VRF table. The prefixes are used by the PE to map forwarded packets between MPLS and NON-MPLS circuits

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
Which cisco IOS command should be used to verify that frames are being forwarded on a VC by an egress PE?
A. Show MPLS forwarding tables
B. Show MPLS interface forwarding
C. Show 12 VPN counters forwarding session
D. Show 12 VPN counters forwarding statistics

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 55
Your company has decided to deploy a MPLS network with VPNs. The customer that will be using the network is demanding service level agreements with your company. How can you monitor the SLAs for violations?
A. RMON
B. Event management system
C. Asset management system
D. CNR
E. IP SLA Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-780

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
Which command should be used to verify that IS-IS has been properly configured to support MPLS TE?
A. Show mpls isis traffic-eng advertisements
B. Show isis mpls traffic-eng adjacency-log
C. Show isis mpls traffic-eng advertisements
D. Show isis mpls traffic-eng tunnel
E. Show mpls isis traffic-eng adjacency-log

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
Which statement about LSP ping is true?
A. LSP ping access ICMP packets
B. A successful LSP ping ensures that the echo-reply are labled
C. If an IP ping exceeds, than an LSP ping succeed if MPLS is enabled along the path
D. A successful LSP ping validates reachability to the destination along the MPLS data plane

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
What does the auto tunnel template interface configure?
A. MPLS TE tunnel mesh groups
B. Virtual private LAN services
C. MPLS VPN VRF instances
D. MP-BGP peering
E. LDP tunnels
F. MPLS TE tunnel dynamic route

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
You have been asked to compare parameters of layer 2 MPLS vpn services at two remote ends using the show mpls 12 binding command What three items of relevant information should you use to ensure that layer two VPN parameters are configured correctly? (Choose three)
A. Local and remote labels
B. Encapsulation Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-780
C. VC type
D. VCCV
E. VC ID
F. MTU

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
Refer to the exhibit.

While configuring the customer access link is cisco IOS XR software. What must be done when assigning an interface to the VRF?
A. Configure the neighbor LDP before accessing the interface to the VRF
B. Configure the IP address to the interface before assigning the interface to the VRF
C. Remove the customer access link before assigning the interface to the VRF
D. Remove any address configuring before assigning the interface to the VRF

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
Refer to the exhibit.
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-780

With this template configured and applied to cisco XR 12000series Router, could a CPE device use the traceroute command to reveal the core network?
A. Yes, traceroute is not disabled.
B. Yes, discovery targeted-hello accept allows it
C. No it is disabled with mpls ip-ttl-propagate disable
D. No, session protection stops traceroute
E. Only if traceroute mpls was used
F. Only if traceroute 6 was used

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
What function does the penultimate LSR perform to help optimize MPLS?
A. Pops the label before packet reaches the PE router
B. Restore the original ingress settings to the EXP field
C. Ensure that the LSP is Taking the shortest path
D. Verifies that there are no loops in the path

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
Refer to the exhibit.
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-780

The partial show run command out put is from PE router that provides MPLS VPN services to customer_1. What is the routing protocol and AS number used between the PE router and customer_1 CE router?
A. BGP AS 65001
B. Multiprotocol BGP
C. EIGRP AS 10
D. EIGRP AS 20

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
Refer to the exhibit.

You are troubleshooting a connectivity problem between the CE routers in your network running IS-IS. You login to one of the routers and execute a show log. What is the problem associated with these message?
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-780
A. Protocol mismatch
B. Mismatch area ID
C. Mismatch MTU size
D. Mismatch of features
E. Wrong ip address applied

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
What minimum commands are necessary to initiate MPLS on a cisco IOS router?
A. In global configuration mode, execute the mpls ip command
B. In global configuration mode, execute the mpls ip command on every participating interface.
C. In global configuration mode, execute the mpls ip command. Interface configuration mode executes the mpls ip command on every participating interface.
D. In global configuration mode, execute the mpls ip command in Mpls configuration mode specifies each participating interface using the interface interface command.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Build Your Dreams
QUESTION 66
Refer to the exhibit.
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-780 The commands were exceeded on the cisco XR 12000 PE. Which statement is true?

