[Ensure Pass PDF Exam From Google Drive] Great Importance of MCSA 70-740 PDF Exam Questions Video: Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows Server 2016

We all want to pass the 70-740 certification at the first attempt. Because the exam fee is so expensive and the preparation of 70-740 test really need much time and energy investment. With our MCSA: Windows Server 2016 https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-740.html  pdf study material, you do not review other study materials. You can just focus on the study about our 70-740 Pass4itsure dumps.100% pass is an easy thing for you.

Exam Code: 70-740
Exam Name: Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows Server 2016
Updated: Jul 23, 2017
Q&As: 162

The study guide helps you master all the topics on the MCSA 70-740 pdf exam, including:

  • Windows Server installation in host and compute environments, including Nano Server
  • Storage: configuring disks and volumes, implementing server storage, and data duplication
  • Hyper-V implementation, including VM settings, storage, and networking
  • Windows container deployment and management
  • High availability: HA/DR options, failover clustering, Storage Spaces Direct, VM movement, and network load balancing
  • Server environment maintenance and monitoring

Now, I think the quality and high hit rate are so important when choosing the study material for 70-740 pdf certification.

70-740

Pass4itsure  Latest and Most Accurate 70-740 PDF Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION NO: 32
Which of the following statements about skewness of an empirical probability distribution are
correct?
1. When sampling returns from a time series of asset prices, discretely compounded returns
exhibit higher skewness than continuously compounded returns
2. When the mean is significantly less than the median, this is an indication of negative skewness
3. Skewness is a sign of asymmetry in the dispersion of the data
A. All three statements are correct
B. Statements 1 and 2 are correct
C. Statements 1 and 3 are correct
D. Statements 2 and 3 are correct
70-740 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 33
Consider two securities X and Y with the following 5 annual returns:
X: +10%, +3%, -2%, +3%, +5%
Y: +7%, -2%, +3%, -5%, +10%
In this case the sample covariance between the two time series can be calculated as:
A. 0.40729
B. 0.00109
C. 0.00087
D. 0.32583
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 34
The first derivative of a function f(x) is zero at some point, the second derivative is also zero at this
point. This means that:
A. f has necessarily a minimum at this point
B. f has necessarily a maximum at this point
C. f has necessarily neither a minimum nor a maximum at this point
D. f might have either a minimum or a maximum or neither of them at this point
70-740 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 35
Find the first-order Taylor approximation p(x) for the function: at the point .
A. -x
B. -x+1
C. x-1
D. x+1
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 36
At what point x does the function f(x) = x3 – 4×2 + 1 have a local minimum?
A. -0.666666667
B. 0
C. 2.66667
D. 2
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 37
What is the maximum value for f(x)= 8-(x+3)(x-3)?
A. 8
B. -1
C. 17
D. None of these
70-740 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 38
For the function f(x) =3x-x3 which of the following is true?
A. x = 0 is a minimum
B. x = -3 is a maximum
C. x = 2 is a maximum
D. None of these
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 39
What is the maximum value of the function F(x, y)=x2+y2 in the domain defined by inequalities x
1, y -2, y-x 3 ?
A. 29
B. -25
C. 1
D. 17
70-740 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 37
What is the maximum value for f(x)= 8-(x+3)(x-3)?
A. 8
B. -1
C. 17
D. None of these
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 38
For the function f(x) =3x-x3 which of the following is true?
A. x = 0 is a minimum
B. x = -3 is a maximum
C. x = 2 is a maximum
D. None of these
70-740 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 39
What is the maximum value of the function F(x, y)=x2+y2 in the domain defined by inequalities x
1, y -2, y-x 3 ?
A. 29
B. -25
C. 1
D. 17
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 40
You work for a brokerage firm that charges its client x per share. The volume of trade of a client of
type A depends on the per share commission in the following manner. If the commission is x, the
client of type A will trade e-ax shares on average each week. What is the optimal commission x
that maximizes the income from client A, noting that a is greater than zero?
A. 1
B. a
C. 42
D. a2
70-740 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 41
An indefinite integral of a polynomial function is
A. always positive
B. always increasing
C. always less than the function itself
D. none of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 42
Evaluate the derivative of ln(1+ x2) at the point x = 1
A. 0.5
B. 0
C. 1
D. 2
70-740 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 43
Evaluate the derivative of exp(x2 + 2x + 1) at the point x = -1
A. 0.5
B. 0
C. 1
D. 2
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 44
A 2-year bond has a yield of 5% and an annual coupon of 5%. What is the Macaulay Duration of
the bond?
A. 2
B. 1.95
C. 1.86
D. 1.75
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 45
A 2-year bond has a yield of 5% and an annual coupon of 5%. What is the Modified Duration of
the bond?
A. 2
B. 1.95
C. 1.86
D. 1.75
70-740 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 46
A bond has modified duration 6 and convexity 30. Find the duration-convexity approximation to the
percentage change in bond price when its yield increases by 5 basis points
A. 10 basis point rise
B. 24 basis fall
C. 24 basis point rise
D. 30 basis points fall.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 47
An underlying asset price is at 100, its annual volatility is 25% and the risk free interest rate is 5%.
A European call option has a strike of 85 and a maturity of 40 days. Its Black-Scholes price is
15.52. The options sensitivities are: delta = 0.98; gamma = 0.006 and vega = 1.55. What is the
delta-gamma-vega approximation to the new option price when the underlying asset price
changes to 105 and the volatility changes to 28%?
A. 17.33
B. 18.75
C. 19.23
D. 20.54
Answer: D

Pass4itusre 70-740 pdf Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows Server 2016 Pass4itsure dumps are highly recommended by many IT candidates because it has helped them passed the actual test successfully.

70-740 Pass4itsure test answers are compiled and written by our professional experts who checked and confirm according to several standards, thus the questions of Pass4itsure https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-740.html  pdf are relevant together with accurate answers, which can ensure you pass at first time.

To check out more about Pass4itusre 70-740 pdf exam click here: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWVTIxOHJfTzhJNDg

 

 

 

[Ensure Pass Exam] 2017 Updated C_HANAIMP_12 PDF Exam|C_HANAIMP_12 Dumps|SAP Certified Application Associate Complete Video Course

I believe that a lot of people working in the IT industry hope to pass some IT certification exams to obtain the corresponding certifications. Some IT authentication certificates can help you promote to a higher job position in this fiercely competitive IT industry. Now the very popular SAP http://www.kill4exam.com/c_hanaimp_12.html  pdf is one of them. Although passing the SAP certification C_HANAIMP_12 pdf is not so easy, there are still many ways to help you successfully pass the exam.

Exam Code: C_HANAIMP_12
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate – SAP HANA (Edition 2016 – SPS12)
Certification Provider:
Total Questions: 240 Q&A
Updated on: Jul 03, 2017

While you can choose to spend a lot of time and energy to review the related IT knowledge, and also you can choose a effective Pass4itsure C_HANAIMP_12  pdf  training course. Kill4exam.com can provide the pertinent simulation test,which is very effective to help you pass the exam and can save your precious time and energy to achieve your dream. Kill4exam.com will be your best choice.

