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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCDP
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE v2.0)
Exam Code: 300-101
Total Questions: 247 Q&As
Last Updated: May 17, 2017


Teststarter 300-101 Dumps Virtual Routing and Forwarding-Lite

In this 300-101 article I’m sharing the basics of VRF Lite with two practical labs. I’ve received a couple of requests about this some time ago so, here it is. Note that the second lab is one I found on the internet and made a few changes.

Service providers often need to allow their customers’ traffic to pass through their cloud
without one customer’s traffic (and corresponding routes) be exposed to another customer.

VRF configuration isn’t at all dependent on MPLS but often the two components are chosen to run together. In Cisco terminology, deployment of VRFs without MPLS is known as VRF Lite.

Similarly, enterprise networks might need to segregate various teststarter 300-101 dumps application types, such as keeping voice and video traffic separate from data. These are just a couple of scenarios that could benefit from the Cisco Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF) feature.

VRF allows a single physical router to host multiple virtual routers, with those virtual routers logically isolated from one another, each with its own IP routing table. Simply put it, VRF’s are VLANs for layer 3, and is the basics to understanding MPLS.

Teststarter Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-101 Dumps Exam Q&As

Question Set 1
Refer to the exhibit.

Based on this FIB table, which statement is correct?
A. There is no default gateway.
B. The IP address of the router on FastEthernet is
C. The gateway of last resort is
D. The router will listen for all multicast traffic.
Correct Answer: C
The route is the default route and is listed as the first CEF entry. Here we see the next hop for this default route lists as the default router
(gateway of last resort).



Refer to the exhibit

A network administrator checks this adjacency table on a router. What is a possible cause for the incomplete marking?
A. incomplete ARP information
B. incorrect ACL
C. dynamic routing protocol failure
D. serial link congestion
Correct Answer: A
To display information about the Cisco Express Forwarding adjacency table or the hardware Layer 3-switching adjacency table, use the show adjacency
Reasons for Incomplete Adjacencies
There are two known reasons for an incomplete adjacency:
The router cannot use ARP successfully for the next-hop interface.
After a clear ip arp or a clear adjacency command, the router marks the adjacency as incomplete. Then it fails to clear the entry.
In an MPLS environment, IP CEF should be enabeled for Label Switching. Interface level command ip route-cache cef
No ARP Entry
When CEF cannot locate a valid adjacency for a destination prefix, it punts the packets to the CPU for ARP resolution and, in turn, for completion of the adjacency.



A network engineer notices that transmission rates of senders of TCP traffic sharply increase and decrease simultaneously during periods of congestion. Which
condition causes this?
A. global synchronization
B. tail drop
C. random early detection
D. queue management algorithm
Correct Answer: A
TCP global synchronization in computer networks can happen to TCP/IP flows during periods of congestion because each sender will reduce their transmission
rate at the same time when packet loss occurs.
Routers on the Internet normally have packet queues, to allow them to hold packets when the network is busy, rather than discarding them.
Because routers have limited resources, the size of these queues is also limited. The simplest technique to limit queue size is known as tail drop. The queue is
allowed to fill to its maximum size, and then any new packets are simply discarded, until there is space in the queue again. This causes problems when used on
TCP/IP routers handling multiple TCP streams, especially when bursty traffic is present. While the network is stable, the queue is constantly full, and there are no
problems except that the full queue results in high latency. However, the introduction of a sudden burst of traffic may cause large numbers of established, steady
streams to lose packets simultaneously.



Which three problems result from application mixing of UDP and TCP streams within a network with no QoS? (Choose three.)
A. starvation
B. jitter
C. latency
D. windowing
E. lower throughput
Correct Answer: ACE
It is a general best practice not to mix TCP-based traffic with UDP-based traffic (especially streaming video) within a single service provider class due to the
behaviors of these protocols during periods of congestion. Specifically, TCP transmitters will throttle-back flows when drops have been detected. Although some
UDP applications have application-level windowing, flow control, and retransmission capabilities, most UDP transmitters are completely oblivious to drops and thus
never lower transmission rates due to dropping. When TCP flows are combined with UDP flows in a single service provider class and the class experiences
congestion, then TCP flows will continually lower their rates, potentially giving up their bandwidth to drop-oblivious UDP flows. This effect is called TCP-starvation/
UDP-dominance. This can increase latency and lower the overall throughput.
TCP-starvation/UDP-dominance likely occurs if (TCP-based) mission-critical data is assigned to the same service provider class as (UDP-based) streaming video
and the class experiences sustained congestion. Even if WRED is enabled on the service provider class, the same behavior would be observed, as WRED (for the
most part) only affects TCP-based flows. Granted, it is not always possible to separate TCP-based flows from UDP-based flows, but it is beneficial to be aware of
this behavior when making such application-mixing decisions. Reference: 



Which method allows IPv4 and IPv6 to work together without requiring both to be used for a single connection during the migration process?
A. dual-stack method
B. 6to4 tunneling
C. GRE tunneling
Correct Answer: A
Dual stack means that devices are able to run IPv4 and IPv6 in parallel. It allows hosts to simultaneously reach IPv4 and IPv6 content, so it offers a very flexible
coexistence strategy. For sessions that support IPv6, IPv6 is used on a dual stack endpoint. If both endpoints support IPv4 only, then IPv4 is used.
Native dual stack does not require any tunneling mechanisms on internal networks
Both IPv4 and IPv6 run independent of each other
Dual stack supports gradual migration of endpoints, networks, and applications.



Which statement about the use of tunneling to migrate to IPv6 is true?
A. Tunneling is less secure than dual stack or translation.
B. Tunneling is more difficult to configure than dual stack or translation.
C. Tunneling does not enable users of the new protocol to communicate with users of the old protocol without dual-stack hosts.
D. Tunneling destinations are manually determined by the IPv4 address in the low-order 32 bits of IPv4-compatible IPv6 addresses.
Correct Answer: C
Using the tunneling option, organizations build an overlay network that tunnels one protocol over the other by encapsulating IPv6 packets within IPv4 packets and
IPv4 packets within IPv6 packets. The advantage of this approach is that the new protocol can work without disturbing the old protocol, thus providing connectivity
between users of the new protocol. Tunneling has two disadvantages, as discussed in RFC 6144:
Users of the new architecture cannot use the services of the underlying infrastructure.
Tunneling does not enable users of the new protocol to communicate with users of the old protocol without dual-stack hosts, which negates interoperability.



A network administrator executes the command clear ip route. Which two tables does this command clear and rebuild? (Choose two.)
A. IP routing
C. ARP cache
D. MAC address table
E. Cisco Express Forwarding table
F. topology table

Correct Answer: AB
To clear one or more entries in the IP routing table, use the following commands in any mode:
Command Purpose
clear ip route {* |
Clears one or more routes from both the
{route |
unicast RIB and all the module FIBs. The
prefix/length}[next-hop route options are as follows:
· *–All routes.
[vrf vrf-name]
· route–An individual IP route.
switch(config)# clear ip
· prefix/length–Any IP prefix.
· next-hop–The next-hop address
· interface–The interface to reach the
next-hop address.
The vrf-name can be any case-sensitive, al
phanumeric string up to 32 characters.



Which switching method is used when entries are present in the output of the command show ip cache?
A. fast switching
B. process switching
C. Cisco Express Forwarding switching
D. cut-through packet switching
Correct Answer: A
Fast switching allows higher throughput by switching a packet using a cache created by the initial packet sent to a particular destination. Destination addresses
are stored in the high-speed cache to expedite forwarding. Routers offer better packet-transfer performance when fast switching is enabled. Fast switching is
enabled by default on all interfaces that support fast switching.
To display the routing table cache used to fast switch IP traffic, use the “show ip cache” EXEC command.