A. The outer label for prefix 10.22.22.22 is 143989.
B. The outer label for prefix 10.22.22.22 is 16000.
C. The outer label for prefix 10.22.22.22 is implNull.
D. Prefix 10.22.22.22 has no outer label.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
DRAG DROP Refer to Exhibit. MPLS-TE is configured in the core and BFD is used for faster link failure detection. Currently the MPLS-TE tunnels are flapping. Identify the Symptom of the flapping, the root cause of the issue, and the resolution. Click and drag the elements on the left to the correct identifier on the right. It is possible that you will not use all the elements.
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-780
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 68
Refer to the exhibit.
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-780

Is nonstop forwarding enabled or disabled, and which part of show command can be used to determine this?
A. Enabled, graceful-restart
B. Enabled, session protection
C. Disabled, graceful-restart
D. Disabled, session protection

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
What are three basic functional requirements when configuring MPLS layer 2 VPLS? (Choose three)
A. A CE to PE routing protocol must be used to exchange routing prefixes Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-780
B. A full mesh of pseudowire (emulated VC) connections must be used between PE routers
C. Each PE must have a VFI configured
D. LDP protocol must be running
E. Auto discovery is needed to identify endpoints outside of the VPLS domain.

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 70
A cisco 7600 series Router is experiencing high CPU utilization and poor forwarding performance. Investigation reveals that packet forwarding has been punted to the RP. What are two possible causes of this behavior? (Choose two)
A. The routing table is too large
B. Liberal retention mode has been disabled
C. An insufficient number of flow masks are configured
D. A large number of access list entries are configured
E. IGP timers need to be returned to improve routing convergence

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 71
DRAG DROP Refer to Exhibit. MPLS-TE is configured in the core and BFD is used for faster link failure detection. Currently the MPLS-TE tunnels are flapping. Identify the Symptom of the flapping, the root cause of the issue, and the resolution. Click and drag the elements on the left to the correct identifier on the right. It is possible that you will not use all the elements.
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-780
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 72
You have designed and implemented MPLS-TE for fast router in your network core. Your network core consists of Cisco CRS-1 carrier routing System devices interconnected using XDM and Sonet Transport. You are using OSPF as the IGP, and MP-BGP is running on the PE devices to support Layer 3 VPN services. You are offering voice service over VPN circuits. So you want a link convergence of no greater than 100ms. Which option should you use for faster link failure detection and to improve the performance of your network?
A. Use OSPF fast hello packets with dead-interval and hello multiplier
B. Reduce MP-BGP hello timers between the neighbors
C. Configure MPLS-TE tunnels with the dynamic backup option
D. Configure MPLS-TE tunnels to autoroute announce Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-780
E. Configure BFD on the core links with the appropriate BFD multiplier.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 73
What does this Cease Notification Syslog message indicate? May 19.12.43.45 CET: % BGP-3-NOTIFICATION: received from neighbor 10.1.2.3 6/1 (cease) 0 bytes.
A. The port is shut down
B. The connection was rejected
C. BGP became disabled
D. The maximum number of prefixes was reached

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 74
Which command should be used to verify that IS-IS has been properly configured to support MPLS TE?
A. Show mpls isis traffic-eng advertisements
B. Show isis mpls traffic-eng adjacency-log
C. Show isis mpls traffic-eng advertisements
D. Show isis mpls traffic-eng tunnel
E. Show mpls isis traffic-eng adjacency-log

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 75
Refer to the exhibit.
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-780 With this template configured and applied to cisco XR 12000series Router, could a CPE device use the traceroute command to reveal the core network?

A. Yes, traceroute is not disabled.
B. Yes, discovery targeted-hello accept allows it
C. No it is disabled with mpls ip-ttl-propagate disable
D. No, session protection stops traceroute
E. Only if traceroute mpls was used
F. Only if traceroute 6 was used

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 76
Refer to the exhibit.
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-780 What type of MPLS LAYER 3 VPN configurations is represented?

A. Simple two-VPN scenario
B. Overlapping VPNs
C. Central services VPNs
D. Extranet VPNs

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 77
Refer to the exhibit.

A layer 3 VPN is configured between PE1 and PE2. CE1 is connected to PE1. CE2 is
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-780
connected to PE2. CE1 and CE2 are in VRF red. From which router does the prefix 10.170.170.0/24 originates?
A. CE1
B. PE1
C. PE2
D. CE2

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 78
Your company has decided to deploy a MPLS network with VPNs. The customer that will be using the network is demanding service level agreements with your company. How can you monitor the SLAs for violations?
A. RMON
B. Event management system
C. Asset management system D. CNR
E. IP SLA Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-780

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 79
What are three basic functional requirements when configuring MPLS layer 2 VPLS? (Choose three)
A. A CE to PE routing protocol must be used to exchange routing prefixes Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-780
B. A full mesh of pseudowire (emulated VC) connections must be used between PE routers
C. Each PE must have a VFI configured
D. LDP protocol must be running
E. Auto discovery is needed to identify endpoints outside of the VPLS domain.

