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Exam Code: 200-355
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals
Q&As: 421

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QUESTION 56
Which two Cisco WLC management-access methods are available as the default setting? (Choose two.)
A. SSH
B. HTTPS
C. Telnet
D. HTTP
200-355 exam Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 57
Which two statements about the requirements to configure inter-controller roaming are true? (Choose two.)
A. The same mobility domain names are configured across controllers.
B. The same RF group names are configured across controllers.
C. The same controller hardware version is configured across controllers.
D. The same AP manager interface is configured across controllers.
E. The same virtual interface is configured across controllers.
F. The same controller software version is configured across controllers.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 58
Which Cisco AnyConnect module allows troubleshooting for core Cisco AnyConnect problems?
A. telemetry
B. web security
C. VPN
D. NAM
E. DART
F. posture
G. CSSC
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 59
200-355 dumps

Refer to the exhibit. The wireless engineer has deployed the Cisco 5508 Wireless Controller. The controller is responding on the service port; however, it will not respond on the management interface. Which configuration revision will fix the management interface?
A. On the switch interface, configure switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan add 10.
B. On the WLC management interface, disable LAG on the management network.
C. On the switch interface, configure switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 10.
D. On the WLC management interface, change the VLAN ID to 20.
E. On the switch interface, configure no spanning-tree portfast trunk.
F. On WLC Controller > General, disable LAG and reboot.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 60
What does the following scatter gram suggest?
A. Sales revenue is inversely related to training costs.
B. The training program is not effective.
C. Training costs do not affect sales revenue.
D. Several data points are incorrectly plotted.
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Internal auditors may use scatter diagrams to detect misstated data, relationships among variables, and unusual operating results. A scatter diagram is a graph of data points. When the points have a systematic relationship, the independent (x) variable and dependent (y) variable are likely to be correlated; i.e.. the value of one variable is a predictor ofthevalue of the other. However, the variables in this scattergram are clearly uncorrelated because training costs do not predict sales.
QUESTION 61
To remove the effect of seasonal variation from a time series, original data should be:
A. Increased by the seasonal factor.
B. Reduced by the seasonal factor.
C. Multi plied by the seasonal factor.
D. Divided by the seasonal factor.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Seasonal variations are common in many businesses. To remove the effect of seasonal variation from a time series, the original data (with the four trends) is divided by the seasonal norm.
QUESTION 62
The moving-average method of forecasting:
A. Is a cross-sectional forecasting method.
B. Regresses the variable of interest on a related variable to develop a forecast.
C. Derives final forecasts by adjusting the initial forecast based on the smoothing constant.
D. Includes each new observation in the average as it becomes available and discards the oldest observation.
200-355 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The simple moving-average method is a smoothing technique that uses the experience of the past N periods (through time period t) to forecast a value for the next period. Thus, the average includes each new observation and discards the oldest observation. The forecast formula for the next period (for time period t+1) is the
sum of the last N observations divided by N.
QUESTION 63
A company is formulating its plans for the coming year, including the preparation of its cash budget. Historically. 30% of the company’s sales are cash sales. The
remaining 70% are credit sales with the following collection pattern:
Sales for the first 5 months of the coming year are forecast as follows:
For the month of April, the total cash receipts from sales and collections on account would be:
A. US$3,729,968
B. US$3,781,600
C. US$4,025,200
D. US$4,408,000
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The cash receipts for April equal April’s cash sales (US $4,000,000 * 30% = US $1.200,000), 40% of April’s credit sales, and 58% of March’s credit sales. Consequently, total cash receipts equal US $3,781,600 [$1,200,000 + ($4,000,000 * 40% x 70%) + ($3,600,000 x 58% x 70%)].
QUESTION 64
A learning curve of 80% assumes that the incremental unit time is reduced by 20% for each doubling of output. Also, direct labor cost is proportionate to time
worked. What is the incremental direct labor cost of the 16th unit produced as an approximate percentage of the first unit produced?