Which two actions must you perform to enable and use window scaling on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Execute the command ip tcp window-size 65536.
B. Set window scaling to be used on the remote host.
C. Execute the command ip tcp queuemax.
D. Set TCP options to “enabled” on the remote host.
E. Execute the command ip tcp adjust-mss.
Correct Answer: AB
The TCP Window Scaling feature adds support for the Window Scaling option in RFC 1323, TCP Extensions for High Performance . A larger window size is
recommended to improve TCP performance in network paths with large bandwidth-delay product characteristics that are called Long Fat Networks (LFNs). The
TCP Window Scaling enhancement provides that support. The window scaling extension in Cisco IOS software expands the definition of the TCP window to 32
bits and then uses a scale factor to carry this 32-bit value in the 16-bit window field of the TCP header. The window size can increase to a scale factor of 14.
Typical applications use a scale factor of 3 when deployed in LFNs.
The TCP Window Scaling feature complies with RFC 1323. The larger scalable window size will allow TCP to perform better over LFNs. Use the ip tcp window
size command in global configuration mode to configure the TCP window size. In order for this to work, the remote host must also support this feature and its
window size must be increased. 

The worldwide network landscape is continually changing with new technologies being introduced continually. The new revision of the Cisco ROUTE 300-101 exam is the most information packed addition to the CCNP Routing and Switching curriculum experienced to date! By the time you’re done watching, you’ll be ready to configure routing protocols at a master level; grasp the big-picture of worldwide Cisco CCNP network design; fill in plenty of “knowledge gaps” left by the CCNA on routing protocols; and confidently sit for the teststarter 300-101 dumps.

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What is takin place at the Verifing Encryption stage of the wireless enterpriseactivation process? (Choose one)
A. The BlackBerry device and BlackBerry Enterprise Server are netotiating a master encryption key
B. All personal information on the BlackBerry device being compressed, encrytped and sent over the wirless network to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
C. All settings on the BlackBerry device are being verified by the BlackBerry Enterprise Server for security considerations
D. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server is sending service book information to the BlackBerry device
E. The BlackBerry device is scanning the BlackBerry Enterprise Server settings for security considerations

Correct Answer: E
Which of the following is an encryption standard that is used by the BlackBerry Enterprise Server to communicate with BlackBerry devices? (Shoose one)

Correct Answer: B
A BlackBerry device user who is active on a BlackBerry Enterpirse Server files an email message to a subfolder in the email application and notices the email message no longer appears in the Messages list on the BlackBerry device. Why is this email message no longer viewable in the mail Messages list? (Choose one)
A. The user has the option Hide Filed Messages set to Yes
B. The current theme active on the BlackBerry device is hiding the email message
C. A corrupt Desktop[CMIME] service book
D. Folder redirection is enabled
E. The BlackBerry device email message database is corrupt

Correct Answer: A



Which two of the following processes can determine the current build version of BlackBerry Desktop Manger that is installed? (Choose two)
A. Right click the BlackBerry Desktop Manager icon on the desktop and review properties B. Open BlackBerry Desktop Manager>Help>About Desktop Manager
C. Launch the BlackBerry Desktop Manager application and look at the title bar at the top fo the application
D. Open Control panel>Add / remover programs > Select Desktop Manager and choose click here for support info in Windows
E. Look on the BlackBerry Desktop Manager CD

Correct Answer: BD



Which file should be edited to enable advance loggin in BlackBerry Desktop Manager? (Choose one)
A. Dmtrace.log
B. Jvm.log
C. Tiff.log
D. iloptcfg.cfg
E. Sync.log

Correct Answer: D



1Z0-061 pdf QUESTION 16
Within the properties of a given Desktop service book, which field denotes the BlackBerry Enterprise Server that the BlackBerry device has been activated on? (Choose one)
D. Gatetway IP
E. User ID

Correct Answer: B



In BlackBerry Desktop Manager, the title bar continually shows a tatus of Disconnected after connecting the BlackBerry device to the computer. Which of the following troubleshooting steps would help resolve this issue? (Choose two)
A. Perform a clean install of the BlackBerry Device Software
B. Perform a hard reset fo the BlackBerry device
C. Uninstall previous installations of BlackBerry Device Software
D. Ensure Power Management options are turned off for the USB Root Hubs on the computer
E. Ensure no other USB devices are connected to the computer

Correct Answer: BD



If the synchronization process with BlackBerry Desktop Manager appears to be successful but no information is transferred to the BlackBerry device, what is the cause of this? (Choose one)
A. The BlackBerry device memory is full
B. The items were transferred to a media card instead of the internal BlackBerry device memory
C. The wireless radio is turned off
D. BlackBerry Desktop Manger is setup to sue the wrong MAPI profile
E. The BlackBerry device is missing the appropriate service books
Correct Answer: D



Which three of the following conditions must be met in order to initiate a wireless enterprise activation of a BlackBerry device on a BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose three)
A. The servccie provider has provisioned the BlackBerry device for the Enterprise service class
B. The user account has been added to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
C. The PIN number of th eBlackBerry device has been manually entered under the user account on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
D. An activation password has been set for the user on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
E. The BlackBerry devicemust reeive a token from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server

Correct Answer: ABD



When configuring a BlackBerry device for access to Wi-Fi, which two of the following pieces of infomration are required? (Choose two)

Correct Answer: CE



Which of the following can be obtained from the Options>Acout screren of the BlackBerry device? (choose one)
A. BlackBerry Device Software version
B. Owner information
C. Mobile Network IMSI
E. IT Policy name

Correct Answer: A

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Preparation Guide for Up To Date Microsoft 70-411 Exam Administering Windows Server 2012

Exam Code: 70-411
Exam Name: Administering Windows Server 2012
Updated: Mar 17, 2017
Q&As: 234
Published: September 17, 2012
Languages: English, Chinese (Simplified), French, German, Japanese, Portuguese (Brazil)
Audiences:IT professionals
Technology: Windows Server 2012 R2
Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSA, MCSE
Exam Information:http://www.real4exam.com/70-411.html

70-411 Exam Objetives

1.1 Deploy and manage server images

  • Windows Deployment Services Overview (TechNet Library)70-411 exam
  • What’s New for Windows Deployment Services (TechNet Library)
  • Windows Deployment Services Getting Started Guide for Windows Server 2012 (TechNet Library)
  • Deploying 70-411 exam Windows Server 2012: From Bare Metal, Server Core, Minimal Server Interface, and More (Session: Andrew Mason @ TechEd North America 2012)
  • What’s New in Windows Deployment Services in Windows Server 2012 R2 (R2)
  • Windows Deployment Services Cmdlets in Windows PowerShell (R2)
  • Using the WDS PowerShell Cmdlets in Windows Server 2012 R2 (R2)
  • Managing and Deploying Driver Packages in Windows Deployment Services (R2)


Real4exam Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-411 Exam Q&As 

70-411 exam Question No : 32 – (Topic 0)  Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain
contains a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has a
share named Share1.
When users without permission to Share1 attempt to access the share, they receive the
Access Denied message as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-411 exam

You deploy a new file server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to configure Server2 to display the same custom Access Denied message as
What should you install on Server2?
A. The Remote Assistance feature
B. The Storage Services server role
C. The File Server Resource Manager role service
D. The Enhanced Storage feature
Answer: C
Access-Denied Assistance is a new role service of the File Server role in Windows Server

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We need to install the prerequisites for Access-Denied Assistance.
Because Access-Denied Assistance relies up on e-mail notifications, we also need to
configure each relevant file server with a Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) server
address. Let’s do that quickly with Windows PowerShell:
Set-FSRMSetting -SMTPServer mailserver. nuggetlab.com -AdminEmailAddress
[email protected] -FromEmailAddress [email protected]
You can enable Access-Denied Assistance either on a per-server basis or centrally via
Group Policy. To my mind, the latter approach is infinitely preferable from an administration
Create a new GPO and make sure to target the GPO at your file servers’ Active Directory
computer accounts as well as those of your AD client computers. In the Group Policy
Object Editor, we are looking for the following path to configure Access-Denied Assistance:
\Computer Configuration\Policies\Administrative Templates\System\Access-Denied

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The Customize message for Access Denied errors policy, shown in the screenshot below,
enables us to create the actual message box shown to users when they access a shared
file to which their user account has no access.