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 80
A cisco 7600 series Router is experiencing high CPU utilization and poor forwarding performance. Investigation reveals that packet forwarding has been punted to the RP. What are two possible causes of this behavior? (Choose two)
A. The routing table is too large
B. Liberal retention mode has been disabled
C. An insufficient number of flow masks are configured
D. A large number of access list entries are configured
E. IGP timers need to be returned to improve routing convergence

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Cisco 642-780 Questions & Answers with explanations is all what you surely want to have before taking Adobe 9A0-094 exam.Cisco Cisco 642-780 Interactive Testing Engine is ready to help you to get your Cisco 642-780 by saving your time by preparing you quickly for the Cisco exam. If you are worried about getting your Cisco 642-780 certification passed and are in search of some best and useful material, Cisco 642-780 Q&A will surely serve you to enhance your Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices study.

Cisco 642-655 Vce Files, Money Back Guarantee Cisco 642-655 Try Free Demo With New Discount

Where To Download New Free Cisco 642-655 VCE Exam Dumps? As we all know that new Cisco 642-655 exam are difficult to pass, but if you get the valid Cisco 642-655 exam questions, you will pass the Cisco 642-655 exam easily. Nowdays, Flydumps has published the newest Cisco 642-655 exam dumps with free vce test software and pdf dumps, by training the Flydumps Cisco 642-655 questions, you will pass the exam easily!

QUESTION 60
When managing a virtual blade through a Virtual Network Computing client, what does the address
10.10.10.10:1
represent?

A.
The Central Manager’s IP address and the number of the virtual blade.

B.
The IP address of the core WAE and the CPU used by the virtualization instance.

C.
The IP address of the physical interface the virtual interface is bound to on the WAE and the virtual blade number.

D.
The virtual blade IP address and the CPU that is being used for virtualization.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
What two steps are necessary to enable virtualization on a WAVE? (Choose two.)
A. Enable the virtual blade.
B. Install the transport license.
C. WAE(config)# Virtual-Blade 1 enable
D. Install the virtual-blade license.
E. Reload the WAE.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
Your customer has deployed Cisco WAAS using ACE for traffic interception. The customer reports that traffic is not being optimized. Which command would you use to troubleshoot network interception?
A. WAE-CORE# show wccp routers
B. WAE-CORE# show ip access-lists
C. ACE/Admin# show wccp routers
D. ACE/Admin# show rserver detail
E. router# show wccp services

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
Users are having issues with HTTP being slow across the WAN, especially with a large number of objects on a single page. How can the Central Manager Connection Statistics screen be used to see only the HTTP connections?

A. By clicking the Create New button on an HTTP connection.
B. By typing 80 in the Filter Settings sourceport port field and clicking Submit.
C. By typing 80 in the Filter Settings destination port field and clicking Submit.
D. By typing HTTP in the Filter Settings destination field and clicking Submit.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64

When trying to attach to Virtual Blade 3 with a VNC client, there is no response. What change should be made to enable VNC access in the Central Manager screen shown?
A. Reload the WAE.
B. Click the Start Transfer button.
C. Click the Start Virtual Blade button.
D. Click Virtual Blades under Virtualization and then click Start VB 3.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
This list identifies some of the tasks that should be performed when deploying a Central Manager WAE. What is the correct order for these tasks to be performed when deploying a Central Manager WAE using CLI manually?
1.
Configure the device mode.

2.
Enable the Central Manager role.

3.
Assign a primary interface.

4.
Enable Central Manager service.
A. 4, 1, 3, 2
B. 1, 4, 3, 2
C. 3, 1, 2, 4 D. 2, 1, 3, 4

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 66
A WAAS mobile user is experiencing poor performance that is not experienced when WAAS mobile is disabled. What is the first troubleshooting step?
A. Turn off the WAAS mobile client.
B. Turn on the WAAS mobile client.
C. Turn off the WAAS mobile server and run applications natively.
D. Generate a system report while the network performance is occurring.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
Exhibit:

You work as a network engineer at Your company. You study the exhibit carefully.When troubleshooting
video licensing on a WAE, this Central Manager output is displayed.
Which two steps should be taken to enable the video license? (Choose two.)

A. Restart the WAE
B. Select the Enterprise Check Box
C. Select the Video Check Box
D. Select the Virtual-Blade Check Box

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 68
How to verify that the WAE has joined a Microsoft Windows domain correctly?
A. Click the Show Authentication Status button in Central Manager
B. Use the Windowsnetstat command
C. Use the Windowsnbtstat command
D. Execute the show windows-domain command on the WAE

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
Exhibit:

You work as a network engineer at Your company. You study the exhibit carefully.
The following diagram displays the Cisco WAAS configuration for your customer. Which WCCPv2
interception configuration should be applied to interface Serial0?