C_HANAIMP_12

Kill4exam Latest and Most Accurate C_HANAIMP_12 PDF Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION NO: 1
Old English had three genders that resembled those of the Germans and so was probably
very difficult for a foreign traveler to learn in a short time.
A.
Old English had three genders that resembled those of the Germans
B. Old English had three genders resembling those of the Germans
C. The three genders of Old English resembled a German’s
D. Old English’s three genders resembled the German’s
E. The three genders of Old English that resembled those of the Germans
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best answer is B. The sentence requires a subject appropriate to both members of a
compound predicate, the second member being and so was probably very difficult for a foreign
traveler to learn in a short time. Old English makes a logical subject. A is incorrect because of the
use of the pronoun that. In D is seems that the three genders belonged to one German.
QUESTION NO: 2
Linguistically, the Pokot seem to be related to numerous peoples who live in the region
with both ties to the Nilo-Hamitic peoples who come from the north and to Bantu peoples
who come from central Africa.
A.
with both ties to the Nilo-Hamitic peoples who come from the north and to Bantu peoples who
come from central Africa.
B. with ties both to the Nilo-Hamitic peoples who come from the north and to Bantu peoples who
come from central Africa.
C. with ties both to the Nilo-Hamitic peoples who come from the north and Bantu peoples who
come from central Africa.
D. both with ties to the Nilo-Hamitic peoples who come from the north and to Bantu peoples who
come from central Africa.
E. both having ties to the Nilo-Hamitic peoples who come from the north and to Bantu peoples
who come from central Africa
Answer: B
C_HANAIMP_12 exam Explanation:
The best answer is B. Choice B places the word both in the best place in the sentence. The Pokot
are related both to… and to….
QUESTION NO: 3
Having logged thousands of hours watching primates from chimpanzees to macaques,
chimps and other primates are no longer thought to be natural-born killers by Dr. Swenson,
they are attuned to peacemaking.
A.
chimps and other primates are no longer thought tobe natural-born killers by Dr.Swenson, they
B. Dr. Swenson has come to believe that far from being natural-born killers, chimps and other
primates
C. Dr. Swenson has now the belief that far from being natural-born killers, chimps and other
primates
D. chimps and other primates are not longer thought to be natural-born killers by Dr. Swenson,
they
E. chimps and other primates are no more thought to be natural-born killers by Dr. Swenson, they
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best answer is B. The noun that comes directly after the comma is modified by having logged
thousands of hours watching primates from chimpanzees to macaques. Answers A, D, and E
illogically have the chimps observing other primates.
QUESTION NO: 4
In the thirties and forties, devotees of Willa Cather’s maintained that her writing has all the
qualities found in the highest order of American writers of the nineteenth and twentieth
century.
A.
Cather’s maintained that her writing has
B. Cather’s maintained that her writing had
C. Cather’s have maintained that her writing had
D. Cather maintained that her writing had
E. Cather maintained that her writing has
Answer: D
C_HANAIMP_12 pdf Explanation:
The best answer is D. The phrase devotees of Willa Cather presents a complete possessive
without adding an apostrophe to her last name. Because the sentence describes a past event, the
verb has in the present tense is incorrect.
QUESTION NO: 5
William Hornby acquired bison herds for breeding stock hoping that this move would
eventually lead to increasing in their numbers, and a fortification of their environment
.
A. increasing in their numbers,
B. an increase in their numbers,
C. their increase in numbers,
D. an increasing in numbers,
E. an increasing in the numbers of them,
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best answer is B. Choice B clearly and correctly uses parallel noun phrases to list the effects
of Hornby’s actions: an increase in… a fortification of
QUESTION NO: 6
The strand fills with water during the rainy season that the peat then holds and keeps it
humid, all of which creates conditions enabling trees to grow.
A.
enabling trees to grow.
B. for the trees to grow.
C. for growing trees.
D. that enable the trees to grow.
E. that the trees can grow.
Answer: D
C_HANAIMP_12 dumps Explanation:
The best answer is D. In choices B and C the preposition for is used unidiomaticly. In choice A the
omission of the word the makes it sound as though these conditions are necessary for all trees.
QUESTION NO: 7
People can debate the aesthetic merits of these overwrought, disquieting, sometimes
gruesome works of art, but no one can dispute their creators’ mastery of the paintbrush as
a blunt instrument.
A.
but no one can dispute their creators’ mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
B. but none can dispute their creators’ mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
C. but not a one can dispute their creators’ mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
D. but no person can dispute their creators’ mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
E. but none can dispute to their creators’ mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best answer is B. The use of none is idiomatically correct. Choice E is incorrect because
dispute can only be followed by a direct object.
QUESTION NO: 8
Drinking milk enriched with vitamin D may significantly reduce the risk of rickets and also
aid for sufferers of heart disease, according to studies recently completed at the University
of California in San Francisco.
A.
significantly reduce the risk of rickets and also aid for
B. be significant in reducing the risk of rickets and aid for
C. significantly reduce the risk of rickets and aid
D. cause a significant reduction in the risk of rickets and aid to
E. significantly reduce the risk of rickets as well as aiding
Answer: A
C_HANAIMP_12 vce Explanation:
The best answer is A. It is the distortion between how the person really is and how he perceives
himself that is the most important factor, as opposed to the level of self-perception itself.
QUESTION NO: 9
Robinson is a botanist whose dream is to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of
Hawaii, a place now awash with introduced species of plants and animals.
A.
who has the dream to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of Hawaii,
B. whose dream it is to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of Hawaii,
C. who it is his dream to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of Hawaii,
D. that is dreaming to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of Hawaii,
E. whose dream is to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of Hawaii,
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best answer is B. According to the passage, when negative social information is encountered
by a person with a highly elevated level of self-perception, it may lead to violence.
QUESTION NO: 10
As literary criticism grows more complex, students majoring in specialized areas like those
of post-colonialism and Marxist discourse have been becoming increasingly successful at
finding positions in the faculties of top universities.
A.
majoring in specialized areas like those of post-colonialism and Marxist discourse have been
becoming increasingly
B. who major in such specialized areas as post-colonialism and Marxist discourse are becoming
more and more

C. who majored in specialized areas such as those of post-colonialism and Marxist discourse are
being increasingly
D. who major in specialized areas like those of post-colonialism and Marxist discourse have been
becoming more and more
E. having majored in such specialized areas as post-colonialism and Marxist discourseare being
increasingly
Answer: D
C_HANAIMP_12 pdf Explanation:
The best answer is D. If the shark can be successfully bred in captivity, it is
possible to continue production of the drug without threatening the shark with extinction.
QUESTION NO: 11
The woodland sub-species were in isolation from contact with humans longer than either
their marsh cousins or the tree-dwelling sub-species.
A.
in isolation from contact with humans longer than
B. isolated from contact with humans longer than
C. in isolation from contact with humans longer than were
D. isolated from contact with humans longer than were
E. in isolation and without contacts with humans longer than
Answer: C
Explanation:
The best answer is C. The infinitive to abolish follows the verb ordered; producing the grammatical
and idiomatic sequence X ordered Y to do Z.
QUESTION NO: 12
For almost five thousand years after its beginning 2.5 million years ago, Homo habilis roamed the
earth, lived in semi-permanent camps, gathered food and shared their economy.
A. For almost five thousand years after its beginning 2.5 million years ago,
B. Beginning 2.5 million years ago for a period of almost five thousand years,
C. Beginning a period of almost five thousand years 2.5 million years ago,
D. During five thousand years, a period beginning 2.5 million years ago,
E. Over a period of five thousand years beginning 2.5 million years ago,
C_HANAIMP_12 dumps 
Answer: E
Explanation:
The best answer is E. Choice E is precise and idiomatically phrased. Choice A is illogical because
it refers grammatically to Homo habilis. Choice B is less clear and direct.
QUESTION NO: 13
Despite protests from some share holders, committee members have ordered the levels of
department head involvement to be curtailed and that the advertising program be
undertaken.
A.
the levels of department head involvement to be curtailed and that the advertising program be
B. the levels of department head involvement to be curtailed and that the advertising program
being
C. the measure of levels of department head involvement to be curtailed and the advertising
program to be
D. the levels of department head involvement to be curtailed with their advertising program being
E. that the levels of department head involvement be curtailed and the advertising program be
Answer: E
Explanation:
The best answer is E. Choice E clearly and correctly uses parallel phrases: the levels of
department head involvement be…. The advertising program be…..
QUESTION NO: 14
Advances in networking technology and home computers have made it easy for millions of
Americans to work in their homes, often facilitating the communication between the
manager, who continues to work on-site at the office, with his distant employees.
A.
communication between the manager, who continues to work on-site at the office, with his
distant employees

B. communication between the manager, who continues the work on-site at the office, with his
distant employees
C. communication between the manager, who continues to work on-site at the office, to his distant
employees
D. communication between the manager, who continues to work on-site at the office, and his
distant employees
E. communication between the manager, who continues to work on-site at the office, with his
distance employees
Answer: D
C_HANAIMP_12 exam Explanation:
The best answer is D. The communication has to be between the manager and his employee.
QUESTION NO: 15
There are any number of skilled freelancers who can develop strategy and create marketing
materials with a keen eye to using proven methods, but also to developing new and
innovative techniques.
A.
with a keen eye to using proven methods, but also to developing new and innovative
techniques
B. with a keen eye for using proven methods, and also to developing new and innovative
techniques
C. with a keen eye not only to using proven methods, but also to developing new and innovative
techniques
D. with a keen eye to using proven methods, but to developing now and innovative techniques
E. with a keen eye not only to using proven methods, and also to developing now and innovative
techniques
Answer: C
C_HANAIMP_12 vce Explanation:
The best answer is C. Choice C correctly develops the parallel not only… but also…

C_HANAIMP_12

When you hear about SAP C_HANAIMP_12 exam, you maybe feel nothing because it is none of your business. When you decide to attend it, C_HANAIMP_12 dumps is probably enough to strike fear into the heart of even the most nerveless of you. Actually, kill4exam C_HANAIMP_12  pdf  bring much stress for IT candidates. No matter how difficult the exam is, there are still lots of people chase after the C_HANAIMP_12 certification.

We have to admit that the benefits brought by SAP Application Associate C_HANAIMP_12 pdf are more than your imagine. You can enjoy a boost up in your professional career along with high salary and a better job position. When it comes to the actual exam, you may still feel anxiety and get stuck in the confusion. Now, please do not worry. http://www.kill4exam.com/c_hanaimp_12.html pdf will be a milestone as a quick way for your success.

 

 

[Ensure Pass Exam] High Quality CCNP 300-101 Dumps ROUTE v2.0 Exam Answers Training Guaranteed Success [Video]

We constantly upgrade our Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching Teststarter 300-101 dumps, all the products you get with one year of free updates. You can always extend the to update subscription time, so that you will get more time to fully prepare for the exam. If you still confused to use the Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching 300-101 Exam of Teststarter, then you can download part of the examination questions and answers in Teststarter website. It is free to try, and if it is suitable for you, then go to buy it, to ensure that you will never regret.

Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCDP
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE v2.0)
Exam Code: 300-101
Total Questions: 247 Q&As
Last Updated: May 17, 2017

300-101

Teststarter 300-101 Dumps Virtual Routing and Forwarding-Lite

In this 300-101 article I’m sharing the basics of VRF Lite with two practical labs. I’ve received a couple of requests about this some time ago so, here it is. Note that the second lab is one I found on the internet and made a few changes.