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What’s cool about this policy is that we can “personalize” the e-mail notifications to give us
administrators (and, optionally, file owners) the details they need to resolve the permissions
issue quickly and easily.
For instance, we can insert pre-defined macros to swap in the full path to the target file, the
administrator e-mail address, and so forth. See this example:
Whoops! It looks like you’re having trouble accessing [Original File Path]. Please click
Request Assistance to send [Admin Email] a help request e-mail message. Thanks!
You should find that your users prefer these human-readable, informative error messages
to the cryptic, non-descript error dialogs they are accustomed to dealing with.
The Enable access-denied assistance on client for all file types policy should be enabled to
force client computers to participate in Access-Denied Assistance. Again, you must make
sure to target your GPO scope accordingly to “hit” your domain workstations as well as
your Windows Server 2012 file servers.
Testing the configuration
This should come as no surprise to you, but Access-Denied Assistance works only with
Windows Server 2012 and Windows 8 computers. More specifically, you must enable the
Desktop Experience feature on your servers to see Access-Denied Assistance messages
on server computers.
When a Windows 8 client computer attempts to open a file to which the user has no
access, the custom Access-Denied Assistance message should appear:

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If the user clicks Request Assistance in the Network Access dialog box, they see a
secondary message:

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At the end of this process, the administrator(s) will receive an e-mail message that contains
the key information they need in order to resolve the access problem:
The user’s Active Directory identity
The full path to the problematic file
A user-generated explanation of the problem
So that’s it, friends! Access-Denied Assistance presents Windows systems administrators
with an easy-to-manage method for more efficiently resolving user access problems on
shared file system resources. Of course, the key caveat is that your file servers must run
Windows Server 2012 and your client devices must run Windows 8, but other than that, this
is a great technology that should save admins extra work and end-users extra headaches.



70-411 exam Question No : 33 – (Topic 0)  You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the
File Server Resource Manager role service installed.
Each time a user receives an access-denied message after attempting to access a folder
✑ ✑ ✑ ✑ ✑ ✑ ✑
on Server1, an email notification is sent to a distribution list named DL1.
You create a folder named Folder1 on Server1, and then you configure custom NTFS
permissions for Folder1.
You need to ensure that when a user receives an access-denied message while attempting
to access Folder1, an email notification is sent to a distribution list named DL2. The
solution must not prevent DL1 from receiving notifications about other access-denied
What should you do?
A. From Server Manager, run the New Share Wizard to create a share for Folder1 by
selecting the SMB Share – Advanced option.
B. From the File Server Resource Manager console, modify the Access-Denied Assistance
C. From the File Server Resource Manager console, modify the Email Notifications
D. From Server Manager, run the New Share Wizard to create a share for Folder1 by
selecting the SMB Share -Applications option.
Answer: C
Configure the email notification settings
You must configure the email notification settings on each file server that will send the
access-denied assistance messages.
Open File Server Resource Manager. In Server Manager, click Tools, and then
click File Server Resource Manager.
Right-click File Server Resource Manager (Local), and then click Configure
Click the Email Notifications tab.
Configure the following settings:
In the SMTP server name or IP address box, type the name of IP address of the
SMTP server in your organization.
In the Default administrator recipients and Default “From” e-mail address boxes,
type the email address of the file server administrator.
Click Send Test E-mail to ensure that the email notifications are configured
Click OK.

70-411 exam Question No : 34 HOTSPOT – (Topic 0) Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain
contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the File
Server Resource Manager role service installed.
You need to configure Server1 to meet the following requirements:
Ensure that old files in a folder named Folder1 are archived automatically to a
folder named Archive1.
Ensure that all storage reports are saved to a network share.
Which two nodes should you configure?
To answer, select the appropriate two nodes in the answer area.
70-411 exam

70-411 exam



70-411 exam Question No : 35 DRAG DROP – (Topic 0)  You are a network administrator of an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the
Web Server (IIS) server role installed.
Server1 will host a web site at URL The application pool
identity account of the web site will be set to a domain user account named AppPool1.
You need to identify the setspn.exe command that you must run to configure the
appropriate Service Principal Name (SPN) for the web site.
What should you run?
To answer, drag the appropriate objects to the correct location. Each object may be used
once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or
scroll to view content.
70-411 exam


70-411 exam Question No : 36 – (Topic 0)  Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain
contains a domain controller named DC1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. DC1 is
backed up daily.
The domain has the Active Directory Recycle Bin enabled.
During routine maintenance, you delete 500 inactive user accounts and 100 inactive
groups. One of the deleted groups is named Group1. Some of the deleted user accounts
are members of some of the deleted groups.
For documentation purposes, you must provide a list of the members of Group1 before the
group was deleted.
You need to identify the names of the users who were members of Group1 prior to its
You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. What should you do first?
A. Mount the most recent Active Directory backup.
B. Reactivate the tombstone of Group1.
C. Perform an authoritative restore of Group1.
D. Use the Recycle Bin to restore Group1.
Answer: A
The Active Directory Recycle Bin does not have the ability to track simple changes to
If the object itself is not deleted, no element is moved to the Recycle Bin for possible
recovery in the future. In other words, there is no rollback capacity for changes to object
properties, or, in other words, to the values of these properties.

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft Windows Store apps
Exam Name: Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3
Exam Code: 70-480
Total Questions: 205 Q&As
Last Updated: Mar 06, 2017
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Question No : 18 HOTSPOT – (Topic 1)  An HTML page has a canvas element.
You need to draw a red rectangle on the canvas element dynamically. The rectangle
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How should you build the code segment? (To answer, select the appropriate options from
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Question No : 19 – (Topic 1)  You are developing an HTML5 page that has an element with an ID of logo. The page
includes the following HTML.
<div id=”logo”>
You need to move the logo element lower on the page by five pixels.
Which lines of code should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)
A. document.getElementById(“logo”) .style.position = “relative”;
B. document.getElementByld(“logo”).Style.top = “5px”;
C. document.getElementById(“logo”).style.top = “-5px”;
D. document.getElementById(“logo”).style.position = “absolute”;
Answer: A,B


Question No : 20 – (Topic 1)  You are developing a web page by using HTML5 and C5S3. The page includes a <div> tag
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When the page is rendered, the contents of the <div> tag appear on a line separate from
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Which line of code should you use?
A. document.getElementById(“validate”).style.display = “inline”;
B. document.getElementById(“validate”).style.margin = “0”;
C. document.getElementById(“validate”).style.padding = “0”;
D. document.getElementSyId(“validate”).style.display = “block”;
Answer: A


Question No : 21 HOTSPOT – (Topic 1) You are creating a web worker for an HTML5 application.
The following tasks must be performed from within the web worker:
Register an event listener for the web worker
Start and stop the web worker
You need to define a function that performs the required tasks.
Which code segment should you use? (To answer, select the appropriate option from the
drop-down list in the answer area.)
70-480 vce

70-480 vce

70-480 vce


Question No : 22 – (Topic 1)  You are creating a JavaScript function that displays the name of a web application.
You declare the following button element.
<input type=”button” id= “About” value=”About” />
When a user clicks the button, a JavaScript function named About must be called.
You need to create an event handler that calls the About function when the button is
Which two code segments can you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete
solution. Choose two.)

70-480 vce

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C,D


Question No : 23 HOTSPOT – (Topic 1)  You are creating a function by using JavaScript. The function accepts an object as the
parameter and returns a string that identifies the data type of the object.
✑ ✑ ✑
You have the following requirements:
The function must return “Number” if the object is a number.
The function must return “String” if the object is a string.
The function must return “Unknown” if the object is neither a number nor a string.
You need to implement the function to meet the requirements.
How should you build the code segment? (To answer, select the appropriate options from
the drop-down lists in the answer area.)