A. Redirect in / service group 62
B. Redirect out / service group 62
C. Redirect in / service group 61
D. Redirect out/service group 61

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 70
What important troubleshooting information will you draw for the Video Accelerator from the WAE#show stat accelerator video?
A. Whether or not the WAE(Config)#accelerator video enable command has been issued
B. Troubleshooting of the Video Accelerator can only be done through the Central Manager GUI
C. The total Non-Windows Media and Non-Live Video Streams
D. The license status of the Video Accelerator

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 71
In a WAAS Application Traffic Policy, which three match conditions are valid for traffic classifies? (Choose three.)
A. Subnet
B. TCP Port
C. IP Address
D. Routing
E. UDP Port
F. Routed protocol

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 72
When must WCCPv2 redirect exclusion be configured on the routers?
A. When redirect in is used on the WAN interface only
B. When redirect out is used on any interface
C. When redirect in is used on the LAN interface only
D. When redirect in is used on any interface

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 73
Effective device permissions such as access and configure are the summations of which two elements? (Choose two.)
A. Authentication provides assignments to that user
B. Roles assigned to that user
C. Policy maps assigned to that user
D. Domains assigned to that user

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 74
One of your customers has configured traffic interception by use of PBR and four core WAE appliances. The customer has discovered that Cisco WAAS is not load-balancing across the WAE appliances and would like to know how to diagnose the problem. What will you tell your customer?
A. The PBR route map on the edge router is configured incorrectly
B. The inbound access list on the core router is configured incorrectly
C. IP SLAs are configured incorrectly
D. PBR uses only the first-available nexthop, only one WAE is used at a time

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 75
Which two options are available for Cisco WAAS file-service integration? (Choose two.)
A. Nontransparent not appearing as a node on the remote office LAN
B. Transparent appearing as a node on the remote office LAN
C. Nontransparent appearing as a node on the remote office LAN
D. Transparent not appearing as a node on the remote office LAN

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 76
What two steps are necessary to enable virtualization on a WAVE? (Choose two.)
A. Enable the virtual blade.
B. Install the transport license.
C. WAE(config)# Virtual-Blade 1 enable
D. Install the virtual-blade license.
E. Reload the WAE.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 77
The Cisco WAAS design for your customer calls for the Central Manager to be deployed on the Core WAE, which is a Cisco WAE-612 with 2-GB RAM. The customer initially configured the WAE as an application accelerator and then issued the device mode central-manger command to enable Central Manager Service. The customer reports that the WAE is no longer accelerating traffic. What is the problem?
A. The device mode central-manager command must be issued before the device mode application-accelerator command
B. Central Manager is consuming too much CPU time on the WAE. The Central Managerservice should be implemented on a less-utilized edge-WAE
C. Central Manager and Application Accelerator cannot be deployed on the same WAE
D. At least 4 GB of RAM must be installed for the WAE to serve as both Central Manager and Application Accelerator

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 78
Which two options are available for Cisco WAAS file-service integration? (Choose two.)
A. Nontransparent not appearing as a node on the remote office LAN
B. Transparent appearing as a node on the remote office LAN
C. Nontransparent appearing as a node on the remote office LAN
D. Transparent not appearing as a node on the remote office LAN

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 79
A WAAS mobile user is experiencing poor performance that is not experienced when WAAS mobile is disabled. What is the first troubleshooting step?
A. Turn off the WAAS mobile client.
B. Turn on the WAAS mobile client.
C. Turn off the WAAS mobile server and run applications natively.
D. Generate a system report while the network performance is occurring.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 80
Effective device permissions such as access and configure are the summations of which two elements? (Choose two.)
A. Authentication provides assignments to that user
B. Roles assigned to that user
C. Policy maps assigned to that user
D. Domains assigned to that user

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

In addition to ensuring that you are presented with only the best and the most updated Cisco 642-655 study materials, we also want you to be able to access them simply, whenever you need. Flydumps.com offers all our Cisco 642-655 exam training material in Engine and PDF formats, which is a very common format found in all computers. Regardless of whichever computer you have.

Cisco 642-587 Demo Download, Prepare for the Cisco 642-587 PDF UP To 50% Off

Attention Please:Professional new version Cisco 642-587 PDF and VCE dumps can now free download on Flydumps.com,all are updated timely by our experts covering all Cisco 642-587 new questions and questions.100 percent pass your Cisco 642-587 exam.