A. 41%
B. 31%
C. 51%
D. 64%
200-355 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The assumption is that the incremental unit time (time to produce the last unit) is reduced by 20% when production doubles. Thus, the labor cost of the sixteenth unit is 40.96% of that for the first unit (100% x 80% x 80% x 80% x 80%).
QUESTION 65
Management of a bookkeeping company observed that the average time spent to perform identical tasks using a new software package decreases as the number of tasks performed increases. The following information on the use of the new software was collected. If this learning effect continues, what is the average time to perform each of the first eight tasks?
A. 7.29 minutes.
B. 8.1 minutes.
C. 6.56 minutes.
D. 5.90 minutes.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Learning curves reflect the increased rate at which people perform tasks as they gain experience. The time required to perform a given task becomes progressively shorter. This technique is applicable only to the early stages of production or to any new task. One common assumption is that the cumulative average time per unit is reduced by a fixed percentage each time cumulative production is doubled. Based on the given data, this company has a 90% learning curve (90% x 10 minutes = 9 minutes, and 90% x 9 minutes = 8.1 minutes). Accordingly, the cumulative average time to perform eight tasks is 7.29 minutes (90% x 8.1 minutes).

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Exam Code: 070-413
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure
Q&As: 245

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QUESTION NO: 31
Adam works as a professional Penetration tester. A project has been assigned to him to employ penetration testing on the network of Umbrella Inc. He is running the test from home and had downloaded every security scanner from the Internet. Despite knowing the IP range of all of the systems, and the exact network configuration, Adam is unable to get any useful results. Which of the following is the most like cause of this problem?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Security scanners are only as smart as their database and cannot find unpublished vulnerabilities.
B. Security scanners cannot perform vulnerability linkage.
C. Security scanners are smart as their database and can find unpublished vulnerabilities.
D. Security scanners are not designed to do testing through a firewall.
070-413 exam Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 32
An organization monitors the hard disks of its employees’ computers from time to time. Which policy does this pertain to?
A. Network security policy
B. User password policy
C. Privacy policy
D. Backup policy
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 33
You work as a Network Administrator for Net World International. You have configured the hard disk drive of your computer as shown in the image below: The computer is configured to dual-boot with Windows 2000 Server and Windows 98. While working on Windows 2000 Server, you save a file on the 6GB partition. You are unable to find the file while working on Windows 98. You are not even able to access the partition on which the file is saved. What is the most likely cause?
A. The file is corrupt.
B. The 6GB partition is corrupt.
C. Windows 98 does not support the NTFS file system.
D. Files saved in Windows 98 are not supported by Windows 2000.
070-413 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 34
Peter works as a Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator. He has been called by an organization to conduct a seminar to give necessary information related to sexual harassment within the work place. Peter started with the definition and types of sexual harassment. He then wants to convey that it is important that records of the sexual harassment incidents should be maintained, which helps in further legal prosecution. Which of the following data should be recorded in this documentation?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Names of the victims
B. Date and time of incident
C. Nature of harassment
D. Location of each incident
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 35
Which of the following types of computers is used for attracting potential intruders?
A. Bastion host
B. Data pot
C. Files pot
D. Honey pot
070-413 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 36
Which of the following standard file formats is used by Apple’s iPod to store contact information?
A. HFS+
B. hCard
C. vCard
D. FAT32
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 37
Which of the following file systems cannot be used to install an operating system on the hard disk drive? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Windows NT file system (NTFS)
B. High Performance File System (HPFS)
C. Log-structured file system (LFS)
D. Compact Disc File System (CDFS)
E. Novell Storage Services (NSS)
070-413 vce Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 38
Which of the following types of evidence proves or disproves a specific act through oral testimony based on information gathered through the witness’s five senses?
A. Conclusive evidence
B. Best evidence
C. Hearsay evidence
D. Direct evidence
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 39
Which of the following two cryptography methods are used by NTFS Encrypting File System (EFS) to encrypt the data stored on a disk on a file-by-file basis?
A. Digital certificates
B. Public key
C. RSA
D. Twofish
070-413 exam Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 40
Which of the following sections of an investigative report covers the background and summary of the report including the outcome of the case and the list of allegations?
A. Section 2
B. Section 4
C. Section 3
D. Section 1
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 41
Which of the following switches of the XCOPY command copies attributes while copying files?
A. /o
B. /p
C. /k
D. /s
070-413 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 42
Which of the following directories in Linux operating system contains device files, which refers to physical devices?
A. /boot
B. /etc
C. /dev
D. /bin
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 43
Which of the following directories cannot be placed out of the root filesystem? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. /sbin
B. /etc
C. /var
D. /lib
070-413 pdf Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 44
On which of the following locations does the Windows NT/2000 operating system contain the SAM, SAM.LOG, SECURITY.LOG, APPLICATION.LOG, and EVENT.LOG files?
A. \%Systemroot%system32
B. \%Systemroot%profiles
C. \%Systemroot%system32config
D. \%Systemroot%help
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 45
You are handling technical support calls for an insurance company. A user calls you complaining that he cannot open a file, and that the file name appears in green while opening in Windows Explorer.
What does this mean?
A. The file is encrypted.
B. The file belongs to another user.
C. The file is infected with virus.
D. The file is compressed.
070-413 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 46
Which of the following is a name, symbol, or slogan with which a product is identified?
A. Trade secret
B. Patent
C. Copyright
D. Trademark
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 47
Which of the following file systems supports the hot fixing feature?
A. FAT16
B. exFAT
C. FAT32
D. NTFS
070-413 exam Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-398
Exam Name: Planning for and Managing Devices in the Enterprise
Q&As: 36