70-480 vce

70-480 vce

70-480 vce


Question No : 24 – (Topic 1) You need to test the value of the following variable in JavaScript.
var length = “75”;
A block of code must execute if the length equals 75 regardless of the data type.
You need to use the statement that meets this requirement.
Which lines of code should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
Choose two.)
A. if (length = = = 75)
B. if (length = = 75)
C. if (length! = 75)
D. if (length = = “75”)
Answer: B,D

Question No : 25 – (Topic 1) You are developing an application that uses a third-party JavaScript library named
The library occasionally throws an “object is null or undefined” error with an error code of
The application must:
Extract and handle the exceptions thrown by doWork()
Continue normal program execution if other exceptions occur
You need to implement the requirements.
Which code segment should you use?
70-480 vce

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C

I’ll keep things short and sweet in this 70-480 vce.  The content below will cover all of the sections described in the “Skills Measured” section of the Microsoft article that describes the Microsoft Certification exam 70-480 dumps: Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3.  I was not surprised to find that the vast majority of the test topics are discussed on the following two sites: http://www.collection4pdf.com/microsoft-70-483-exam-certification-training/, and  http://www.exampass.net/microsoft-70-243-exam-youtube-training-materials.html.  Since all three of these sites provide extremely reliable information, I attempted to stick with these three sites for all of the 70-480 pdf study guide materials.  You will find that for the most part I was successful.  Enough of my rambling though.  Let’s get started.

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The FireAMP Mobile endpoint connector currently supports which mobile OS device?
A. Firefox
C. Android
D. iPhone

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2
Which statement describes an advantage of the FireAMP product?
A. Signatures are pushed to endpoints more quickly than other antivirus products.
B. Superior detection algorithms on the endpoint limit the amount of work the cloud must perform.
C. It provides enterprise visibility.
D. It relies on sandboxing.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
Which feature allows retrospective detection?
A. Total Recall
B. Cloud Recall
C. Recall Alert
D. Recall Analysis

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
Which statement describes an advantage of cloud-based detection?
A. Limited customization allows for faster detection.
B. Fewer resources are required on the endpoint.
C. Sandboxing reduces the overall management overhead of the system.
D. High-speed analytical engines on the endpoint limit the amount of work the cloud must perform.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
The FireAMP connector monitors the system for which type of activity?
A. Vulnerabilities
B. Enforcement of usage policies
C. File operations
D. Authentication activity

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
Which disposition can be returned in response to a malware cloud lookup?
A. Dirty
B. Virus
C. Malware
D. Infected

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 7
Which option is a detection technology that is used by FireAMP?
A. fuzzy matching
B. Norton AntiVirus
C. network scans
D. Exterminator

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 8
If a file’s SHA-256 hash is sent to the cloud, but the cloud has never seen the hash before, which disposition is returned?
A. Clean
B. Neutral
C. Malware
D. Unavailable

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 9
File information is sent to the Sourcefire Collective Security Intelligence Cloud using which format?
A. MD5
B. SHA-1
C. filenames

D. SHA-256 Correct Answer: D
Question Set 1 QUESTION 1
How does application blocking enhance security?
A. It identifies and logs usage.
B. It tracks application abuse.
C. It deletes identified applications.
D. It blocks vulnerable applications from running, until they are patched.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
Which set of actions would you take to create a simple custom detection?
A. Add a SHA-256 value; upload a file to calculate a SHA-256 value; upload a text file that contains SHA-256 values.
B. Upload a packet capture; use a Snort rule; use a ClamAV rule.
C. Manually input the PE header data, the MD-5 hash, and a list of MD-5 hashes.
D. Input the file and file name.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
Advanced custom signatures are written using which type of syntax?
A. Snort signatures
B. Firewall signatures
C. ClamAV signatures
D. bash shell

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
When discussing the FireAMP product, which term does the acronym DFC represent?
A. It means Detected Forensic Cause.
B. It means Duplicate File Contents.
C. It means Device Flow Correlation.
D. It is not an acronym that is associated with the FireAMP product.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 5
Custom whitelists are used for which purpose?
A. to specify which files to alert on
B. to specify which files to delete
C. to specify which files to ignore
D. to specify which files to sandbox Correct Answer: C

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Which two business use trends have surfaced in the last five years and require nontraditional security? (Choose two.)
B. Wi-Fi connections
C. partial URL and application blocking
D. third-party applications
E. web and email attacks
F. a large number of remote employees

Correct Answer: AF
Which three options describe the main problems with traditional security solutions? (Choose three.)
A. fragmented solutions
B. the lack of management solutions
C. missing components
D. solutions being pieced together
E. the lack of a cloud solution
F. the lack of a firewall
G. security gaps

Correct Answer: ADG
The current Cisco comprehensive framework solutions are divided into which three categories? (Choose three.)
A. Content Security
B. Cloud Security
C. Network Security
D. Access Security
E. Data Center Security
F. Internet Security
G. Advanced Malware Protection

Correct Answer: ACD
In the Cisco future solutions architecture framework, the security solutions are directly built upon which component?
A. management and intelligence capabilities
B. Cisco security platforms
C. third-party applications
D. security intelligence operations
Correct Answer: B

Which three values should you use to position Cisco security solutions? (Choose three.)
A. time-to-value
B. protection
C. control
D. integration
E. flexibility
F. agility
G. scalability
Correct Answer: BCE
Cisco Architecture Solutions
Which Cisco security technology delivers the best real-time threat intelligence?
A. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall
B. Cisco Identity Services Engine
C. Cisco Security Manager
D. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
E. Cisco TrustSec

Correct Answer: D
Which two solutions are main components of Cisco Content Security? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall
B. Cisco Web Security
C. Cisco Remote-Access VPN
D. Sourcefire Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
E. Cisco Email Security
F. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection

Correct Answer: BE
Cisco Content Security integrates seamlessly with existing security and network infrastructures. This statement describes which Cisco value?
A. time-to-value
B. protection
C. control
D. scalability
E. flexibility
F. agility
Correct Answer: E

Which two features are components of the Cisco Web Security Appliance? (Choose two.)
A. encryption
B. URL filtering
C. user identity tracking
D. antispam defense
E. impact assessment
F. Cisco Application Visibility and Control
G. context awareness
H. device profiling and onboarding

Correct Answer: BF
Cisco network security offers unmatched visibility and control of network and application traffic. This statement describes which Cisco value?
A. time-to-value
B. protection
C. control
D. scalability
E. flexibility
F. agility

Correct Answer: C
Which four solutions are Cisco network security solutions? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco site-to-site VPN technologies
B. Cisco Identity and Access Control
C. Cisco Email Security
D. Cisco Web Security Appliance
E. Sourcefire Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
F. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall
G. Cisco security appliance
H. Cisco Remote-Access VPN

Correct Answer: AEFG
Which two features are part of site-to-site VPN? (Choose two.)
A. web email controls
B. user identity traction
C. SSL decryption
D. Snort technology
E. remote access
F. seamless connection with Cisco ASA

Correct Answer: EF
Cisco Secure Access Solutions delivers a secure connection to a continually growing number of endpoints. This statement is an example of which Cisco value?
A. time-to-value
B. protection
C. control
D. scalability
E. flexibility
F. agility
Correct Answer: E
Which feature is a primary feature of Cisco AnyConnect?
A. role-based policy management
B. context-aware access
C. secure and flexible remote access
D. SSL decryption

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Which option is an example of a distance vector routing protocol?

Correct Answer: A
Which option is an example of an advanced distance vector routing protocol?
Correct Answer: A
Which option is an example of a link-state routing protocol?
Correct Answer: C
What is the maximum allowable hop count for RIPv1?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 15
E. 16
Correct Answer: D
What is the default periodic interval at which RIPv1 sends routing updates?
A. 15 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 45 seconds
D. 60 seconds
E. 90 seconds
F. RIPv1 only sends routing updates when the topology changes.
Correct Answer: B
What does RIPv1 send to its neighbors?
A. Information about changed routes
B. Information about new routes
C. The entire routing table
D. Information about deleted routes
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 35
What are two advantages of employing an external router for inter-VLAN routing over an IEEE 802.1Q trunk link? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 3 functionality is not required on the switch.
B. The router facilitates communication between VLANs.
C. The single traffic path is optimized.
D. Latency is reduced as packets leave the switch.
E. Equal-Cost Multipath is supported.