QUESTION 50
Using the WLSE, you are trying to push out a configuration job to a standalone access point, but the job does not start. Which of the following would cause this failure?
A. invalid parameter in the template
B. pop-up blocker enabled in the browser
C. incorrect SNMP communities on the access point
D. unsupported version of IOS firmware in the access point

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
You want to dynamically assign users to an 802.1Q VLAN as a result of their authentication. In order to accomplish this, which two IETF RADIUS attributes should you configure on the Cisco Secure ACS? (Choose two.)
A. 064 Tunnel-Type
B. 066 Tunnel-Client-Endpoint
C. 067 Tunnel-Server-Endpoint
D. 081 Tunnel-Private-Group-ID
E. 082 Tunnel-Assignment-ID
F. 083 Tunnel-Preference

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
In a deployment using standalone access points, clients set up to authenticate with EAP-PEAP or EAP-Cisco Wireless (Cisco-LEAP) cannot authenticate. When you inspect the Failed Attempts report on the Cisco Secure ACS, you find this error: “Unknown network access server NAS.” Which problem may have caused this failure?
A. misconfigured EAP type on the access point
B. misconfigured EAP type on the AAA server
C. misconfigured IP address of the access point on the AAA server
D. misconfigured IP address of the AAA server on the access point

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
What is the maximum number of hexadecimal characters allowed when configuring the WPA or WPA2 passphrase in Cisco ADU?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 128

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
A client roams from H-REAP AP1 to H-REAP AP2. The client is unable to associate to H-REAP AP2. H-REAP AP2 has six other clients associated to it, which continue to pass traffic. What has caused this problem?
A. H-REAP AP1 lost its connection to the controller.
B. H-REAP AP2 lost its connection to the controller.
C. H-REAP AP1 has reached its client limit.
D. H-REAP AP2 has reached its client limit.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
You are configuring a wireless LAN controller for QoS. Which 802.11e user priority tag should you apply to voice applications?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
You are using ADU and are authenticated and associated to an access point.
However, you are unable to obtain an IP address. Which of these has caused this problem?
A. invalid SSID
B. invalid 802.1X authentication type
C. invalid encryption type
D. invalid WEP key

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
Which parameter, when enabled on a standalone access point, gives the highest priority to a voice packet even when QoS is not enabled?
A. QoS Element for Wireless Phones
B. IGMP Snooping
C. WMM
D. AVVID Priority Mapping

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
You review the Failed Attempts logs on an AAA server and find: “unknown network access server error.” Which failure could produce this error?
A. failure of the wireless client and AAA server handshake
B. supplicant authentication failure
C. AAA client and AAA server handshake failure
D. wrong password used by the supplicant

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
If it is properly deployed, a controller-based access point is capable of monitoring all VLANs on a network when you select which of the following modes from the AP Mode drop-down menu on the controller?
A. Monitor
B. Rogue Detector
C. Sniffer
D. Mirror

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
On a WLAN controller, what is the default limit on the number of entries in the database that will be used for local authentication?
A. 50
B. 128
C. 512 D. 1024

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Cisco 642-587 Exam Certification Guide presents you with an organized test preparation routine through the use of proven series elements and techniques.“Do I Know This Already?”quizzes open each chapter and allow you to decide how much time you need to spend on each section. Cisco 642-587 lists and Foundation Summary tables make referencing easy and give you a quick refresher whenever you need it.Challenging Cisco 642-587 review questions help you assess your knowledge and reinforce key concepts.Cisco 642-587 exercises help you think about exam objectives in real-world situations,thus increasing recall during exam time.

Cisco 642-587 Practice Questions, Buy Discount Cisco 642-587 Dump On Store

New VCE and PDF– You can prepare Cisco 642-587 exam in an easy way with Flydumps Cisco 642-587 questions and answers.By training our vce dumps with all Cisco 642-587 the latest questions,you can pass the exam in the first attempt.

QUESTION 51
For a lightweight access point to participate in aggressive load balancing, it must have heard the client for how many seconds?
B. 10
C. 1
D. 5

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
Which two of the following EAP types requires a certificate to be installed on the Cisco Secure ACS? (Choose two.)
A. EAP-PEAP
B. EAP-FAST
C. EAP-Cisco Wireless (LEAP)
D. EAP-TLS
E. EAP-MD5

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
When setting an access point to a non-root role, what two parameters, other than Role in the Radio Network, must be configured on the SSID Manager page? (Choose two.)
A. Infrastructure devices to associate only to this SSID
B. Enable IP redirection on this SSID
C. Set Data Beacon Rate
D. Multiple Basic Service Set Identification (BSSID)
E. Set infrastructure SSID

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
To keep performance optimal on a lightweight access point, what can be done?
A. Disable Auto RF and configure manually.
B. Disable all 802.11b data rates.
C. Power access point to full power.
D. Hard code the channel.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 55
On the WLSE, which of the following tasks must be completed before Interference Detection can be enabled?
A. Enable Self-Healing.
B. Configure Location Manager.
C. Conduct Client Walkabout.
D. Conduct Radio Scan.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
A blinking green power LED indicates which of the following conditions on a Cisco Series 1000 lightweight access point?
A. lost connection to the controller
B. duplicate IP address
C. startup
D. site survey mode