Service providers often need to allow their customers’ traffic to pass through their cloud
without one customer’s traffic (and corresponding routes) be exposed to another customer.

VRF configuration isn’t at all dependent on MPLS but often the two components are chosen to run together. In Cisco terminology, deployment of VRFs without MPLS is known as VRF Lite.

Similarly, enterprise networks might need to segregate various teststarter 300-101 dumps application types, such as keeping voice and video traffic separate from data. These are just a couple of scenarios that could benefit from the Cisco Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF) feature.

VRF allows a single physical router to host multiple virtual routers, with those virtual routers logically isolated from one another, each with its own IP routing table. Simply put it, VRF’s are VLANs for layer 3, and is the basics to understanding MPLS.

Teststarter Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-101 Dumps Exam Q&As

Question Set 1
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101

Based on this FIB table, which statement is correct?
A. There is no default gateway.
B. The IP address of the router on FastEthernet is 209.168.201.1.
C. The gateway of last resort is 192.168.201.1.
D. The router will listen for all multicast traffic.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The 0.0.0.0/0 route is the default route and is listed as the first CEF entry. Here we see the next hop for this default route lists 192.168.201.1 as the default router
(gateway of last resort).

 

 


QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit
300-101

A network administrator checks this adjacency table on a router. What is a possible cause for the incomplete marking?
A. incomplete ARP information
B. incorrect ACL
C. dynamic routing protocol failure
D. serial link congestion
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To display information about the Cisco Express Forwarding adjacency table or the hardware Layer 3-switching adjacency table, use the show adjacency
command.
Reasons for Incomplete Adjacencies
There are two known reasons for an incomplete adjacency:
The router cannot use ARP successfully for the next-hop interface.
After a clear ip arp or a clear adjacency command, the router marks the adjacency as incomplete. Then it fails to clear the entry.
In an MPLS environment, IP CEF should be enabeled for Label Switching. Interface level command ip route-cache cef
No ARP Entry
When CEF cannot locate a valid adjacency for a destination prefix, it punts the packets to the CPU for ARP resolution and, in turn, for completion of the adjacency.

 

 

QUESTION 3
A network engineer notices that transmission rates of senders of TCP traffic sharply increase and decrease simultaneously during periods of congestion. Which
condition causes this?
A. global synchronization
B. tail drop
C. random early detection
D. queue management algorithm
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
TCP global synchronization in computer networks can happen to TCP/IP flows during periods of congestion because each sender will reduce their transmission
rate at the same time when packet loss occurs.
Routers on the Internet normally have packet queues, to allow them to hold packets when the network is busy, rather than discarding them.
Because routers have limited resources, the size of these queues is also limited. The simplest technique to limit queue size is known as tail drop. The queue is
allowed to fill to its maximum size, and then any new packets are simply discarded, until there is space in the queue again. This causes problems when used on
TCP/IP routers handling multiple TCP streams, especially when bursty traffic is present. While the network is stable, the queue is constantly full, and there are no
problems except that the full queue results in high latency. However, the introduction of a sudden burst of traffic may cause large numbers of established, steady
streams to lose packets simultaneously.

 

 


QUESTION 4
Which three problems result from application mixing of UDP and TCP streams within a network with no QoS? (Choose three.)
A. starvation
B. jitter
C. latency
D. windowing
E. lower throughput
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
It is a general best practice not to mix TCP-based traffic with UDP-based traffic (especially streaming video) within a single service provider class due to the
behaviors of these protocols during periods of congestion. Specifically, TCP transmitters will throttle-back flows when drops have been detected. Although some
UDP applications have application-level windowing, flow control, and retransmission capabilities, most UDP transmitters are completely oblivious to drops and thus
never lower transmission rates due to dropping. When TCP flows are combined with UDP flows in a single service provider class and the class experiences
congestion, then TCP flows will continually lower their rates, potentially giving up their bandwidth to drop-oblivious UDP flows. This effect is called TCP-starvation/
UDP-dominance. This can increase latency and lower the overall throughput.
TCP-starvation/UDP-dominance likely occurs if (TCP-based) mission-critical data is assigned to the same service provider class as (UDP-based) streaming video
and the class experiences sustained congestion. Even if WRED is enabled on the service provider class, the same behavior would be observed, as WRED (for the
most part) only affects TCP-based flows. Granted, it is not always possible to separate TCP-based flows from UDP-based flows, but it is beneficial to be aware of
this behavior when making such application-mixing decisions. Reference: 

 

 


QUESTION 5
Which method allows IPv4 and IPv6 to work together without requiring both to be used for a single connection during the migration process?
A. dual-stack method
B. 6to4 tunneling
C. GRE tunneling
D. NAT-PT
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Dual stack means that devices are able to run IPv4 and IPv6 in parallel. It allows hosts to simultaneously reach IPv4 and IPv6 content, so it offers a very flexible
coexistence strategy. For sessions that support IPv6, IPv6 is used on a dual stack endpoint. If both endpoints support IPv4 only, then IPv4 is used.
Benefits:
Native dual stack does not require any tunneling mechanisms on internal networks
Both IPv4 and IPv6 run independent of each other
Dual stack supports gradual migration of endpoints, networks, and applications.

 

 


QUESTION 6
Which statement about the use of tunneling to migrate to IPv6 is true?
A. Tunneling is less secure than dual stack or translation.
B. Tunneling is more difficult to configure than dual stack or translation.
C. Tunneling does not enable users of the new protocol to communicate with users of the old protocol without dual-stack hosts.
D. Tunneling destinations are manually determined by the IPv4 address in the low-order 32 bits of IPv4-compatible IPv6 addresses.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Using the tunneling option, organizations build an overlay network that tunnels one protocol over the other by encapsulating IPv6 packets within IPv4 packets and
IPv4 packets within IPv6 packets. The advantage of this approach is that the new protocol can work without disturbing the old protocol, thus providing connectivity
between users of the new protocol. Tunneling has two disadvantages, as discussed in RFC 6144:
Users of the new architecture cannot use the services of the underlying infrastructure.
Tunneling does not enable users of the new protocol to communicate with users of the old protocol without dual-stack hosts, which negates interoperability.

 

 


QUESTION 7
A network administrator executes the command clear ip route. Which two tables does this command clear and rebuild? (Choose two.)
A. IP routing
B. FIB
C. ARP cache
D. MAC address table
E. Cisco Express Forwarding table
F. topology table

Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To clear one or more entries in the IP routing table, use the following commands in any mode:
Command Purpose
clear ip route {* |
Clears one or more routes from both the
{route |
unicast RIB and all the module FIBs. The
prefix/length}[next-hop route options are as follows:
interface]}
· *–All routes.
[vrf vrf-name]
Example:
· route–An individual IP route.
switch(config)# clear ip
· prefix/length–Any IP prefix.
route
10.2.2.2
· next-hop–The next-hop address
· interface–The interface to reach the
next-hop address.
The vrf-name can be any case-sensitive, al
phanumeric string up to 32 characters.
Reference:

 

 


QUESTION 8
Which switching method is used when entries are present in the output of the command show ip cache?
A. fast switching
B. process switching
C. Cisco Express Forwarding switching
D. cut-through packet switching
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Fast switching allows higher throughput by switching a packet using a cache created by the initial packet sent to a particular destination. Destination addresses
are stored in the high-speed cache to expedite forwarding. Routers offer better packet-transfer performance when fast switching is enabled. Fast switching is
enabled by default on all interfaces that support fast switching.
To display the routing table cache used to fast switch IP traffic, use the “show ip cache” EXEC command.
Reference:

 

 


QUESTION 9
Which two actions must you perform to enable and use window scaling on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Execute the command ip tcp window-size 65536.
B. Set window scaling to be used on the remote host.
C. Execute the command ip tcp queuemax.
D. Set TCP options to “enabled” on the remote host.
E. Execute the command ip tcp adjust-mss.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The TCP Window Scaling feature adds support for the Window Scaling option in RFC 1323, TCP Extensions for High Performance . A larger window size is
recommended to improve TCP performance in network paths with large bandwidth-delay product characteristics that are called Long Fat Networks (LFNs). The
TCP Window Scaling enhancement provides that support. The window scaling extension in Cisco IOS software expands the definition of the TCP window to 32
bits and then uses a scale factor to carry this 32-bit value in the 16-bit window field of the TCP header. The window size can increase to a scale factor of 14.
Typical applications use a scale factor of 3 when deployed in LFNs.
The TCP Window Scaling feature complies with RFC 1323. The larger scalable window size will allow TCP to perform better over LFNs. Use the ip tcp window
size command in global configuration mode to configure the TCP window size. In order for this to work, the remote host must also support this feature and its
window size must be increased. 

The worldwide network landscape is continually changing with new technologies being introduced continually. The new revision of the Cisco ROUTE 300-101 exam is the most information packed addition to the CCNP Routing and Switching curriculum experienced to date! By the time you’re done watching, you’ll be ready to configure routing protocols at a master level; grasp the big-picture of worldwide Cisco CCNP network design; fill in plenty of “knowledge gaps” left by the CCNA on routing protocols; and confidently sit for the teststarter 300-101 dumps.

Free Youtube Guide for 2017 Best Oracle 1Z0-061 PDF Exam Questions and Answer

For anyone who is new at all to the Oracle database, this exam is really a great feeder point into the certification process since the SQL Fundamentals exam is one of the least complicated Oracle certification 1Z0-061 pdf that you will experience. This may not be to convey the test is very little pushover – taking it without prepared may well end in failure.