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 36
Which statement correctly describes an SVI?
A. An SVI is a Layer 2 interface and uses a dynamic MAC address.
B. An SVI cannot have an IP address assigned to it.
C. An SVI provides Layer 3 routing between VLANs.
D. Each switch port requires an SVI assignment.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37
What is the Cisco Nexus Operating System command to define a port as a Layer 3 port?
A. Port routed
B. No switchport
C. l3 switchport
D. Port switching off

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 38
Which statement is correct regarding a routed port on a multilayer switch?
A. A routed port requires an SVI definition.
B. Routed ports cannot be configured on a multilayer switch that uses SVIs.
C. A maximum of 32 routed ports can be provisioned on a given multilayer switch.
D. A routed port is a physical port that supports Layer 3 routing.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 39
On a new Cisco Nexus switch, you receive an error message when you attempt to create an SVI. What is the first command you must use to create the SVI?
A. Interface vlan (vlan_id)
B. Vlan (vlan_id)
C. Feature svi
D. Interface routed

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 40
Which command should you use to configure a Cisco Nexus switch port for Layer 2 operation?
A. nexus(config-if)#switchport
B. nexus(config-if)#layer-2
C. nexus(config-if)#routed
D. nexus(config)#interface vlan 10 nexus(config-if)#switchport

Correct Answer: A
Which version of Cisco Nexus Operating System became a common operating system for Cisco Nexus switches and Cisco MDS storage switches?
A. 2.7
B. 3.3
C. 3.9
D. 4.1
E. 5.01GD
F. 6.2
Correct Answer: D
What are two core features of Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose two.)
C. System Manager

Correct Answer: CD
What is the acronym expansion of the UDLD feature of Cisco Nexus Operating System?
A. UniDirectional Link Detection
B. Unified Data Link Distribution
C. Unified Data Loss Detection
D. Unified Directional Link Distribution
E. Unidirectional Data Loss Detection
Correct Answer: A
What are four security features that are included in Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco TrustSec
B. IEEE 802.1Qau
D. port security
G. IPsec VPN
Correct Answer: ACDH QUESTION 45
What are three modular Layer 2 processes in Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose three.)
E. Cisco Discovery Protocol

Correct Answer: ADE

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What is a cause for unicast flooding?
A. Unicast flooding occurs when multicast traffic arrives on a Layer 2 switch that has directly connected multicast receivers.
B. When PIM snooping is not enabled, unicast flooding occurs on the switch that interconnects the PIM-enabled routers.
C. A man-in-the-middle attack can cause the ARP cache of an end host to have the wrong MAC address. Instead of having the MAC address of the default gateway, it has a MAC address of the man-in-the-middle. This causes all traffic to be unicast flooded through the man-in-the-middle, which can then sniff all packets.
D. Forwarding table overflow prevents new MAC addresses from being learned, and packets destined to those MAC addresses are flooded until space becomes available in the forwarding table.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Causes of Flooding The very cause of flooding is that destination MAC address of the packet is not in the L2 forwarding table of the switch. In this case the packet will be flooded out of all forwarding ports in its VLAN (except the port it was received on). Below case studies display most common reasons for destination MAC address not being known to the switch. Cause 1: Asymmetric Routing Large amounts of flooded traffic might saturate low-bandwidth links causing network performance issues or complete connectivity outage to devices connected across such low-bandwidth links Cause 2: Spanning-Tree Protocol Topology Changes Another common issue caused by flooding is Spanning-Tree Protocol (STP) Topology Change Notification (TCN). TCN is designed to correct forwarding tables after the forwarding topology has changed. This is necessary to avoid a connectivity outage, as after a topology change some destinations previously accessible via particular ports might become accessible via different ports. TCN operates by shortening the forwarding table aging time, such that if the address is not relearned, it will age out and flooding will occur Cause 3: Forwarding Table Overflow Another possible cause of flooding can be overflow of the switch forwarding table. In this case, new addresses cannot be learned and packets destined to such addresses are flooded until some space becomes available in the forwarding table. New addresses will then be learned. This is possible but rare, since most modern switches have large enough forwarding tables to accommodate MAC addresses for most designs.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/catalyst-6000-series-switches/23563-143.html
Refer to the exhibit.

Video Source S is sending interactive video traffic to Video Receiver R. Router R1 has multiple routing table entries for destination R. Which load-balancing mechanism on R1 can cause out-of-order video traffic to be received by destination R?
A. per-flow load balancing on R1 for destination R
B. per-source-destination pair load balancing on R1 for destination R
C. CEF load balancing on R1 for destination R
D. per-packet load balancing on R1 for destination R

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Per-packet load balancing guarantees equal load across all links, however potentially the packets may arrive out-of-order at the destination as differential delay may exist within the network.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/modules/ps2033/prod_technical_reference09186a00800afeb7.html
What is Nagle’s algorithm used for?
A. To increase the latency
B. To calculate the best path in distance vector routing protocols
C. To calculate the best path in link state routing protocols
D. To resolve issues caused by poorly implemented TCP flow control.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Silly window syndrome is a problem in computer networking caused by poorly implemented TCP flow control. A serious problem can arise in the sliding window operation when the sending application program creates data slowly, the receiving application program consumes data slowly, or both. If a server with this problem is unable to process all incoming data, it requests that its clients reduce the amount of data they send at a time (the window setting on a TCP packet). If the server continues to be unable to process all incoming data, the window becomes smaller and smaller, sometimes to the point that the data transmitted is smaller than the packet header, making data transmission extremely inefficient. The name of this problem is due to the window size shrinking to a “silly” value. When there is no synchronization between the sender and receiver regarding capacity of the flow of data or the size of the packet, the window syndrome problem is created. When the silly window syndrome is created by the sender, Nagle’s algorithm is used. Nagle’s solution requires that the sender sends the first segment even if it is a small one, then that it waits until an ACK is received or a maximum sized segment (MSS) is accumulated.
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Silly_window_syndrome
Which statement is true regarding the UDP checksum?
A. It is used for congestion control.
B. It cannot be all zeros.
C. It is used by some Internet worms to hide their propagation.
D. It is computed based on the IP pseudo-header.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
The method used to compute the checksum is defined in RFC 768:
“Checksum is the 16-bit one’s complement of the one’s complement sum of a pseudo header of information from the IP header, the UDP header, and the data,
padded with zero octets at the end (if necessary) to make a multiple of two octets.”
In other words, all 16-bit words are summed using one’s complement arithmetic. Add the 16-bit values up. Each time a carry-out (17th bit) is produced, swing that
bit around and add it back into the least significant bit. The sum is then one’s complemented to yield the value of the UDP checksum field. If the checksum
calculation results in the value zero (all 16 bits 0) it should be sent as the one’s complement (all 1s).

Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/User_Datagram_Protocol

Which statement describes the purpose of the Payload Type field in the RTP header?
A. It identifies the signaling protocol.
B. It identifies the codec.
C. It identifies the port numbers for RTP.
D. It identifies the port numbers for RTCP.

Correct Answer: B Explanation
PT, Payload Type. 7 bits: Identifies the format of the RTP payload and determines its interpretation by the application. A profile specifies a default static mapping of payload type codes to payload formats. Additional payload type codes may be defined dynamically through non-RTP means. An RTP sender emits a single RTP payload type at any given time; this field is not intended for multiplexing separate media streams. A full list of codecs and their payload type values can be found at the link below:
Reference: http://www.networksorcery.com/enp/protocol/rtp.htm
Which Cisco IOS XE process administers routing and forwarding?
A. Forwarding manager
B. Interface manager
C. Cisco IOS
D. Host manager

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Some of the processes are listed in the table below:

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/asr1000/configuration/guide/chassis/asrswcfg/Software_Packaging_Architecture.html
Which circumstance can cause packet loss due to a microburst?
A. slow convergence
B. a blocked spanning-tree port
C. process switching
D. insufficient buffers

Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Micro-bursting is a phenomenon where rapid bursts of data packets are sent in quick succession, leading to periods of full line-rate transmission that can overflow packet buffers of the network stack, both in network endpoints and routers and switches inside the network. Symptoms of micro bursts will manifest in the form of ignores and/ or overruns (also shown as accumulated in “input error” counter within show interface output). This is indicative of receive ring and corresponding packet buffer being overwhelmed due to data bursts coming in over extremely short period of time (microseconds).
Reference: http://ccieordie.com/?tag=micro-burst
Which two statements about proxy ARP are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is supported on networks without ARP.
B. It allows machines to spoof packets.
C. It must be used on a network with the host on a different subnet.
D. It requires larger ARP tables.
E. It reduces the amount of ARP traffic.