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QUESTION 29
Given the following information: A BayStack 460-24T-PWR switch is delivering Power over Ethernet (PoE) to a number of devices connected to it. Currently, all devices that are connected to the switch and require PoE are functioning properly. The switch is connected to both internal and external power sources. The external power source is a BayStack 10 Power Supply Unit (PSU). Currently, “DC Source Type” is set to “BayStack 10” (BayStack 10 PSU) and “DC Source Configuration” is set to “RPSU” (Redundant Power Supply Unit) on the switch. A new device that requires PoE is connected to the switch and fails to power on. The “DTE Power Source” LED for the port used to connect the device then begins to blink amber. Assume that prior to connecting the device to the switch it was tested in the lab and is known to be functioning correctly. What is the most likely cause of this issue and which action should you take to resolve it?
A. The port is administratively disabled. Administratively enable the port to correct the issue.
B. NO Data Terminating Equipment (DTE) has been detected on the port. Check the port and correct a cabling fault to resolve the issue.
C. There is a power fault or short circuit on the port. The port or the cable may be faulty. Connect the
device to a different port. If functioning normally, check the cables and correct a possible cabling fault to resolve the issue.
D. The Data Terminating Equipment (DTE) has been detected on the port, but there is insufficient power
to turn the device on. Change the “DC Source Configuration” setting to “Power Sharing” to provide more
PoE for the switch.
70-398 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 30
How do you configure VLAN port membership on a BayStack 425 10/100/1000 series switch?(Choose two.)
A. Run the QoS Wizard to create new VLAN port members.
B. Access the VLAN configuration screen of the Console Interface (CI) Menu.
C. Create an ASCII configuration file with the required VLAN membership configuration.
D. Use Java Device Manager (JDM) to make the selected ports members of the VLANs.
Answer: BD
QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the fact that the Administration interface symbol extends downward rather than leftward?
Exhibit:

A. The interface is the primary provided interface for the component.
B. The interface is not publicly visible on the component.
C. There is no significance.
D. The interface is the primary interface for the component.
E. The interface cannot be provided via a port.
F. The interface does not require a delegation connector.
70-398 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 32
To what does an internal structure of a class refer?
A. the decomposition of that class in terms of interconnected parts
B. the set of structural features of that class
C. the inheritance structure of that class
D. the set of nested classifiers of that class
E. class and associations owned by that class
Answer: A
QUESTION 33
When an object invokes a ReadSelfAction, what will it retrieve?
A. attribute values for the invoking object
B. invoking object
C. attribute values and links for the invoking object
D. class name of the invoking object
E. name of the invoking activity
70-398 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 34
What is the semantic difference between the two figures in the exhibit?
Exhibit:

A. One is a white-box view, while the other is a black-box view.
B. One is a deployment diagram, while the other is a class diagram.
C. There is no semantic difference.
D. One is a UML 2.0 diagram, while other is a UML 1.5 diagram.
Answer: C
QUESTION 35
What kind of relationship is an extension in UML 2.0?
A. generalization
B. dependency
C. association
D. reification
70-398 vce Answer: C
QUESTION 36
What is true about guards on interaction operands?
A. should not refer to any dynamic variables, i.e., to attributes of the lifelines
B. must only cover one lifeline, namely the one lifeline having the first event occurrence of the interaction operand
C. must always cover all lifelines covered by the operand
D. must cover the same lifelines on all interaction operands within one combined fragment
Answer: B
QUESTION 37
What does via foo in the exhibit designate?
Exhibit:

A. an action foo associated with the transition
B. transient pseudostate named foo
C. a transition terminating on the foo entry point
D. a Boolean guard equal to the logical value of foo
E. the sending of a foo message on the transition
70-398 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 38
Why are profiles NOT a first class extension mechanism?
A. They do not allow for modifying existing metamodels.
B. They do not permit customizing for domains, platforms, and methods.
C. They permit removing constraints that apply to existing metamodels.
D. They do not allow for modifying existing stereotypes.
70-398 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION 39
What must be true for a connector to be well formed if a delegation connector delegates to more than one target port?
A. The interfaces of the target ports must have no features in common.
B. The interface of at least one of the target ports must be signature compatible with the interface that is the type of the source port.
C. The interface of each of the target ports must be signature compatible with the interface that is the type of the source port.
D. The union of the interfaces of the target ports must be signature compatible with the interface that is the type of the source port.
Answer: D

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Exam Name: Magento Front End Developer Certification Exam
Q&As: 107

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QUESTION NO: 90
Which statement ALWAYS applies to both EOs and EQs?
A. The elementary process has the primary intent of presenting information to the user
B. The elementary process references a data function to retrieve data or control information
C. The elementary process includes multiple forms of processing logic
D. The elementary process may alter the behavior of the application
M70-301 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 91
The development project functional size is defined as:
A. DFP = ADD
B. DFP =ADD + CFP
C. DFP =AFP-CFP
D. DFP = AFP * CFP
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 92
Which is the correct formula for calculating an EFP?
A. EFP = AFP + CHGA + CFP + DEL
B. EFP = ADD + CHGA + CFP + DEL
C. EFP = AFPB + ADD + CHGA – CHGB – DEL
D. EFP = AFP + CHGA + CFP + DEL
M70-301 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 93
What is the purpose of a FP count?
A. To provide an answer to a software question
B. To provide an answer to a business question
C. To provide an answer to a network question
D. To provide an answer to an application question
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 94
Which of the following statements is true?
A. The development project functional size is a measure of baseline functionality only
B. The development project functional size is a measure of installed functionality
C. The enhancement project functional size is a measure of baseline functionality
D. The application functional size is a measure of the functionality that an application provides to
the user
M70-301 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 95
What is the definition of “consistent state?”
A. point at which the requirements have been determined and approved by the user
B. point at which processing has been fully executed; the Functional User Requirement has been
satisfied and there is no more to be done
C. development of all functionality is complete and the testing can begin; the Functional User
Requirement have been met
D. conversion processes have been completed and all historical data converted
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 96
Which of the following statements about an External Inquiry are true?
A. An elementary process that processes data that is sent from outside the boundary
B. Has a primary intent to alter the behavior of data or control information
C. Has a primary intent to present information to a user through retrieval of data
All of the above
M70-301 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 97
Which of the following statements regarding DET counting is (are) true?
A. Attributes referenced by the application being measured are not counted
B. Do not count a DET for attribute required by the user to establish a relationship with another
data function
C. Count a DET for each attribute required by the user to establish a relationship with another data
function
D. Both A and C
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 98
Which elementary process processes data or control information sent from outside the
application’s boundary?
A. An external interface file
B. An external inquiry
C. An external output
D. An external input
M70-301 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 99
Which GSC describes the degree to which the application and the code in the application have
been specifically designed, developed and supported to be reusable in other applications?
A. End-user efficiency
B. Reusability
C. Facilitate change
D. Distributed data processing
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 100
An EO is defined as an elementary process that:
A. includes additional processing logic beyond that of an EQ
B. processes data or control information sent from outside the boundary
C. sends data or control information outside the boundary
D. Both A and C
M70-301 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 101
The functional complexity of an EI is based on the number of:
A. Data Element Types
B. Record Element Types
C. File Types Referenced
D. Both A and C
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 102
An application’s functional size is calculated after the development project using the formula:
A. AFP = ADD
B. AFP =ADD + CFP
C. DFP =ADD + CFP
D. None of the above
M70-301 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 103
Which type of functional size (F5) measures the functions provided to the users with the first
installation of the software?
A. Application FS
B. Baseline FS
C. Enhancement project FS
D. Development project FS
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 104
Which rule applies to identifying a data function?
A. Include entities referred to as code data
B. Accepts data or control information that enters the application boundary
C. Identify all logically related and user recognizable data or control information within the counting
scope
D. Maintains logical files
M70-301 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 105
What is the purpose of the VAF?
A. Adjust the FP by +/- 35%
B. Adjust the FP by 0.65
C. Increase the reference data by 0.65
D. Increase the aFP by 35%
Answer: A
Topic 2, Implementations
QUESTION NO: 106
A Banking Deposit application (BDS) has three subsystems; each subsystem serves one
particular location. All three subsystems share the core functionalities of the application, while
each has its own unique functions. Databases are physically split and maintained separately by
locations as well. What is the application size of BDS?