Exam Code: 1Z0-061
Exam Name: Oracle Database 12c: SQL Fundamentals
Updated: Apr 18, 2017
Q&As: 75
Exam Information:http://www.pass4itsure.com/1Z0-061.html

Using 1Z0-061 PDF Subqueries to Solve Queries

  • Define subqueries
  • Describe the types of problems that the subqueries can solve
  • Describe the types of subqueries
  • Write single-row and multiple-row subqueries
  • Using the SET Operators
  • Describe set operators
  • Use a set operator to combine multiple queries into a single query

The Oracle Education website lists all of the topics that is to be covered inside the 1Z0-061 pdf. In addition to the certification requirement, SQL knowledge is definitely a essential requirement of working with the Oracle database.

1Z0-061 pdf

♥♥Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Oracle 1Z0-061 PDF Exam Q&As♥♥

QUESTION 11

What is takin place at the Verifing Encryption stage of the wireless enterpriseactivation process? (Choose one)
A. The BlackBerry device and BlackBerry Enterprise Server are netotiating a master encryption key
B. All personal information on the BlackBerry device being compressed, encrytped and sent over the wirless network to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
C. All settings on the BlackBerry device are being verified by the BlackBerry Enterprise Server for security considerations
D. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server is sending service book information to the BlackBerry device
E. The BlackBerry device is scanning the BlackBerry Enterprise Server settings for security considerations

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 12
Which of the following is an encryption standard that is used by the BlackBerry Enterprise Server to communicate with BlackBerry devices? (Shoose one)
A. HTTPS
B. AES
C. TKIP
D. DES
E. TLS

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
A BlackBerry device user who is active on a BlackBerry Enterpirse Server files an email message to a subfolder in the email application and notices the email message no longer appears in the Messages list on the BlackBerry device. Why is this email message no longer viewable in the mail Messages list? (Choose one)
A. The user has the option Hide Filed Messages set to Yes
B. The current theme active on the BlackBerry device is hiding the email message
C. A corrupt Desktop[CMIME] service book
D. Folder redirection is enabled
E. The BlackBerry device email message database is corrupt

Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 14
Which two of the following processes can determine the current build version of BlackBerry Desktop Manger that is installed? (Choose two)
A. Right click the BlackBerry Desktop Manager icon on the desktop and review properties B. Open BlackBerry Desktop Manager>Help>About Desktop Manager
C. Launch the BlackBerry Desktop Manager application and look at the title bar at the top fo the application
D. Open Control panel>Add / remover programs > Select Desktop Manager and choose click here for support info in Windows
E. Look on the BlackBerry Desktop Manager CD

Correct Answer: BD

 

 

QUESTION 15
Which file should be edited to enable advance loggin in BlackBerry Desktop Manager? (Choose one)
A. Dmtrace.log
B. Jvm.log
C. Tiff.log
D. iloptcfg.cfg
E. Sync.log

Correct Answer: D

 

 

1Z0-061 pdf QUESTION 16
Within the properties of a given Desktop service book, which field denotes the BlackBerry Enterprise Server that the BlackBerry device has been activated on? (Choose one)
A. DSID
B. UID
C. CID
D. Gatetway IP
E. User ID

Correct Answer: B

 

 

QUESTION 17
In BlackBerry Desktop Manager, the title bar continually shows a tatus of Disconnected after connecting the BlackBerry device to the computer. Which of the following troubleshooting steps would help resolve this issue? (Choose two)
A. Perform a clean install of the BlackBerry Device Software
B. Perform a hard reset fo the BlackBerry device
C. Uninstall previous installations of BlackBerry Device Software
D. Ensure Power Management options are turned off for the USB Root Hubs on the computer
E. Ensure no other USB devices are connected to the computer

Correct Answer: BD

 

 

QUESTION 18
If the synchronization process with BlackBerry Desktop Manager appears to be successful but no information is transferred to the BlackBerry device, what is the cause of this? (Choose one)
A. The BlackBerry device memory is full
B. The items were transferred to a media card instead of the internal BlackBerry device memory
C. The wireless radio is turned off
D. BlackBerry Desktop Manger is setup to sue the wrong MAPI profile
E. The BlackBerry device is missing the appropriate service books
Correct Answer: D

 

 

QUESTION 19
Which three of the following conditions must be met in order to initiate a wireless enterprise activation of a BlackBerry device on a BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose three)
A. The servccie provider has provisioned the BlackBerry device for the Enterprise service class
B. The user account has been added to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
C. The PIN number of th eBlackBerry device has been manually entered under the user account on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
D. An activation password has been set for the user on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
E. The BlackBerry devicemust reeive a token from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server

Correct Answer: ABD

 

 

QUESTION 20
When configuring a BlackBerry device for access to Wi-Fi, which two of the following pieces of infomration are required? (Choose two)
A. IMEI
B. PIN
C. WLAN MAC
D. IMSI
E. SSID

Correct Answer: CE

 

 

QUESTION 21
Which of the following can be obtained from the Options>Acout screren of the BlackBerry device? (choose one)
A. BlackBerry Device Software version
B. Owner information
C. Mobile Network IMSI
D. PIN
E. IT Policy name

Correct Answer: A

1Z0-061 pdf

Our website is a worldwide dumps leader that offers free valid 1Z0-061 pdf for certification tests, especially for Oracle practice test. We focus on the study of 1Z0-061 pdf  real exam for many years and enjoy a high reputation in IT field by latest study materials, updated information and, most importantly, 1Z0-061 pdf top questions with detailed answers and explanations.

Exam candidates who score a passing grade on the Oracle Procurement Cloud 2016 Implementation Essentials (1Z0-061) exam will be recognized as Oracle Procurement Cloud 2017 Certified Implementation Specialists.  This 1Z0-061 pdf certification qualifies as competency criteria for the Oracle Procurement Cloud Specialization in http://www.pass4itsure.com/1Z0-061.html

For More 1Z0-061 PDF Information – visit Pass4itsure google drive:https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWakZNUWlQRlJWaVE

Preparation Guide for Up To Date Microsoft 70-411 Exam Administering Windows Server 2012

Exam Code: 70-411
Exam Name: Administering Windows Server 2012
Updated: Mar 17, 2017
Q&As: 234
Published: September 17, 2012
Languages: English, Chinese (Simplified), French, German, Japanese, Portuguese (Brazil)
Audiences:IT professionals
Technology: Windows Server 2012 R2
Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSA, MCSE
Exam Information:http://www.real4exam.com/70-411.html

70-411 Exam Objetives

1.1 Deploy and manage server images

  • Windows Deployment Services Overview (TechNet Library)70-411 exam
  • What’s New for Windows Deployment Services (TechNet Library)
  • Windows Deployment Services Getting Started Guide for Windows Server 2012 (TechNet Library)
  • Deploying 70-411 exam Windows Server 2012: From Bare Metal, Server Core, Minimal Server Interface, and More (Session: Andrew Mason @ TechEd North America 2012)
  • What’s New in Windows Deployment Services in Windows Server 2012 R2 (R2)
  • Windows Deployment Services Cmdlets in Windows PowerShell (R2)
  • Using the WDS PowerShell Cmdlets in Windows Server 2012 R2 (R2)
  • Managing and Deploying Driver Packages in Windows Deployment Services (R2)

 

Real4exam Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-411 Exam Q&As 

70-411 exam Question No : 32 – (Topic 0)  Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain
contains a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has a
share named Share1.
When users without permission to Share1 attempt to access the share, they receive the
Access Denied message as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-411 exam

You deploy a new file server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to configure Server2 to display the same custom Access Denied message as
Server1.
What should you install on Server2?
A. The Remote Assistance feature
B. The Storage Services server role
C. The File Server Resource Manager role service
D. The Enhanced Storage feature
Answer: C
Explanation:
Access-Denied Assistance is a new role service of the File Server role in Windows Server
2012.

70-411 exam

We need to install the prerequisites for Access-Denied Assistance.
Because Access-Denied Assistance relies up on e-mail notifications, we also need to
configure each relevant file server with a Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) server
address. Let’s do that quickly with Windows PowerShell:
Set-FSRMSetting -SMTPServer mailserver. nuggetlab.com -AdminEmailAddress
admingroup@nuggetlab.com -FromEmailAddress admingroup@nuggetlab.com
You can enable Access-Denied Assistance either on a per-server basis or centrally via
Group Policy. To my mind, the latter approach is infinitely preferable from an administration
standpoint.
Create a new GPO and make sure to target the GPO at your file servers’ Active Directory
computer accounts as well as those of your AD client computers. In the Group Policy
Object Editor, we are looking for the following path to configure Access-Denied Assistance:
\Computer Configuration\Policies\Administrative Templates\System\Access-Denied
Assistance

70-411 exam

The Customize message for Access Denied errors policy, shown in the screenshot below,
enables us to create the actual message box shown to users when they access a shared
file to which their user account has no access.