Correct Answer: BD Explanation
Disadvantages of Proxy ARP
Hosts have no idea of the physical details of their network and assume it to be a flat network in which they can reach any destination simply by sending an ARP
request. But using ARP for everything has disadvantages. These are some of the disadvantages:
It increases the amount of ARP traffic on your segment.
Hosts need larger ARP tables in order to handle IP-to-MAC address mappings.

Security can be undermined. A machine can claim to be another in order to intercept packets, an act called “spoofing.”

It does not work for networks that do not use ARP for address resolution.

It does not generalize to all network topologies. For example, more than one router that connects two physical networks.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/dynamic-address-allocation-resolution/13718-5.html
Refer to the exhibit.

Routers R1 and R2 are configured as shown, and traffic from R1 fails to reach host Which action can you take to correct the problem?
A. Ensure that R2 has a default route in its routing table.
B. Change the OSPF area type on R1 and R2.
C. Edit the router configurations so that address is a routable address.
D. Remove the default-information originate command from the OSPF configuration of R2. Correct Answer: A

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Not sure that any of these answers are correct, it appears that this configuration is valid for reaching that one specific host IP. Answer A does have a route to that host so it would not need a default route to get to it. Choice B is incorrect as the area types have nothing to do with this. C is incorrect as that IP address is routable, and D is needed so that R1 will have a default route advertised to it from R2 so that it can reach this destination.
Which service is disabled by the no service tcp-small-servers command?
A. the finger service
B. the Telnet service
C. the Maintenance Operation Protocol service
D. the chargen service

Correct Answer: D Explanation
The TCP small servers are:
Echo: Echoes back whatever you type through the telnet x.x.x.x echo command.
Chargen: Generates a stream of ASCII data. Use the telnet x.x.x.x chargen command.

DiscarD. Throws away whatever you type. Use the telnet x.x.x.x discard command.

DaytimE. Returns system date and time, if it is correct. It is correct if you run Network Time Protocol (NTP), or have set the date and time manually from the

exec level. Use the telnet x.x.x.x daytime command.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ios-nx-os-software/ios-software-releases-110/12815-23.html
Which two Cisco Express Forwarding tables are located in the data plane? (Choose two.)
A. the forwarding information base
B. the label forwarding information base
C. the IP routing table
D. the label information table
E. the adjacency table

Correct Answer: AB Explanation
The control plane runs protocols such as OSPF, BGP, STP, LDP. These protocols are needed so that routers and switches know how to forward packets and
The data plane is where the actual forwarding takes place. The data plane is populated based on the protocols running in the control plane. The Forwarding
Information Base (FIB) is used for IP traffic and the Label FIB is used for MPLS.

Which option is the most effective action to avoid packet loss due to microbursts?
A. Implement larger buffers.
B. Install a faster CPU.
C. Install a faster network interface.
D. Configure a larger tx-ring size.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
You can’t avoid or prevent them as such without modifying the sending host’s application/network stack so it smoothes out the bursts. However, you can manage microbursts by tuning the size of receive buffers / rings to absorb occasional microbursts.
Which two statements about packet fragmentation on an IPv6 network are true? (Choose two.)
A. The fragment header is 64 bits long.
B. The identification field is 32 bits long.
C. The fragment header is 32 bits long.
D. The identification field is 64 bits long.
E. The MTU must be a minimum of 1280 bytes.
F. The fragment header is 48 bits long.
Correct Answer: AB Explanation

The fragment header is shown below, being 64 bits total with a 32 bit identification field: Reference: http://www.openwall.com/presentations/IPv6/img24.html

You are backing up a server with a 1 Gbps link and a latency of 2 ms. Which two statements about the backup are true? (Choose two.)
A. The bandwidth delay product is 2 Mb.
B. The default TCP send window size is the limiting factor.
C. The default TCP receive window size is the limiting factor.
D. The bandwidth delay product is 500 Mb.
E. The bandwidth delay product is 50 Mb.

Correct Answer: AC Explanation Explanation/Reference:
1 Gbps is the same as 1000 Mbps, and 1000Mb x .0002 = 2 Mbps. With TCP based data transfers, the receive window is always the limiting factor, as the sender is generally able to send traffic at line rate, but then must wait for the acknowledgements to send more data.
Which two pieces of information does RTCP use to inform endpoint devices about the RTP flow? (Choose two.)
A. the transmitted octet
B. the lost packet count
C. session control function provisioning information
D. the CNAME for session participants
E. the authentication method
F. MTU size changes in the path of the flow Correct Answer: AB

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
RTCP transports statistics for a media connection and information such as transmitted octet and packet counts, packet loss, packet delay variation, and round-trip delay time. An application may use this information to control quality of service parameters, perhaps by limiting flow, or using a different codec.
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/RTP_Control_Protocol
How many hash buckets does Cisco Express Forwarding use for load balancing?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32

Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference:
In order to understand how the load balance takes place, you must first see how the tables relate. The Cisco Express Forwarding table points to 16 hash buckets (load share table), which point to the adjacency table for parallel paths. Each packet to be switched is broken up into the source and destination address pair and checked against the loadshare table.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/express-forwarding-cef/18285-loadbal-cef.html
Which three features require Cisco Express Forwarding? (Choose three.)
B. AutoQoS
C. fragmentation
E. UplinkFast
F. BackboneFast

Correct Answer: ABD Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QoS Features That Require CEF These class-based QoS features are supported only on routers that run CEF. Network Based Application Recognition (NBAR) provides intelligent network classification. For more information, refer to Network Based Application

The AutoQoS -VoIP feature simplifies and speeds up the implementation and provisioning of QoS for VoIP traffic. This feature is enabled with the help of the
auto qos voip command. CEF must be enabled at the interface or ATM PVC before the auto qos command can be used. For more information about this feature and its prerequisites, refer to AutoQoS – VoIP.
From MPLS Fundamentals – Luc De Ghein Why Is CEF Needed in MPLS Networks? Concerning MPLS, CEF is special for a certain reason; otherwise, this book would not explicitly cover it. Labeled packets that enter the router are switched according to the label forwarding information base (LFIB) on the router. IP packets that enter the router are switched according to the CEF table on the router. Regardless of whether the packet is switched according to the LFIB or the CEF table, the outgoing packet can be a labeled packet or an IP packet
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/asynchronous-transfer-mode-atm/ip-to-atm-class-of-service/4800-cefreq.html
Which two options are interface requirements for turbo flooding? (Choose two.)
A. The interface is Ethernet.
B. The interface is configured for ARPA encapsulation.
C. The interface is PPP.
D. The interface is configured for GRE encapsulation.
E. The interface is configured for 802.1Q encapsulation.

Correct Answer: AB Explanation Explanation/Reference:
In the switch, the majority of packets are forwarded in hardware; most packets do not go through the switch CPU. For those packets that do go to the CPU, you can speed up spanning tree-based UDP flooding by a factor of about four to five times by using turbo-flooding. This feature is supported over Ethernet interfaces configured for ARPA encapsulation.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/metro/me3400/software/release/12-2_50_se/configuration/guide/scg/swiprout.html
Which three options are sub-subfields of the IPv4 Option Type subfield? (Choose three.)
A. Option Class
C. Copied
E. Option Number

Correct Answer: ACE Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Each IP option has its own subfield format, generally structured as shown below. For most options, all three subfields are used. Option Type, Option Length and Option Data.