A. 575
B. 215
C. 195
D. 35
M70-301 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 107
A Trading application introduces a new subsystem. The enhancement includes 6 new EIs, 3
modified EIs, 2 new EQs, 1 modified EO. 1 existing EO is eliminated from this application by this
enhancement. There are 3 conversion EIs to convert existing data. All the transactional functions
are average complexity. What is the functional size of the transactional functions for the
enhancement?
A. 54
B. 66
C. 56
D. 68
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION 30
What is an advantage of implementing a Trusted Platform Module for disk encryption?
A. It provides hardware authentication.
B. It allows the hard disk to be transferred to another device without requiring re- encryption.dis
C. It supports a more complex encryption algorithm than other disk-encryption technologies.
D. It can protect against single points of failure.
210-260 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps

While troubleshooting site-to-site VPN, you issued the show crypto isakmp sa command.
What does the given output show?
A. IPSec Phase 1 is established between 10.10.10.2 and 10.1.1.5.
B. IPSec Phase 2 is established between 10.10.10.2 and 10.1.1.5.
C. IPSec Phase 1 is down due to a QM_IDLE state

D. IPSec Phase 2 is down due to a QM_IDLE state.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
What is the purpose of the Integrity component of the CIA triad?
A. to ensure that only authorized parties can modify data
B. to determine whether data is relevant
C. to create a process for accessing data
D. to ensure that only authorized parties can view data
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
Which statements about smart tunnels on a Cisco firewall are true? (Choose two.)
A. Smart tunnels can be used by clients that do not have administrator privileges
B. Smart tunnels support all operating systems
C. Smart tunnels offer better performance than port forwarding
D. Smart tunnels require the client to have the application installed locally
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 34
What is the FirePOWER impact flag used for?
A. A value that indicates the potential severity of an attack.
B. A value that the administrator assigns to each signature.
C. A value that sets the priority of a signature.
D. A value that measures the application awareness.
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
One of the main reasons total quality management (TQM) can be used as a strategic weapon is that:
A. The cumulative improvement from a company’s TQM efforts cannot readily be copied by competitors.
B. Introducing new products can lure customers away from competitors.
C. Reduced costs associated with better quality can support higher shareholder dividends.
D. TQM provides a comprehensive planning process for a business.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
TQM is a comprehensive approach to quality. It treats the pursuit of quality as a basic organizational function that is as important as production or marketing.
Because TQM affects every aspect of the organization’s activities, it is part of the organizational culture. Thus, the cumulative effect of TQM’s continuous
improvement process can attract and hold customers and cannot be duplicated by competitors.
QUESTION 36
If a company is customer-centered, its customers are defined as:
A. Only people external to the company who have purchased something from the company.
B. Only people internal to the company who directly use its product.
C. Anyone external to the company and those internal who rely on its product to get their job done.
D. Everybody external to the company who is currently doing, or may in the future do, business with the company.
210-260 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
One of the principles of total quality management (TQM) is customer orientation, whether the customer is internal or external. An internal customer is a member of
the organization who relies on another member’s work to accomplish his/her task.
QUESTION 37
Which statement best describes the emphasis of total quality management (TQM)?
A. Reducing the cost of inspection.
B. Implementing better statistical quality control techniques.
C. Doing each job right the first time.
D. Encouraging cross-functional teamwork.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The basic principles of TQM include (1) doing each job right the first time, (2) being customer oriented, (3) committing the organizational culture to continuous
improvement, and (4) building teamwork and employee empowerment.
QUESTION 38
The use of teams in total quality management (TQM) is important because:
A. Well-managed teams can be highly creative and are able to address complex problems better than individuals can.
B. Teams are quicker to make decisions, thereby helping to reduce cycle time.
C. Employee motivation is higher for team members than for individual contributors.
D. The use of teams eliminates the need for supervision, thereby allowing a company to become leaner and more profitable.
210-260 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Teams can use the diverse knowledge and skills of all team members. Employee involvement means training and empowering employees to harness their
creativity for problem solving. Quality control circles are used to obtain input from employees and to locate the best perspective on problem solving.
QUESTION 39
Which statement best describes total quality management (TQM)?
A. TQM emphasizes reducing the cost of inspection.
B. TQM emphasizes better statistical quality control techniques.
C. TQM emphasizes doing each job right the first time.
D. TQM emphasizes encouraging cross-functional teamwork.
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
TQM establishes quality as an organizational objective and views it as a major component of the organization’s service to its customers. It emphasizes employee
training and commitment, productservice design and production, and customer service. Ordinarily, the quality of a product or service is as important to customers
as cost and timeliness. Superior product quality is not merely the result of more inspection, better statistical quality control, and cross-functional teamwork.
Manufactures must make fundamental changes in the way they produce products and do each job right the first time.
QUESTION 40
Which of the following is not true about the advantages of adopting ISO 9000 standards?
A. Adoption of ISO 9000 standards may allow an entity to sell products in foreign markets.
B. ISO registration makes customers more comfortable with the supplier’s products and services.
C. ISO 9000 allows entities to understand who internal customers and users are without sharing private information.
D. ISO registration may help entities discover internal process and quality improvements.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