70-411 exam

What’s cool about this policy is that we can “personalize” the e-mail notifications to give us
administrators (and, optionally, file owners) the details they need to resolve the permissions
issue quickly and easily.
For instance, we can insert pre-defined macros to swap in the full path to the target file, the
administrator e-mail address, and so forth. See this example:
Whoops! It looks like you’re having trouble accessing [Original File Path]. Please click
Request Assistance to send [Admin Email] a help request e-mail message. Thanks!
You should find that your users prefer these human-readable, informative error messages
to the cryptic, non-descript error dialogs they are accustomed to dealing with.
The Enable access-denied assistance on client for all file types policy should be enabled to
force client computers to participate in Access-Denied Assistance. Again, you must make
sure to target your GPO scope accordingly to “hit” your domain workstations as well as
your Windows Server 2012 file servers.
Testing the configuration
This should come as no surprise to you, but Access-Denied Assistance works only with
Windows Server 2012 and Windows 8 computers. More specifically, you must enable the
Desktop Experience feature on your servers to see Access-Denied Assistance messages
on server computers.
When a Windows 8 client computer attempts to open a file to which the user has no
access, the custom Access-Denied Assistance message should appear:

70-411 exam

If the user clicks Request Assistance in the Network Access dialog box, they see a
secondary message:

70-411 exam

At the end of this process, the administrator(s) will receive an e-mail message that contains
the key information they need in order to resolve the access problem:
The user’s Active Directory identity
The full path to the problematic file
A user-generated explanation of the problem
So that’s it, friends! Access-Denied Assistance presents Windows systems administrators
with an easy-to-manage method for more efficiently resolving user access problems on
shared file system resources. Of course, the key caveat is that your file servers must run
Windows Server 2012 and your client devices must run Windows 8, but other than that, this
is a great technology that should save admins extra work and end-users extra headaches.

 

 

70-411 exam Question No : 33 – (Topic 0)  You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the
File Server Resource Manager role service installed.
Each time a user receives an access-denied message after attempting to access a folder
✑ ✑ ✑ ✑ ✑ ✑ ✑
on Server1, an email notification is sent to a distribution list named DL1.
You create a folder named Folder1 on Server1, and then you configure custom NTFS
permissions for Folder1.
You need to ensure that when a user receives an access-denied message while attempting
to access Folder1, an email notification is sent to a distribution list named DL2. The
solution must not prevent DL1 from receiving notifications about other access-denied
messages.
What should you do?
A. From Server Manager, run the New Share Wizard to create a share for Folder1 by
selecting the SMB Share – Advanced option.
B. From the File Server Resource Manager console, modify the Access-Denied Assistance
settings.
C. From the File Server Resource Manager console, modify the Email Notifications
settings.
D. From Server Manager, run the New Share Wizard to create a share for Folder1 by
selecting the SMB Share -Applications option.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Configure the email notification settings
You must configure the email notification settings on each file server that will send the
access-denied assistance messages.
Open File Server Resource Manager. In Server Manager, click Tools, and then
click File Server Resource Manager.
Right-click File Server Resource Manager (Local), and then click Configure
Options.
Click the Email Notifications tab.
Configure the following settings:
In the SMTP server name or IP address box, type the name of IP address of the
SMTP server in your organization.
In the Default administrator recipients and Default “From” e-mail address boxes,
type the email address of the file server administrator.
Click Send Test E-mail to ensure that the email notifications are configured
correctly.
Click OK.

70-411 exam Question No : 34 HOTSPOT – (Topic 0) Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain
contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the File
Server Resource Manager role service installed.
You need to configure Server1 to meet the following requirements:
Ensure that old files in a folder named Folder1 are archived automatically to a
folder named Archive1.
Ensure that all storage reports are saved to a network share.
Which two nodes should you configure?
To answer, select the appropriate two nodes in the answer area.
70-411 exam

70-411 exam

 

 

70-411 exam Question No : 35 DRAG DROP – (Topic 0)  You are a network administrator of an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the
Web Server (IIS) server role installed.
Server1 will host a web site at URL The application pool
identity account of the web site will be set to a domain user account named AppPool1.
You need to identify the setspn.exe command that you must run to configure the
appropriate Service Principal Name (SPN) for the web site.
What should you run?
To answer, drag the appropriate objects to the correct location. Each object may be used
once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or
scroll to view content.
70-411 exam

 

70-411 exam Question No : 36 – (Topic 0)  Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain
contains a domain controller named DC1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. DC1 is
backed up daily.
The domain has the Active Directory Recycle Bin enabled.
During routine maintenance, you delete 500 inactive user accounts and 100 inactive
groups. One of the deleted groups is named Group1. Some of the deleted user accounts
are members of some of the deleted groups.
For documentation purposes, you must provide a list of the members of Group1 before the
group was deleted.
You need to identify the names of the users who were members of Group1 prior to its
deletion.
You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. What should you do first?
A. Mount the most recent Active Directory backup.
B. Reactivate the tombstone of Group1.
C. Perform an authoritative restore of Group1.
D. Use the Recycle Bin to restore Group1.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Active Directory Recycle Bin does not have the ability to track simple changes to
objects.
If the object itself is not deleted, no element is moved to the Recycle Bin for possible
recovery in the future. In other words, there is no rollback capacity for changes to object
properties, or, in other words, to the values of these properties.

70-411 exam

Free Download New 70-411 exam Dumps: Real4exam now supplying the new version of 70-411 VCE dumps, we ensure our 447q 70-411 exam questions are the most authoritative and valid compared with others’, which will ensure your 70-411 exam 100% passing, and now we are offering the free new version VCE simulator along with the VCE format 447q 70-411 braindumps, also the PDF format 70-411 exam is available now, welcome to choose.

Some general links first:http://www.ccna100-101.com/get-well-prepared-for-hot-70-411-exam-simulator.html

More questions are available at:http://www.mlfacets.com/2017/03/16/accurate-70-411-pdf-exam/

Strongly Recommended:http://www.examinationsite.com/popular-mcsa-microsoft-70-411-exam/

Free Download First-hand Microsoft 70-480 Vce Exam Collection for Microsoft Windows Store Apps

Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this 70-480 exam? Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to your feedback. Testcos appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft Certification program.

Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft Windows Store apps
Exam Name: Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3
Exam Code: 70-480
Total Questions: 205 Q&As
Last Updated: Mar 06, 2017
Exam Information: http://www.testcos.com/70-480.html
70-480 vce

“Dear User,

Thanks for contacting us. In the 70-480 vce exam description, you will be taken thru a series of steps to identify the exam and the center where you want the exam and on the final page where the you are supposed to click on commit registration. Click the link and in the popup that opens he should select discount type as promotion code and enter HTMLJMP as value and click on validate.  This will apply the discount on the total fee of the exam.

Please let me know if you have any other questions.

Regards,

testcos.com”

Share some Microsoft Specialist 70-480 Exam Questions and Answers Below:

Question No : 18 HOTSPOT – (Topic 1)  An HTML page has a canvas element.
You need to draw a red rectangle on the canvas element dynamically. The rectangle
should resemble the following graphic.
70-480 vce

How should you build the code segment? (To answer, select the appropriate options from
the drop-down lists in the answer area.)

70-480 vce

70-480 vce

70-480 vce

 

Question No : 19 – (Topic 1)  You are developing an HTML5 page that has an element with an ID of logo. The page
includes the following HTML.
<div>
Logo:<br>
<div id=”logo”>
</div>
</div>
You need to move the logo element lower on the page by five pixels.
Which lines of code should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)
A. document.getElementById(“logo”) .style.position = “relative”;
B. document.getElementByld(“logo”).Style.top = “5px”;
C. document.getElementById(“logo”).style.top = “-5px”;
D. document.getElementById(“logo”).style.position = “absolute”;
Answer: A,B
Reference:

 

Question No : 20 – (Topic 1)  You are developing a web page by using HTML5 and C5S3. The page includes a <div> tag
with the ID set to validate.
When the page is rendered, the contents of the <div> tag appear on a line separate from
the content above and below it. The rendered page resembles the following graphic.
70-480 vce

The page must be rendered so that the <div> tag is not forced to be separate from the
other content. The following graphic shows the correctly rendered output.

70-480 vce

You need to ensure that the page is rendered to meet the requirement.
Which line of code should you use?
A. document.getElementById(“validate”).style.display = “inline”;
B. document.getElementById(“validate”).style.margin = “0”;
C. document.getElementById(“validate”).style.padding = “0”;
D. document.getElementSyId(“validate”).style.display = “block”;
Answer: A
Reference:

 

Question No : 21 HOTSPOT – (Topic 1) You are creating a web worker for an HTML5 application.
The following tasks must be performed from within the web worker:
Register an event listener for the web worker
Start and stop the web worker
You need to define a function that performs the required tasks.
Which code segment should you use? (To answer, select the appropriate option from the
drop-down list in the answer area.)
70-480 vce

70-480 vce

70-480 vce

 

Question No : 22 – (Topic 1)  You are creating a JavaScript function that displays the name of a web application.
You declare the following button element.
<input type=”button” id= “About” value=”About” />
When a user clicks the button, a JavaScript function named About must be called.
You need to create an event handler that calls the About function when the button is
clicked.
Which two code segments can you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete
solution. Choose two.)

70-480 vce

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C,D
Reference:

 

Question No : 23 HOTSPOT – (Topic 1)  You are creating a function by using JavaScript. The function accepts an object as the
parameter and returns a string that identifies the data type of the object.
✑ ✑ ✑
You have the following requirements:
The function must return “Number” if the object is a number.
The function must return “String” if the object is a string.
The function must return “Unknown” if the object is neither a number nor a string.
You need to implement the function to meet the requirements.
How should you build the code segment? (To answer, select the appropriate options from
the drop-down lists in the answer area.)