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The vPC peer-gateway capability allows a vPC switch to act as the active gateway for packets that are addressed to the router MAC address of the vPC peer. This feature enables local forwarding of such packets without the need to cross the vPC peer link. Which statements are true about the vPC peer-gateway? (Choose two.)
A. The vPC peer-gateway feature is enabled by default.
B. The vPC peer-gateway feature can be configured globally under the vPC domain submode.
C. Enabling the peer-gateway feature automatically disables IP redirects on all interface VLANs mapped over a vPC VLAN to avoid generation of IP redirect messages for packets switched through the peer gateway router.
D. The vPC peer-gateway feature only works with HSRP protocol.

Correct Answer: BC
Cisco UCS provides integration interfaces and protocols to support heterogeneous data center environments and supports standard monitoring and event notification systems, providing data to standard enterprise-management tools.
Which two of these list the primary Cisco UCS interfaces and industry standard-based read-only interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. UCS Manager XML API and UCS CLI
C. UCS Manager, DCOS, and Local-mgmt
D. SoL and NX-OS
E. debug-plugin and UCS Manager GUI
Correct Answer: AB
A virtual port channel (vPC) allows links that are physically connected to two different Cisco Nexus devices to appear as a single port channel to a third device.
Which are the mandatory steps for configuring vPC? (Choose six.)
A. Enable feature vPC
B. Define domains
C. Establish peer keepalive connectivity
D. Create a peer link
E. Configure the peer link as a trunk port
F. Create port channels and vPCs
G. Define port channel load-balancing method
H. Make sure configurations are consistent

Correct Answer: ABCDFH QUESTION 24
When creating a role in a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, rules are used to define the type of operations that a role will allow the user to perform. Which two of these parameters cannot be applied as a rule? (Choose two.)
A. port-profile
B. command
C. access-list
D. feature-group

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 25
Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) overlay interface is a logical multiaccess and multicast- capable interface that must be explicitly defined by the user and where the entire OTV configuration is applied.
Which statements are true about OTV overlay interface? (Choose two.)
A. When an OTV edge device receives a Layer 2 frame destined for a remote data center site, the frame is logically forwarded to the overlay interface.
B. The OTV edge device performs the dynamic OTV encapsulation on the Layer 2 packet and sends it to the join interface toward the routed domain.
C. When the OTV edge device receives a Layer 2 frame destined for a remote data center site, the frame is logically forwarded to the join interface.
D. The OTV edge device performs the dynamic OTV encapsulation on the Layer 2 packet and sends it to the overlay interface toward the routed domain.

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator is seeing N7K-1 having issues with VLAN 11, and interface VLAN 11 is resetting, causing frequent HSRP state changes. Which two actions would reduce HSRP state changes? (Choose two.)
A. On N7K-1, configure the HSRP extended hold timer to 180, extending the HSRP hello message hold time.
B. On N7K-2, configure the HSRP extended hold timer to 180, extending the HSRP hello message hold time.
C. On N7K-1, configure the pre-empt delay minimum to 180 in order to delay N7K-1 from taking over as the HSRP active router.
D. On N7K-2, configure the pre-empt delay minimum to 180 in order to delay N7K-2 from taking over as the HSRP active router.
E. On N7K-2, increase the HSRP priority to 150.
F. On N7K-2, decrease the HSRP priority to 50.

Correct Answer: CE
Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) join interface is used to source the OTV encapsulated traffic and send it to the Layer 3 domain of the data center network. Which statements are true about OTV join interface? (Choose three.)
A. Join interface is a Layer 3 entity, and with the Cisco NX-OS release 6.0, it can only be defined as a physical interface, physical subinterface, Layer 3 port channel, or Layer 3 port channel subinterface.
B. A single join interface can be defined and associated with a given OTV overlay.
C. Multiple overlays can also share the same join interface.
D. Join interface can be a loopback interface.
E. The join interface is a Layer 3 entity that can be defined as a physical interface but not as a logical one.

Correct Answer: ABC
Cisco NX-OS Software supports SNMPv1, SNMPv2c, and SNMPv3. Both SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c use a community-based form of security. SNMPv3 provides secure access to devices by a combination of authenticating and encrypting frames over the network. Which security features are provided in Cisco NX-OS SNMPv3? (Choose three.)
A. encryption–scrambles the packet contents to prevent them from being seen by unauthorized sources
B. password–a password (community string) sent in clear text between a manager and agent for added protection
C. authentication–determines that the message is from a valid source
D. message integrity–ensures that a packet has not been tampered with while it was in transit
E. user–to determine if user authentication is used instead of community strings

Correct Answer: ACD
The hardware and software configurations for vPC+ are similar to that of traditional vPC. What are the differences in the configuration of vPC+? (Choose three.)
A. FabricPath switch ID must be configured under the vPC domain.
B. Virtual switch ID of vPC+ must be configured under FabricPath domain.
C. On Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, F1 interfaces must be used as the vPC+ peer links.
D. The vPC+ peer link must be configured as a Cisco FabricPath core port (switchport mode fabricpath).
E. FabricPath subswitch ID must be configured under the vPC domain.

Correct Answer: ACD
Smart Call Home provides an email-based notification for critical system policies. A range of message formats are available for compatibility with pager services, standard email, or XML- based automated parsing applications. Destination profiles are used by Smart Call Home when sending notifications. Which of these are predefined destination profiles supported by Cisco NX-OS Software? (Choose three.)
A. short-text-destination
B. prerecorded audio alerts
C. CiscoTAC-1
D. dial911
E. full-text-destination

Correct Answer: ACE
After configuring FabricPath, the following appears in the syslog:
%STP-2-L2GW_BACKBONE_BLOCK: L2 Gateway Backbone port inconsistency blocking port port-channel100 on VLAN0010. What is the cause of this message?
A. STP must be disabled; message indicates that STP is enabled.
B. STP is misconfigured; root guard must be disabled.
C. An inferior BPDU is received on a Cisco FabricPath edge port.
D. A superior BPDU is received on a Cisco FabricPath edge port.

Correct Answer: D
Which description is correct for a private VLAN community port with respect to Layer 2 communications?
A. It communicates with all other community ports in the private VLAN domain.
B. It communicates with only isolated ports in the private VLAN domain.
C. It communicates only with other community ports in the same community and associated promiscuous ports.
D. It communicates only with associated promiscuous and isolated ports.

Correct Answer: C
On Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch Cisco FabricPath domain, one switch becomes the root for the multidestination tree. Cisco FabricPath IS-IS will automatically select root switches for each multidestination tree. One of the parameters used to select the root is system ID. Which statements are true about system ID? (Choose two.)
A. System ID is a unique 12-bit SID.
B. System ID is a 48-bit value composed of the VDC MAC address.
C. Higher system ID is preferred.
D. Lower system ID is preferred.
Correct Answer: BC
Which two are benefits of using remote AAA services for Cisco Nexus products? (Choose two.)
A. They make it easier to manage user logins and passwords across devices.
B. They enable automated configuration backup for devices.
C. They centrally manage user attributes and permissions.
D. Local console access is never included in AAA and can be used for access when the AAA servers are down.
Correct Answer: AC
What tasks can only be performed in the default or admin VDC?
A. EPLD upgrade, IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration, and rolling back a checkpoint
B. EPLD upgrade, Cisco IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration, and ACL capture enablement
C. EPLD upgrade, Cisco IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration and SNMP configuration
D. EPLD upgrade, Cisco IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration, and write erase
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 36
What does the mac packet-classify command do when applied to an interface configuration?
A. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to only IP packets that enter the interface.
B. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to only non-IP packets that enter the interface.
C. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to all packets that enter the interface.
D. It enables MAC ACLs to be used for QoS settings.

Correct Answer: C

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Refer to the graphic. Which configuration statements match the debug output shown above?