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Exam Code: 210-451
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals
Q&As: 60

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QUESTION 1
Which option is one essential characteristic of Cloud computing?
A. It must use virtualization.
B. It must provide load balancing services.
C. It must provide on-demand self service.
D. It must run on open source software.
210-451 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Which Cloud service model is appropriate for a physical data center move to the Cloud?
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Compute as a Service
D. Software as a Service
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
What is an invalid Cloud deployment model 210-451 dumps ?
A. distributed
B. private
C. community
D. hybrid
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which two options are benefits of the Cisco InterCloud Solution? (Choose two.)
A. enforces standardization on a single hypervisor product
B. provides self service for hybrid resources
C. management of heterogeneous SAN solutions
D. secure connectivity between public and private Clouds
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 5
Which option contains server hardware identifiers, firmware, state, configuration, and connectivity
characteristics?
A. pools
B. policies
C. service profiles
D. resource groups
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
An embedded software company is considering to improve the quality of its software components to be
delivered to the integration team. After studying various experience papers that report a higher level of
quality for software components, two main alternative techniques are identified: static analysis and
dynamic analysis. In deciding which one is most applicable and how they relate to each other a detailed
study is performed. Which of the following are TWO key similarities between static analysis and dynamic
analysis? 2 credits [K4]
Number of correct answers: 2
A. Both are performed using requirements as its major input document
B. Both are usually undertaken by integration testers
C. Both are usually undertaken by development during coding and unit testing
D. Both are related to reviews
E. Both usually use a tool
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 7
Which of the following is a dynamic analysis technique related to improving application performance? 1
credit [K2]
Number of correct answers: 1
A. Code complexity analysis
B. Profiling
C. Network package sniffing
D. Spelling and grammar checking
210-451 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Definition-use pairs are identified during which of the following static analysis activities? 1 credit [K2]
Number of correct answers: 1
A. Control flow analysis
B. Data flow activities
C. Coding standards analysis
D. Cyclomatic complexity analysis
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
If we say that a set of tests has achieved 100% structural decision coverage on a particular module in a
program, what does that mean?
1 credit [K2]
Number of correct answers: 1
A. That all bugs present in that module were necessarily revealed by those tests.
B. That every control flow branch had been executed at least once by those tests.
C. That every dataflow in that module was exercised at least once by those tests.
D. That every path through that module was exercised at least once by those tests.
210-451 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
If you are flying with an economy ticket, there is a possibility that you may get upgraded to business class,
especially if you hold a gold card in the airline’s frequent flier program. If you don’t hold a gold card, there
is a possibility that you will get `bumped’ off the flight if it is full and you check in late. This is shown in the
figure hereafter. Note that each box (i.e.
statement) has been numbered.
Three tests have been run:
Test 1: Gold card holder who gets upgraded to business class
Test 2: Non-gold card holder who stays in economy
Test 3: A person who is bumped from the flight
What is the statement coverage of these three tests?2 credits [K4]
Number of correct answers: 1
A. 60%
B. 70%
C. 80%
D. 90%
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
As part of a risk analysis, technical risks are analyzed. Which TWO factors influence technical risk? 1
credit [K2]
Number of correct answers: 2
A. Complexity of technology
B. Frequency of use of the affected failure
C. Interfacing and integration issues