70-480 vce

70-480 vce

70-480 vce

 

Question No : 24 – (Topic 1) You need to test the value of the following variable in JavaScript.
var length = “75”;
A block of code must execute if the length equals 75 regardless of the data type.
You need to use the statement that meets this requirement.
Which lines of code should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
Choose two.)
A. if (length = = = 75)
B. if (length = = 75)
C. if (length! = 75)
D. if (length = = “75”)
Answer: B,D

Question No : 25 – (Topic 1) You are developing an application that uses a third-party JavaScript library named
doWork().
The library occasionally throws an “object is null or undefined” error with an error code of
-2146823281.
The application must:
Extract and handle the exceptions thrown by doWork()
Continue normal program execution if other exceptions occur
You need to implement the requirements.
Which code segment should you use?
70-480 vce

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C

I’ll keep things short and sweet in this 70-480 vce.  The content below will cover all of the sections described in the “Skills Measured” section of the Microsoft article that describes the Microsoft Certification exam 70-480 dumps: Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3.  I was not surprised to find that the vast majority of the test topics are discussed on the following two sites: http://www.collection4pdf.com/microsoft-70-483-exam-certification-training/, and  http://www.exampass.net/microsoft-70-243-exam-youtube-training-materials.html.  Since all three of these sites provide extremely reliable information, I attempted to stick with these three sites for all of the 70-480 pdf study guide materials.  You will find that for the most part I was successful.  Enough of my rambling though.  Let’s get started.

Cisco 500-275 Exam Demo, The Best Cisco 500-275 Qs&As On Store

We are committed on providing you with the latest and most Cisco 500-275 exam preparation products.If you want to pass Cisco 500-275 exam successfully, do not miss to read latest Cisco 500-275 on Flydumps.

QUESTION 1
The FireAMP Mobile endpoint connector currently supports which mobile OS device?
A. Firefox
B. HTML5
C. Android
D. iPhone

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2
Which statement describes an advantage of the FireAMP product?
A. Signatures are pushed to endpoints more quickly than other antivirus products.
B. Superior detection algorithms on the endpoint limit the amount of work the cloud must perform.
C. It provides enterprise visibility.
D. It relies on sandboxing.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
Which feature allows retrospective detection?
A. Total Recall
B. Cloud Recall
C. Recall Alert
D. Recall Analysis

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
Which statement describes an advantage of cloud-based detection?
A. Limited customization allows for faster detection.
B. Fewer resources are required on the endpoint.
C. Sandboxing reduces the overall management overhead of the system.
D. High-speed analytical engines on the endpoint limit the amount of work the cloud must perform.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
The FireAMP connector monitors the system for which type of activity?
A. Vulnerabilities
B. Enforcement of usage policies
C. File operations
D. Authentication activity

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
Which disposition can be returned in response to a malware cloud lookup?
A. Dirty
B. Virus
C. Malware
D. Infected

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 7
Which option is a detection technology that is used by FireAMP?
A. fuzzy matching
B. Norton AntiVirus
C. network scans
D. Exterminator

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 8
If a file’s SHA-256 hash is sent to the cloud, but the cloud has never seen the hash before, which disposition is returned?
A. Clean
B. Neutral
C. Malware
D. Unavailable

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 9
File information is sent to the Sourcefire Collective Security Intelligence Cloud using which format?
A. MD5
B. SHA-1
C. filenames

D. SHA-256 Correct Answer: D
Question Set 1 QUESTION 1
How does application blocking enhance security?
A. It identifies and logs usage.
B. It tracks application abuse.
C. It deletes identified applications.
D. It blocks vulnerable applications from running, until they are patched.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
Which set of actions would you take to create a simple custom detection?
A. Add a SHA-256 value; upload a file to calculate a SHA-256 value; upload a text file that contains SHA-256 values.
B. Upload a packet capture; use a Snort rule; use a ClamAV rule.
C. Manually input the PE header data, the MD-5 hash, and a list of MD-5 hashes.
D. Input the file and file name.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
Advanced custom signatures are written using which type of syntax?
A. Snort signatures
B. Firewall signatures
C. ClamAV signatures
D. bash shell

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
When discussing the FireAMP product, which term does the acronym DFC represent?
A. It means Detected Forensic Cause.
B. It means Duplicate File Contents.
C. It means Device Flow Correlation.
D. It is not an acronym that is associated with the FireAMP product.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 5
Custom whitelists are used for which purpose?
A. to specify which files to alert on
B. to specify which files to delete
C. to specify which files to ignore
D. to specify which files to sandbox Correct Answer: C

Flydumps Cisco 500-275 exam dumps are audited by our certified subject matter experts and published authors for development. Flydumps Cisco 500-275 exam dumps are one of the highest quality Cisco 500-275 Q&As in the world. It covers nearly 96% real questions and answers, including the entire testing scope. Flydumps guarantees you pass Cisco 500-275 exam at first attempt.

Cisco 500-265 Cert, Discount Cisco 500-265 Exam Questions With New Discount

Flydumps Cisco 500-265 exam material details are researched and created by the Most Professional Certified Authors who are regularly using current exams experience to create precise and logical dumps.You can get questions and answers from many other websites or books,but logic is the main key of success,and Flydumps will give you this key of success.

QUESTION 1
Which two business use trends have surfaced in the last five years and require nontraditional security? (Choose two.)
A. BYOD
B. Wi-Fi connections
C. partial URL and application blocking
D. third-party applications
E. web and email attacks
F. a large number of remote employees

Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 2
Which three options describe the main problems with traditional security solutions? (Choose three.)
A. fragmented solutions
B. the lack of management solutions
C. missing components
D. solutions being pieced together
E. the lack of a cloud solution
F. the lack of a firewall
G. security gaps

Correct Answer: ADG
QUESTION 3
The current Cisco comprehensive framework solutions are divided into which three categories? (Choose three.)
A. Content Security
B. Cloud Security
C. Network Security
D. Access Security
E. Data Center Security
F. Internet Security
G. Advanced Malware Protection

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 4
In the Cisco future solutions architecture framework, the security solutions are directly built upon which component?
A. management and intelligence capabilities
B. Cisco security platforms
C. third-party applications
D. security intelligence operations
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which three values should you use to position Cisco security solutions? (Choose three.)
A. time-to-value
B. protection
C. control
D. integration
E. flexibility
F. agility
G. scalability
Correct Answer: BCE
Cisco Architecture Solutions
QUESTION 1
Which Cisco security technology delivers the best real-time threat intelligence?
A. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall
B. Cisco Identity Services Engine
C. Cisco Security Manager
D. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
E. Cisco TrustSec

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Which two solutions are main components of Cisco Content Security? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall
B. Cisco Web Security
C. Cisco Remote-Access VPN
D. Sourcefire Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
E. Cisco Email Security
F. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 3
Cisco Content Security integrates seamlessly with existing security and network infrastructures. This statement describes which Cisco value?
A. time-to-value
B. protection
C. control
D. scalability
E. flexibility
F. agility
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
Which two features are components of the Cisco Web Security Appliance? (Choose two.)
A. encryption
B. URL filtering
C. user identity tracking
D. antispam defense
E. impact assessment
F. Cisco Application Visibility and Control
G. context awareness
H. device profiling and onboarding

Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 5
Cisco network security offers unmatched visibility and control of network and application traffic. This statement describes which Cisco value?
A. time-to-value
B. protection
C. control
D. scalability
E. flexibility
F. agility

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which four solutions are Cisco network security solutions? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco site-to-site VPN technologies
B. Cisco Identity and Access Control
C. Cisco Email Security
D. Cisco Web Security Appliance
E. Sourcefire Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
F. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall
G. Cisco security appliance
H. Cisco Remote-Access VPN

Correct Answer: AEFG
QUESTION 7
Which two features are part of site-to-site VPN? (Choose two.)
A. web email controls
B. user identity traction
C. SSL decryption
D. Snort technology
E. remote access
F. seamless connection with Cisco ASA

Correct Answer: EF
QUESTION 8
Cisco Secure Access Solutions delivers a secure connection to a continually growing number of endpoints. This statement is an example of which Cisco value?
A. time-to-value
B. protection
C. control
D. scalability
E. flexibility
F. agility
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 9
Which feature is a primary feature of Cisco AnyConnect?
A. role-based policy management
B. context-aware access
C. secure and flexible remote access
D. SSL decryption

All our Cisco products are up to date! When you buy any Cisco 500-265 product from Certpaper, as “Cisco 500-265 Questions & Answers with explanations”,you are automatically offered the CheckPoint 156-915 updates for a total of 90 days from the day you bought it.If you want to renew your Cisco 500-265 Certification purchase during the period of these 90 days,your Cisco 500-265 Certification product is renewed and you are further enabled to enjoy the free Cisco updates.

Cisco 640-911 Exam, Welcome To Buy Cisco 640-911 Exam Practice PDF With New Discount

Flydumps presents the highest quality of Cisco 640-911 practice material which helps candidates to pass the Cisco 640-911 exams in the first attempt.The brain dumps are the latest,authenticated by expert and covering each and every aspect of Cisco 640-911 exam.