A. crypto isakmp policy 100 encr aes authentication rsa-encr group 5
B. crypto isakmp policy 100 encr 3des authentication pre-share group 2
C. crypto isakmp policy 100 hash md5 authentication rsa-sig
D. crypto isakmp policy 100 encr des lifetime 7200
E. crypto isakmp policy 100 hash md5 group 1 lifetime 7200

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Within a PPP environment, what does protocol multiplexing refer to?
A. the ability to provide load balancing functionality over multiple WAN links
B. the capability to build up and tear down multiple Layer 3 protocol sessions over a single data link
C. the ability to allow link partners to dynamically negotiate link options, including authentication and compression
D. the ability to reduce the size of data frames being transmitted over network links

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the output of the debug ppp negotiation command shown?

A. IPCP was opened.
B. The “MagicNumber” is sent by both ends to detect loopbacks.
C. The routers have successfully authenticated with both PAP and CHAP
D. An authentication protocol could not be agreed upon by both routers.
E. The call was placed by this router.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
When CBWFQ is being used, what is 25 percent of the total available bandwidth reserved for?
A. the highest priority class
B. routing traffic
C. low volume traffic
D. high volume traffic
E. delay sensitive traffic

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Refer to the exhibit. Given the partial configuration for a Cisco 6400, which statement about the default encapsulation is true?

A. Interface ATM 0/0/0 is using the default encapsulation.
B. Interface ATM 0/0/0.1 is using the default encapsulation
C. Interface ATM 0/0/0.4 is using the default encapsulation.
D. None of the ATM interfaces are using the default encapsulation.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
While troubleshooting a DSL connectivity issue, the administrator issued the show dsl interface command and received the output shown in the exhibit. Additionally, issuing the show interface command showed that the ATM interface was down and the line protocol was down. Given this information, what could be the problem?

A. An incorrect power supply is being utilized.
B. Incorrect VPI/VCI values are configured on the router.
C. PPP negotiation with the remote router failed.
D. DHCP services failed to assign a valid IP.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Which statement is true about the exhibited output from a debug ppp negotiation command?

A. The negotiation was unsuccessful.
B. This router received the initial request to establish a connection.
C. Router As1 requested callback.
D. CHAP was rejected by the neighboring router as the authentication protocol

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Please reference the above configuration. The 806 router E1 interface is connected to a cable modem and the E0 interface is connected to an end-user PC. The end-user PC is having Internet connectivity issues. What could be the cause of the problem?

A. The IRB configuration is missing.
B. The port address translation (PAT) configuration is not correct.
C. The access-list 102 configuration is not correct.
D. The DHCP server configuration is not correct.
E. The IP address command on the E0 and E1 interfaces is wrong.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
A company would like to provide VPN security between its remote sites. After reviewing company requirements, you recommend that the company protect the entire original IP packet by encrypting it and encapsulating it inside a new, unencrypted IP header. The unencrypted header will be used to route the packet through the Internet.
Which mode will accomplish this task?
A. IPSec mode
B. transport mode
C. channel mode
D. tunnel mode
E. host-to-host mode

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Examine the configuration.
When using CBWFQ, what will happen to UDP packets if their destination queue is full?
A. The router will send a BECN message to the host
B. The packet will be sent to the class-default queue
C. The host will resend the packet if it does not receive an ACK message
D. Tail dropping will occur.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
How can an ISDN interface be used as a backup link for a primary interface and still use DDR to communicate with other sites?
A. By using dialer profiles.
B. An ISDN interface cannot be both.
C. With the command backup interface serial 0/0 on the bri0/0 interface along with normal DDR commands.
D. With the command backup interface bri 0/0 on the physical interface and normal DDR commands on the bri0/0 interface.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
The configuration of the 827 ADSL router depends on the encapsulation method used for the ADSL connection. What are the three common encapsulation methods? (Choose three.)
C. HDLC over ATM
E. RFC 1483 Bridged
F. IP over ATM

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
LCP is responsible for the negotiation of which function?
A. IP address
B. modulo size
C. error correction
D. frequency on the link

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Based on the above configuration, which statement is true?

A. The backup interface will be used when traffic reaches 80 kbps on the primary interface.
B. The backup interface will be disabled when the combined load on the primary and backup interfaces is less than 10%.
C. The backup interface will be disabled when the combined load on the primary and backup interfaces is less than 80 kbps.
D. The backup interface will be disabled when the load on the primary interface is less than 10%.
E. The backup interface will be disabled when the load on the primary interface is less than 80 kbps.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
How are multiple logical Frame Relay VCs supported on the same physical serial connection?
A. The DTE channelizes the bandwidth into multiple 64K circuits, each supporting a separate VC.
B. The DTE encapsulates packets with a header containing an identifier for each VC.
C. The DCE provides multiple time slots in which to send specific VC data streams.
D. The Frame Relay switch uses inverse ARP to map the Layer 3 address to a DLCI for each VC.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
If CBWFQ is being used, which three commands can be configured within each traffic class? (Choose three.)
A. bandwidth
B. service-policy
C. queue-limit
D. priority
E. random-detect

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Refer to the exhibit. What is true about the exhibited configuration?

A. BRI0/0 will receive its dialer configuration from Dialer0.
B. BRI0/0 is not configured to be a member of the rotary group defined by Dialer0.
C. BRI0/0 must be configured for PPP before it can join the rotary group.
D. BRI0/0 cannot join the rotary group until the dialer pool 1 command is entered on Dialer0.
E. The dialer load-threshold command is required for BRI0/0 to bind with Dialer0.
F. The dialer in-band command invalidates the ISDN rotary group configuration.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 67
Which command must be used in order for PPP authentication to work with a dialer profile?
A. dialer string
B. dialer remote-name
C. dialer pool-member
D. dialer map

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Which timer is reset to the maximum configured value every time an interesting packet is forwarded across the link?
A. wait for carrier timer
B. dialer idle timer
C. dialer enable timer
D. busy timer

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
By default, what is the maximum percentage of bandwidth CBWFQ allocates for all classes of traffic?
A. 25
B. 50
C. 75
D. 90

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Which dial feature provides reliable connectivity, does not rely on defined interesting traffic to trigger outgoing calls to the remote router, and is triggered by a lost route?
A. dialer backup
B. floating static routes
C. dialer watch
D. dialer route

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Which two statements are true about the application of the backup interface command? (Choose two.)
A. The backup interface is in standby mode until activated.
B. A Fast Ethernet interface can be used as a backup interface.
C. The backup interface can be used to load balance.
D. Both primary and backup routes appear in the route table. The backup route, however, has a higher administrative distance.
E. Each primary interface can have up to three backup interfaces.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Given the partial configuration, what function does the command dialer watch-group 8 have?

A. Any IP traffic, except OSPF traffic, will cause interface BRI0 to dial RouterB.
B. When the watched route,, is removed from the routing table and there is no other valid route, dialer watch then initiates a call to RouterB.
C. When the watched route,, is removed from the routing table, regardless of whether there is another valid route pointing to an interface other than interface BRI0, dialer watch initiates the call to RouterB.
D. When the load threshold is met and any IP traffic, except OSPF traffic, is destined for network, the dialer watch will initiate the call to RouterB.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Refer to the displayed configuration.
The 827 ADSL router is supposed to be setup as a PPPoE client. The user PCs behind the 827 are having Internet connectivity issues. What could be the cause of the problem?

A. The vpdn-group pppoe configuration is not correct.
B. The port address translation (PAT) configuration is not correct
C. The access-list 101 configuration is not correct.
D. For interface Dialer0, the IP MTU size should be 1500.
E. The default static route should be pointing to the ATM0 interface

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Examine the following configuration of an 827 ADSL router set up as a PPPoE client:
interface Dialer0 ip address negotiated ip nat outside encapsulation ppp dialer pool 1 ppp chap hostname [email protected] ppp chap password cisco
What is missing under the Interface Dialer0 configuration?
A. request-dialin
B. request-dialout
C. ip mtu 1492
D. ip mtu 1500
E. dsl operating-mode auto
F. protocol pppoe

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation

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