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
On the WLSE or WLSE Express, which of the following criteria for applying automanaged configurations can be combined?
A. device type and subnet
B. MAC address and device type
C. serial number and version number
D. serial number and subnet

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
Your client has deployed a Cisco Wireless Location Appliance within their warehouse environment. They have been experiencing problems with tracking objects using active RFID tags. To verify proper access point deployment for Location Server, the results from an access point scan should show what information?
A. a minimum RSSI value of -50
B. rogue access points
C. a minimum of three access points
D. non-overlapping channels

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
Given a bridge link 6 miles (9.7 km) long, which parameter on the Root Radio Interface page must be configured in order for IP traffic to pass?
A. RTS
B. distance (kilometers)
C. concatenation
D. CCA

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
When connecting to an 802.11a access point, which transmitter power selections can be chosen in the ADU?
A. 30 mW
B. 100 mW
C. 40 mW
D. 50 mW

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
A rogue access point is detected on the Cisco WCS console. Upon investigation, the access point is discovered to belong to a neighboring business. Your administrator should designate the rogue access point as which of the following?
A. known internal
B. managed
C. friendly
D. known external

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
An REAP was supporting 16 WLANs, but now it only supports one. What happened to cause the change?
A. Controller connectivity has been lost.
B. The access point lost its configuration.
C. The access point was rebooted.
D. An access point firmware upgrade is in progress.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
Which of the following parameter sets must be configured on the Cisco Wireless Location Appliance?
A. Object Definitions
B. Asset Management
C. Location Views
D. Network Connections

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
Static WEP is configured on the access point. You are authenticated and associated to the access point but are unable to obtain an IP address. Which of the following will cause this problem?
A. invalid radio type selected
B. no WEP key configured on the client
C. invalid SSID configured
D. invalid WEP key

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
Which set of RF characteristics is directly monitored by the core feature set products?
A. interference, utilization, and RF diffraction
B. clients, utilization, and multipath interference
C. noise, interference, and coverage holes
D. noise, interference, and multipath interference

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 66
You are installing a Cisco 4402 Series Wireless LAN Controller. What type of interface is used on the uplink port?
A. 1000Base-X Mini-GBIC
B. 10/100/1000 Mbps RJ45
C. 10/100 Mbps RJ45
D. 1000Base-SX

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
Which of the following accurately represents the functionality of a lightweight access point configured to operate in sniffer AP mode?
A. client traffic allowed, data captured on all channels
B. client traffic allowed, data captured on a single channel
C. no client traffic allowed, data captured on a single channel
D. no client traffic allowed, data captured on all channels

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 68
The Cisco Wireless Location Appliance provides an audit trail for each device tracked for up to how many days?
A. 45
B. 60
C. 15
D. 30

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
Cisco WCS is supported on which two of the following operating systems? (Choose two.)
A. MAC OS X
B. Windows 2000 SP4
C. Solaris 10
D. Windows Server 2003
E. Debian LINUX

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 70
In the Cisco WCS, how many days is data available for trending analysis?
A. 7
B. 60
C. 14
D. 30

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 71
In order for a controller-based access point to be allowed to participate in aggressive load balancing, it must have heard the client within how many seconds?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 72
You are troubleshooting a problem with a Cisco 7920 wireless IP phone on a standalone WLAN. The phone rings but, when you answer, the call is dropped. What may cause this problem?
A. The minimum data rate is not set to 11 Mbps.
B. An address resolution protocol is enabled.
C. Publicly Secure Packet forwarding is enabled.
D. The access point is set to the least congested channel.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 73
A Cisco Wireless Location Appliance has been added to track RFID tags placed on laptops being used in a school. Classrooms at the school have concrete block walls. During testing, you discover that the accuracy of the system needs to be improved. You decide to edit the map in the Cisco WCS to add the interior walls. How many interior walls can you add to improve the accuracy of the location appliance?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 74
The IOS of a North American Cisco Aironet 1130AG Series standalone access point has become corrupt. You must therefore reload the TFTP firmware. Before you press and hold the MODE button, you should verify that the file name is which of the following?
A. c1130-k9w7-tar.boot
B. c1130-k9w7-tar.default
C. c1130-k9w7-tar.recover
D. c1130-k9w7-tar.123-7.JA1.tar

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 75
How many WLANs can a Cisco Aironet 1242 in H-REAP mode support when actively connected to a wireless controller?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Flydumps.com delivers you the best possible study guide which is also updated regularly to take your Cisco 642-587 exam. The Cisco 642-587 real exam is planned and researched by IT experts who are very much involved in the IT field.They have been trying their level best to create concise and logical study guide by using their data. Using the product of Flydumps.com will not only help you pass the exam but also safe a bright future for you ahead.