D. Damage to image
E. Lack of reasonable workaround
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 12
A component has been analyzed as being highly critical. Which of the following structure- based test
design techniques provides the highest level of coverage? 1 credit [K2]
Number of correct answers: 1
A. Statement testing
B. Decision testing
C. Condition determination testing
D. Multiple condition testing
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
The result of a product risk analysis performed on components I, II and III
of the airplane control system shows the following risk matrix:
The project wants to mitigate the risks by defining different types of coverage depending on the risk level of
the components. Which of the following would be a meaningful solution for setting the coverage targets?2
credits [K3]
Number of correct answers: 1
A. I: Condition determination coverage, II: Decision Coverage, III: Statement coverage
B. I: Condition determination coverage, II: Statement coverage, III: Decision coverage
C. I: Decision coverage, II: Condition determination coverage, III: Statement Coverage
D. I: Multiple condition coverage, II: Decision coverage, III: Condition determination coverage
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: 300-075
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 2 v1.0
Q&As: 377

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Question No : 34 Scenario:
There are two call control systems in this item.
The Cisco UCM is controlling the DX650, the Cisco Jabber for Windows Client, and the
7965 and 9971 Video IP Phones.
The Cisco VCS and TMS control the Cisco TelePresence Conductor, the Cisco
TelePresence MCU, and the Cisco Jabber TelePresence for Windows.
300-075 dumps

300-075 dumps

300-075 dumps

300-075 dumps

SIP Trunk:
300-075 dumps
What two tasks must be completed in order to support calls between the VCS controlled
endpoints and the Cisco Unified CM endpoints? (Choose two.)
A. Media Resource Group List.
B. Configure a SIP trunk on the Cisco Unified CM to point to the Cisco VCS.
C. Configure a neighbor zone on the Cisco Unified CM to point to the Cisco VCS.
D. Configure a SIP trunk on the Cisco VCS to point to the Cisco Unified CM.
E. Configure a neighbor zone on the Cisco VCS to point to the Cisco Unified CM.
300-075 exam 
Answer: C,D
Question No : 35 How long is the default keepalive period for SRST in Cisco 300-075 dumps IOS?
A. 45 sec
B. 30 sec
C. 60 sec
D. 120 sec
Answer: B
Question No : 36
Which three items must you configure to enable SAF Call Control Discovery? (Choose three.)
A.a calling search space
B.hosted DN patterns
C.translation patterns
D.route patterns
E.the SIP or H.323 trunk
F.hosted DN groups
300-075 pdf 
Answer: B,E,F
Reference:
Question No : 37 Which module is the minimum PVDM3 module needed to support video transcoding?
A. PVDM3-32
B. PVDM3-64
C. PVDM3-128
D. PVDM3-192
300-075  vce 
Answer: C

QUESTION: 38
Which of the following statements regarding exercise for persons with controlled
cardiovascular disease is TRUE?

A. Resistance exercise training is dangerous and should be avoided.
B. A physician-supervised exercise test is not necessary to establish exercise intensity.
C. Anginal pain is normal during exercise, and participants should be pushed through the
pain.
D. Exercise intensity should be set at an HR of 10 bpm less than the level at which
signs/symptoms were evidenced during an exercise test.
300-075 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 39
All of the following factors are important to consider when determining exercise intensity
EXCEPT
A. An individual’s level of fitness.
B. The risk of cardiovascular or orthopedic injury.
C. Any previous history participating in organized sports.
D. Individual preference and exercise objectives.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 40
When determining the intensity level, the RPE is a better indicator than percentage of
maximal HR for all of the following groups EXCEPT
A. Individuals on f3-blockers.
B. Aerobic classes that involve excessive arm movement.
C. Individuals older than 65 years.
D. Individuals involved in high-intensity exercise.
300-075 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION: 41
Using the original Borg scale, it is recommended that the exercise intensity elicit an RPE
within the range of

A. 8 to 12.
B. 12 to 16.
C. 14 to 18.
D. 6 to 10.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 42
The MINIMAL duration of exercise necessary to achieve improvements in health for
deconditioned individuals is
A. 20 minutes continuously.
B. 30 minutes continuously.
C. Multiple sessions of more than 10 minutes in duration throughout the day.
D. Two sessions of 20 minutes throughout the day.
300-075 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION: 43
Which of the following is a method of strength and power training that involves an
eccentric loading of muscles and tendons followed immediately by an explosive
concentric contraction?
A. Super sets.
B. Split routines.
C. Plyometrics.
D. Periodization.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 44
The safety of resistance exercise is dependent on all of the following except
A. Having a personal trainer.
B. Proper breathing.
C. Speed of movement.
D. Body mechanics.