QUESTION 29
Which option is an example of a distance vector routing protocol?
A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. ARP

D. IS-IS
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
Which option is an example of an advanced distance vector routing protocol?
A. EIGRP
B. RIP
C. OSPF
D. ARP
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
Which option is an example of a link-state routing protocol?
A. EIGRP
B. RIP
C. OSPF
D. ARP
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
What is the maximum allowable hop count for RIPv1?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 15
E. 16
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
What is the default periodic interval at which RIPv1 sends routing updates?
A. 15 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 45 seconds
D. 60 seconds
E. 90 seconds
F. RIPv1 only sends routing updates when the topology changes.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
What does RIPv1 send to its neighbors?
A. Information about changed routes
B. Information about new routes
C. The entire routing table
D. Information about deleted routes
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 35
What are two advantages of employing an external router for inter-VLAN routing over an IEEE 802.1Q trunk link? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 3 functionality is not required on the switch.
B. The router facilitates communication between VLANs.
C. The single traffic path is optimized.
D. Latency is reduced as packets leave the switch.
E. Equal-Cost Multipath is supported.

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 36
Which statement correctly describes an SVI?
A. An SVI is a Layer 2 interface and uses a dynamic MAC address.
B. An SVI cannot have an IP address assigned to it.
C. An SVI provides Layer 3 routing between VLANs.
D. Each switch port requires an SVI assignment.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37
What is the Cisco Nexus Operating System command to define a port as a Layer 3 port?
A. Port routed
B. No switchport
C. l3 switchport
D. Port switching off

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 38
Which statement is correct regarding a routed port on a multilayer switch?
A. A routed port requires an SVI definition.
B. Routed ports cannot be configured on a multilayer switch that uses SVIs.
C. A maximum of 32 routed ports can be provisioned on a given multilayer switch.
D. A routed port is a physical port that supports Layer 3 routing.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 39
On a new Cisco Nexus switch, you receive an error message when you attempt to create an SVI. What is the first command you must use to create the SVI?
A. Interface vlan (vlan_id)
B. Vlan (vlan_id)
C. Feature svi
D. Interface routed

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 40
Which command should you use to configure a Cisco Nexus switch port for Layer 2 operation?
A. nexus(config-if)#switchport
B. nexus(config-if)#layer-2
C. nexus(config-if)#routed
D. nexus(config)#interface vlan 10 nexus(config-if)#switchport

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
Which version of Cisco Nexus Operating System became a common operating system for Cisco Nexus switches and Cisco MDS storage switches?
A. 2.7
B. 3.3
C. 3.9
D. 4.1
E. 5.01GD
F. 6.2
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
What are two core features of Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose two.)
A. SNMPv3
B. RMON
C. System Manager

D. PSS
E. VRF
F. TRILL
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 43
What is the acronym expansion of the UDLD feature of Cisco Nexus Operating System?
A. UniDirectional Link Detection
B. Unified Data Link Distribution
C. Unified Data Loss Detection
D. Unified Directional Link Distribution
E. Unidirectional Data Loss Detection
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
What are four security features that are included in Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco TrustSec
B. IEEE 802.1Qau
C. CoPP
D. port security
E. PIM
F. SSL VPN
G. IPsec VPN
H. ACLs
Correct Answer: ACDH QUESTION 45
What are three modular Layer 2 processes in Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose three.)
A. UDLD
B. PIM
C. HSRP
D. STP
E. Cisco Discovery Protocol

F. OSPF
Correct Answer: ADE

CCNA Exam Certification Guide is a best-of-breed Cisco 640-911 exam study guide that has been completely updated to focus specifically on the objectives.Senior instructor and best-selling author Wendell Odom shares preparation hints and Cisco 640-911 tips to help you identify areas of weakness and improve both your conceptual and hands-on knowledge.Cisco 640-911 Material is presented in a concise manner,focusing on increasing your understanding and retention of exam topics.

Cisco 400-101 Practice, 100% Success Rate Cisco 400-101 New Questions With Accurate Answers

100% Valid Dumps For Cisco 400-101 Exam Pass:Flydumps have been updated the Cisco 400-101 exam dumps and added the new exam questions, in the latest version of Cisco 400-101 PDF Flydumps or VCE practice test, you will get all the new changed Cisco 400-101 exam questions, which will help you 100% passing Cisco 400-101 exam. Welcome to visit our website Flydumps.com and get your Cisco 400-101 exam passed.

QUESTION 21
What is a cause for unicast flooding?
A. Unicast flooding occurs when multicast traffic arrives on a Layer 2 switch that has directly connected multicast receivers.
B. When PIM snooping is not enabled, unicast flooding occurs on the switch that interconnects the PIM-enabled routers.
C. A man-in-the-middle attack can cause the ARP cache of an end host to have the wrong MAC address. Instead of having the MAC address of the default gateway, it has a MAC address of the man-in-the-middle. This causes all traffic to be unicast flooded through the man-in-the-middle, which can then sniff all packets.
D. Forwarding table overflow prevents new MAC addresses from being learned, and packets destined to those MAC addresses are flooded until space becomes available in the forwarding table.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Causes of Flooding The very cause of flooding is that destination MAC address of the packet is not in the L2 forwarding table of the switch. In this case the packet will be flooded out of all forwarding ports in its VLAN (except the port it was received on). Below case studies display most common reasons for destination MAC address not being known to the switch. Cause 1: Asymmetric Routing Large amounts of flooded traffic might saturate low-bandwidth links causing network performance issues or complete connectivity outage to devices connected across such low-bandwidth links Cause 2: Spanning-Tree Protocol Topology Changes Another common issue caused by flooding is Spanning-Tree Protocol (STP) Topology Change Notification (TCN). TCN is designed to correct forwarding tables after the forwarding topology has changed. This is necessary to avoid a connectivity outage, as after a topology change some destinations previously accessible via particular ports might become accessible via different ports. TCN operates by shortening the forwarding table aging time, such that if the address is not relearned, it will age out and flooding will occur Cause 3: Forwarding Table Overflow Another possible cause of flooding can be overflow of the switch forwarding table. In this case, new addresses cannot be learned and packets destined to such addresses are flooded until some space becomes available in the forwarding table. New addresses will then be learned. This is possible but rare, since most modern switches have large enough forwarding tables to accommodate MAC addresses for most designs.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/catalyst-6000-series-switches/23563-143.html
QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.

Video Source S is sending interactive video traffic to Video Receiver R. Router R1 has multiple routing table entries for destination R. Which load-balancing mechanism on R1 can cause out-of-order video traffic to be received by destination R?
A. per-flow load balancing on R1 for destination R
B. per-source-destination pair load balancing on R1 for destination R
C. CEF load balancing on R1 for destination R
D. per-packet load balancing on R1 for destination R

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Per-packet load balancing guarantees equal load across all links, however potentially the packets may arrive out-of-order at the destination as differential delay may exist within the network.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/modules/ps2033/prod_technical_reference09186a00800afeb7.html
QUESTION 23
What is Nagle’s algorithm used for?
A. To increase the latency
B. To calculate the best path in distance vector routing protocols
C. To calculate the best path in link state routing protocols
D. To resolve issues caused by poorly implemented TCP flow control.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Silly window syndrome is a problem in computer networking caused by poorly implemented TCP flow control. A serious problem can arise in the sliding window operation when the sending application program creates data slowly, the receiving application program consumes data slowly, or both. If a server with this problem is unable to process all incoming data, it requests that its clients reduce the amount of data they send at a time (the window setting on a TCP packet). If the server continues to be unable to process all incoming data, the window becomes smaller and smaller, sometimes to the point that the data transmitted is smaller than the packet header, making data transmission extremely inefficient. The name of this problem is due to the window size shrinking to a “silly” value. When there is no synchronization between the sender and receiver regarding capacity of the flow of data or the size of the packet, the window syndrome problem is created. When the silly window syndrome is created by the sender, Nagle’s algorithm is used. Nagle’s solution requires that the sender sends the first segment even if it is a small one, then that it waits until an ACK is received or a maximum sized segment (MSS) is accumulated.
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Silly_window_syndrome
QUESTION 24
Which statement is true regarding the UDP checksum?
A. It is used for congestion control.
B. It cannot be all zeros.
C. It is used by some Internet worms to hide their propagation.
D. It is computed based on the IP pseudo-header.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The method used to compute the checksum is defined in RFC 768:
“Checksum is the 16-bit one’s complement of the one’s complement sum of a pseudo header of information from the IP header, the UDP header, and the data,
padded with zero octets at the end (if necessary) to make a multiple of two octets.”
In other words, all 16-bit words are summed using one’s complement arithmetic. Add the 16-bit values up. Each time a carry-out (17th bit) is produced, swing that
bit around and add it back into the least significant bit. The sum is then one’s complemented to yield the value of the UDP checksum field. If the checksum
calculation results in the value zero (all 16 bits 0) it should be sent as the one’s complement (all 1s).

Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/User_Datagram_Protocol

QUESTION 25
Which statement describes the purpose of the Payload Type field in the RTP header?
A. It identifies the signaling protocol.
B. It identifies the codec.
C. It identifies the port numbers for RTP.
D. It identifies the port numbers for RTCP.