Cisco 642-551 Real Exam Questions And Answers, Latest Cisco 642-551 PDF Download Sale

Attention Please:Professional new version Cisco 642-551 PDF and VCE dumps can now free download on Flydumps.com,all are updated timely by our experts covering all Cisco 642-551 new questions and questions.100 percent pass your Cisco 642-551 exam.

QUESTION 53
Which method does the Cisco IDM use to communicate with the sensor?
A. Telnet
B. HTTP
C. SSH
D. SSL

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
Which browser-based configuration device can be used to monitor and manage multiple Cisco PIX Security Appliances?
A. Cisco PIX Device Manager
B. Cisco ASA Device Manager
C. Firewall Management Center
D. PIX Management Center

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
Which protocol does the Cisco Web VPN solution use?
A. SSH
B. Telnet
C. SSL
D. IPSec
E. XML

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
Which CSA object contains associations with policies and can accept hosts as members?
A. Groups
B. Policies
C. Variables
D. Agent Kits

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
Select two ways to secure hardware from threats. (Choose two.)
A. The room must have steel walls and doors.
B. The room must be static free.
C. The room must be locked, with only authorized people allowed access.
D. The room should not be accessible via a dropped ceiling, raised floor, window, ductwork, or point of entry other that the secured access point.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
What is the purpose of the global command on the Cisco PIX Security Appliance?
A. to set up the IP addresses on an interface
B. to enable global configuration mode
C. to create a pool of one or more IP addresses for use in NAT and PAT
D. to enable global NAT

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
Drag Drop question

A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
What must be configured on a network-based Cisco IDS/IPS to allow it to monitor traffic?
A. Enable rules.
B. Enable signatures.
C. Disable rules.
D. Disable signatures.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
Which method of authentication is considered the strongest?
A. S/Key (OTP for terminal login)
B. username and password (aging)
C. token cards or SofTokens using OTP
D. username and password (static)

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
LAB This is the
Router(config)#aaa new-model Router(config)#tacacs-server host 10.0.129.3 key aaasafe Router(config)#tacacs-server host 10.0.129.2 key aaacisco A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Cisco 642-551 tests containing questions that cover all sides of tested subjects that help our members to be prepared and keep high level of professionalism. The main purpose of Cisco 642-551 exam is to provide high quality test that can secure and verify knowledge, give overview of question types and complexity that can be represented on real exam certification

Cisco 642-544 Study Guide, High Quality Cisco 642-544 Certificate Will Be More Popular

Flydumps guarantee your Cisco 642-544 exam success with our Exam Resources. Cisco 642-544 braindumps are the latest and developed by experience’s IT certification Professionals working in today’s prospering companies and data centers.All our Cisco 642-544 brain dumps including Cisco 642-544 exam questions which guarantee you can 100% success Cisco 642-544 exam in your first try exam.

QUESTION 31
Which statement best describes the case management feature of Cisco Security MARS?
A. It is used to automatically collect and save information on incidents, sessions, queries, and reports dynamically without user interventions.
B. It is used to capture, combine, and preserve user-selected Cisco Security MARS data within a specialized report.
C. It is used to very quickly evaluate the state of the network.
D. It is used in conjunction with the Cisco Security MARS incident escalation feature for incident reporting.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32
How does the Cisco Security MARS appliance perform IP address correlation (that is, map IP address translation) across NAT and PAT boundaries?
A. uses the NetFlow data
B. queries the PAT and NAT translation table through topological awareness and device configuration
C. analyzes the syslog messages that are received from the firewall devices in the network D. uses a NAT detection protocol to correlate the pre- and post-NAT and PAT addresses
E. uses predefined Cisco Security MARS system NAT rules to correlate events across NAT and PAT boundaries
F. uses NAT-T detection

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the Cisco Security MARS maintenance procedure?
A. Cisco Security MARS audit logs can be exported to a centralized server for the consolidation and protection of the log data.
B. If the archive is generated with one release of software, then the restore has to be done with the same version of software.
C. No new events can be logged when the Cisco Security MARS local database reaches its maximum storage capacity.
D. Cisco Security MARS disk drives are not hot-swappable.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 34
When restoring archived data to a Cisco Security MARS appliance, what is the best practice to follow?
A. Use HTTPS to protect the data transfer.
B. Use Secure FTP to protect the data transfer.
C. Use “mode 5” restore from the Cisco Security MARS CLI to provide enhanced security during the data transfer.
D. Choose Admin > System Maintenance > Data Archiving on the Cisco Security MARS GUI to perform the restore operations on line.
E. To avoid problems, restore only to an identical or higher-end Cisco Security MARS appliance.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 35
Which one of the following incident types is pushed from a local controller to a global controller?
A. incidents on the local controller triggered by predefined system rules
B. incidents on the local controller triggered by local rules
C. true positive incidents on the local controller
D. any incidents on the local controller
E. incidents on the local controller that are manually selected for escalation to the global controller
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 36
LAB

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37
What is a supported mitigation feature on the Cisco Security MARS appliance?
A. generating and pushing configuration commands to Layer 3 devices
B. generating and pushing configuration commands to Layer 2 devices
C. automatically dropping all suspected traffic at the nearest IPS appliance
D. storing and identifying NetFlow data for attack mitigation

Correct Answer: CCCDADBC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
What are three benefits in deploying Cisco Security MARS appliances using the global and local controller architecture? (Choose three.)
A. A global controller can provide a summary of all local controllers information (network topologies, incidents, queries, and reports results).
B. A global controller can provide a central point for creating rules and queries, which are applied simultaneously to multiple local controllers.
C. The architecture provides redundancy in case one of the Cisco Security MARS local controllers fails within a zone.
D. Users can seamlessly navigate to any local controller from the global controller GUI.
E. A global controller can correlate events from multiple local controllers to perform global sessionizations.
F. Rules that apply to multiple local controllers cannot be created on the global controller and pushed down to them from a central location.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 39
What are the two options for handling false-positive events reported by the Cisco Security MARS appliance? (Choose two.)
A. archive to NFS only
B. save as a false-positive report
C. drop
D. mitigate at Layer 2
E. log to the database only
F. escalate to the Cisco Security MARS administrator

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40
Which three statements are correct about the Cisco Security MARS global and local controller architecture? (Choose three.)
A. The global controller can correlate events from different local controllers into a common session.
B. One global controller can support multiple local controllers.
C. Each zone can have one local controller.
D. All local controllers events are propagated to the global controller for correlations.
E. The global controller and the local controllers can be running different Cisco Security MARS OS versions.
F. Incidents can be viewed on the global controller based on a selected local controller.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 41
Which two of the following statements are correct regarding the Cisco Security MARS rules? (Choose two)
A. User-defined rules are treated as global rules. When an incident is fired by a user-defined rule on the Cisco Security MARS local controller, the rule propagates to the Cisco Security MARS global controller.
B. Predefined system rules are treated as global rules. When an incident is fired by a system rule on the Cisco Security MARS local controller, the system rule propagates to the Cisco Security MARS global controller.
C. Drop rules are treated as global rules so it will automatically propagate to the Cisco Security MARS global controller.
D. Rules can be created on both the Cisco Security MARS global controller and the Cisco Security MARS local controllers. Rules on the Cisco Security MARS global controller will propagate down to the Cisco Security MARS local controllers.
E. It is not possible to edit the global rules created on the Cisco Security MARS global controller from the Cisco Security MARS local controller.

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 42
LAB A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 43
Cisco Security MARS uses NetFlow data to perform which function?
A. traffic profiling and statistical anomaly detection
B. correlation across NAT boundary
C. data reductions
D. events normalization
E. false-positive analysis
F. topology-aware sessionizations to combine multiple events into end-to-end sessions

Correct Answer: CECCEEEEDADFEBECEE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 44
Which two are required to enable Cisco Security MARS Level 3 operations? (Choose two.)
A. global controller
B. vulnerability scanning
C. NetFlow
D. SNMP community string
E. administrative access to the device
F. Cisco Security Manager

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 45
What enables the Cisco Security MARS appliance to profile network usage and detect statistically significant anomalous behavior from a computed baseline?
A. Cisco Security MARS Global Controller
B. Cisco Security Manager
C. NetFlow
D. Cisco Security MARS Custom Parser

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 46
LAB A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 47
Drop A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 48
Which two steps are required to represent a Check Point device in the Cisco Security MARS? (Select two)
A. Define Security Contexts.
B. Define Primary Management Station.
C. Define Secure Internal Communicator (SIC).
D. Define Check Point OPSEC.
E. Define Child Enforcement Module(s).
F. Define Parent Enforcement Module.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

All most all IT professionals are familiar with the Cisco 642-544 exam and dream to have that top most demanding certification. This is the top level certification from CISCO that is accepted universally. You can get your desired career which you dreamed with passing Cisco 642-544 test and getting the certificate.