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
PT, Payload Type. 7 bits: Identifies the format of the RTP payload and determines its interpretation by the application. A profile specifies a default static mapping of payload type codes to payload formats. Additional payload type codes may be defined dynamically through non-RTP means. An RTP sender emits a single RTP payload type at any given time; this field is not intended for multiplexing separate media streams. A full list of codecs and their payload type values can be found at the link below:
Reference: http://www.networksorcery.com/enp/protocol/rtp.htm
QUESTION 26
Which Cisco IOS XE process administers routing and forwarding?
A. Forwarding manager
B. Interface manager
C. Cisco IOS
D. Host manager

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Some of the processes are listed in the table below:

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/asr1000/configuration/guide/chassis/asrswcfg/Software_Packaging_Architecture.html
QUESTION 27
Which circumstance can cause packet loss due to a microburst?
A. slow convergence
B. a blocked spanning-tree port
C. process switching
D. insufficient buffers

Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Micro-bursting is a phenomenon where rapid bursts of data packets are sent in quick succession, leading to periods of full line-rate transmission that can overflow packet buffers of the network stack, both in network endpoints and routers and switches inside the network. Symptoms of micro bursts will manifest in the form of ignores and/ or overruns (also shown as accumulated in “input error” counter within show interface output). This is indicative of receive ring and corresponding packet buffer being overwhelmed due to data bursts coming in over extremely short period of time (microseconds).
Reference: http://ccieordie.com/?tag=micro-burst
QUESTION 28
Which two statements about proxy ARP are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is supported on networks without ARP.
B. It allows machines to spoof packets.
C. It must be used on a network with the host on a different subnet.
D. It requires larger ARP tables.
E. It reduces the amount of ARP traffic.

Correct Answer: BD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Disadvantages of Proxy ARP
Hosts have no idea of the physical details of their network and assume it to be a flat network in which they can reach any destination simply by sending an ARP
request. But using ARP for everything has disadvantages. These are some of the disadvantages:
It increases the amount of ARP traffic on your segment.
Hosts need larger ARP tables in order to handle IP-to-MAC address mappings.

Security can be undermined. A machine can claim to be another in order to intercept packets, an act called “spoofing.”

It does not work for networks that do not use ARP for address resolution.

It does not generalize to all network topologies. For example, more than one router that connects two physical networks.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/dynamic-address-allocation-resolution/13718-5.html
QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit.

Routers R1 and R2 are configured as shown, and traffic from R1 fails to reach host 209.165.201.254. Which action can you take to correct the problem?
A. Ensure that R2 has a default route in its routing table.
B. Change the OSPF area type on R1 and R2.
C. Edit the router configurations so that address 209.165.201.254 is a routable address.
D. Remove the default-information originate command from the OSPF configuration of R2. Correct Answer: A

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Not sure that any of these answers are correct, it appears that this configuration is valid for reaching that one specific host IP. Answer A does have a route to that host so it would not need a default route to get to it. Choice B is incorrect as the area types have nothing to do with this. C is incorrect as that IP address is routable, and D is needed so that R1 will have a default route advertised to it from R2 so that it can reach this destination.
QUESTION 30
Which service is disabled by the no service tcp-small-servers command?
A. the finger service
B. the Telnet service
C. the Maintenance Operation Protocol service
D. the chargen service

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The TCP small servers are:
Echo: Echoes back whatever you type through the telnet x.x.x.x echo command.
Chargen: Generates a stream of ASCII data. Use the telnet x.x.x.x chargen command.

DiscarD. Throws away whatever you type. Use the telnet x.x.x.x discard command.

DaytimE. Returns system date and time, if it is correct. It is correct if you run Network Time Protocol (NTP), or have set the date and time manually from the

exec level. Use the telnet x.x.x.x daytime command.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ios-nx-os-software/ios-software-releases-110/12815-23.html
QUESTION 31
Which two Cisco Express Forwarding tables are located in the data plane? (Choose two.)
A. the forwarding information base
B. the label forwarding information base
C. the IP routing table
D. the label information table
E. the adjacency table

Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The control plane runs protocols such as OSPF, BGP, STP, LDP. These protocols are needed so that routers and switches know how to forward packets and
frames.
The data plane is where the actual forwarding takes place. The data plane is populated based on the protocols running in the control plane. The Forwarding
Information Base (FIB) is used for IP traffic and the Label FIB is used for MPLS.

QUESTION 32
Which option is the most effective action to avoid packet loss due to microbursts?
A. Implement larger buffers.
B. Install a faster CPU.
C. Install a faster network interface.
D. Configure a larger tx-ring size.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You can’t avoid or prevent them as such without modifying the sending host’s application/network stack so it smoothes out the bursts. However, you can manage microbursts by tuning the size of receive buffers / rings to absorb occasional microbursts.
QUESTION 33
Which two statements about packet fragmentation on an IPv6 network are true? (Choose two.)
A. The fragment header is 64 bits long.
B. The identification field is 32 bits long.
C. The fragment header is 32 bits long.
D. The identification field is 64 bits long.
E. The MTU must be a minimum of 1280 bytes.
F. The fragment header is 48 bits long.
Correct Answer: AB Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
The fragment header is shown below, being 64 bits total with a 32 bit identification field: Reference: http://www.openwall.com/presentations/IPv6/img24.html

QUESTION 34
You are backing up a server with a 1 Gbps link and a latency of 2 ms. Which two statements about the backup are true? (Choose two.)
A. The bandwidth delay product is 2 Mb.
B. The default TCP send window size is the limiting factor.
C. The default TCP receive window size is the limiting factor.
D. The bandwidth delay product is 500 Mb.
E. The bandwidth delay product is 50 Mb.

Correct Answer: AC Explanation Explanation/Reference:
1 Gbps is the same as 1000 Mbps, and 1000Mb x .0002 = 2 Mbps. With TCP based data transfers, the receive window is always the limiting factor, as the sender is generally able to send traffic at line rate, but then must wait for the acknowledgements to send more data.
QUESTION 35
Which two pieces of information does RTCP use to inform endpoint devices about the RTP flow? (Choose two.)
A. the transmitted octet
B. the lost packet count
C. session control function provisioning information
D. the CNAME for session participants
E. the authentication method
F. MTU size changes in the path of the flow Correct Answer: AB

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
RTCP transports statistics for a media connection and information such as transmitted octet and packet counts, packet loss, packet delay variation, and round-trip delay time. An application may use this information to control quality of service parameters, perhaps by limiting flow, or using a different codec.
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/RTP_Control_Protocol
QUESTION 36
How many hash buckets does Cisco Express Forwarding use for load balancing?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32

Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference:
In order to understand how the load balance takes place, you must first see how the tables relate. The Cisco Express Forwarding table points to 16 hash buckets (load share table), which point to the adjacency table for parallel paths. Each packet to be switched is broken up into the source and destination address pair and checked against the loadshare table.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/express-forwarding-cef/18285-loadbal-cef.html
QUESTION 37
Which three features require Cisco Express Forwarding? (Choose three.)
A. NBAR
B. AutoQoS
C. fragmentation
D. MPLS
E. UplinkFast
F. BackboneFast

Correct Answer: ABD Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QoS Features That Require CEF These class-based QoS features are supported only on routers that run CEF. Network Based Application Recognition (NBAR) provides intelligent network classification. For more information, refer to Network Based Application

Recognition.
The AutoQoS -VoIP feature simplifies and speeds up the implementation and provisioning of QoS for VoIP traffic. This feature is enabled with the help of the
auto qos voip command. CEF must be enabled at the interface or ATM PVC before the auto qos command can be used. For more information about this feature and its prerequisites, refer to AutoQoS – VoIP.
From MPLS Fundamentals – Luc De Ghein Why Is CEF Needed in MPLS Networks? Concerning MPLS, CEF is special for a certain reason; otherwise, this book would not explicitly cover it. Labeled packets that enter the router are switched according to the label forwarding information base (LFIB) on the router. IP packets that enter the router are switched according to the CEF table on the router. Regardless of whether the packet is switched according to the LFIB or the CEF table, the outgoing packet can be a labeled packet or an IP packet
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/asynchronous-transfer-mode-atm/ip-to-atm-class-of-service/4800-cefreq.html
QUESTION 38
Which two options are interface requirements for turbo flooding? (Choose two.)
A. The interface is Ethernet.
B. The interface is configured for ARPA encapsulation.
C. The interface is PPP.
D. The interface is configured for GRE encapsulation.
E. The interface is configured for 802.1Q encapsulation.

Correct Answer: AB Explanation Explanation/Reference:
In the switch, the majority of packets are forwarded in hardware; most packets do not go through the switch CPU. For those packets that do go to the CPU, you can speed up spanning tree-based UDP flooding by a factor of about four to five times by using turbo-flooding. This feature is supported over Ethernet interfaces configured for ARPA encapsulation.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/metro/me3400/software/release/12-2_50_se/configuration/guide/scg/swiprout.html
QUESTION 39
Which three options are sub-subfields of the IPv4 Option Type subfield? (Choose three.)
A. Option Class
B. GET
C. Copied
D. PUSH
E. Option Number
F. TTL

Correct Answer: ACE Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Each IP option has its own subfield format, generally structured as shown below. For most options, all three subfields are used. Option Type, Option Length and Option Data.

Whenever Cisco candidates take a tour of sample questions of Cisco 400-101 exam they find their training to be matchless to great extent.Passing the Cisco 400-101 on your own can be a difficult task,but with Cisco 400-101 preparation products,many candidates who appeared online passed Cisco 400-101 easily.