300-075 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 45
The recommended muscular strength and endurance training program for apparently
healthy individuals should be
A. One set of 8 to 12 reps, 8 to 10 separate exercises, 2 days per week.
B. Two sets of six to eight reps, 8 to 10 separate exercises, 2 days per week.
C. One set of 8 to 12 reps, 8 to 10 separate exercises, 4 to 5 days per week.
D. Two sets of six to eight reps, 8 to 10 separate exercises, 4 days per week, and
alternating days for legs and upper body.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 46
Which the following statements regarding intensity of resistance training is FALSE?
A. The number of repetitions to volitional fatigue will vary inversely with resistance.
B. It is necessary to determine the 1- RM to establish training intensity.
C. Exercise to volitional fatigue is not dangerous from a musculoskeletal standpoint
provided that good exercise form is maintained.
D. Exercise intensity should be similar for males and females.
300-075 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 47
The recommended cardiorespiratory endurance exercise training program for older
individuals should be
A. 40% to 60% of maximum HR, 20 to 30 minutes continuously, 3 days per week.
B. 50% to 70% of HRR, 20 to 30 minutes (multiple sessions of 5-10 min), 3 days per
week.
C. 40% to 60% of maximum HR, 20 to 30 minutes (multiple sessions of 5-10 min), 3
days per week.
D. 50% to 70% of HRR, 20 to 30 minutes continuously, 3 days per week

300-075 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 48
Osteoporosis is more prevalent in
A. Women who have never been pregnant.
B. African-American women.
C. Women who are involved in activities that place stress on the wrists, hips, or lum
bosacral region.
D. Postmenopausal women.
 Answer: D
Section 2: Sec Two (49 to 73)
Details: Nutrition and Weight Management

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Exam Code: 100-105
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Q&As: 332

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Question No : 1 – (Topic 1) Refer to the exhibit.100-105 dumps

Mary is sending an instant message to Robert. The message will be broken into a series of
packets that will traverse all network devices. What addresses will populate these packets
as they are forwarded from Router1 to Router2?
100-105 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Source and Destination IP address is not going to change. Host 1 IP address will stay
as being the source IP and the Host 2 IP address will stay the destination IP address.
Those two are not going to change.
For the MAC address it is going to change each time it goes from one hope to another.
(Except switches… they don’t change anything)
Frame leaving HOST 1 is going to have a source MAC of Host 1 and a destination MAC of
Router 1.
Router 1 is going to strip that info off and then will make the source MAC address of
Router1’s exiting interface, and making Router2’s interface as the destination MAC
address.
Then the same will happen… Router2 100-105 exam is going to change the source/destination info to the

source MAC being the Router2 interface that it is going out, and the destination will be
Host2’s MAC address.

Question No : 2 – (Topic 1) A workstation has just resolved a browser URL to the IP address of a server. What protocol will the workstation now use to determine the destination MAC address to be placed into
frames directed toward the server?
A. HTTP
B. DNS
C. DHCP
D. RARP
E. ARP
Answer: E
Explanation:
The RARP protocol is used to translate hardware interface addresses to protocol
addresses. The RARP message format is very similar to the ARP format. When the booting
computer sends the broadcast ARP request, it places its own hardware address in both the
sending and receiving fields in the encapsulated ARP data packet. The RARP server will fill
in the correct sending and receiving IP addresses in its response to the message. This way
the booting computer will know its IP address when it gets the message from the RARP
server

Question No : 3 – (Topic 1) Which protocol uses a connection-oriented service to deliver files between end systems?
A. TFTP
B. DNS
C. FTP
D. SNMP
E. RIP
Answer: C
Explanation:
TCP is an example of a connection-oriented protocol. It requires a logical connection to be
established between the two processes before data is exchanged. The connection must be
maintained during the entire time that communication is taking place, then released
afterwards. The 100-105 dumps process is much like a telephone call, where a virtual circuit is established-the caller must know the person’s telephone number and the phone must be answered–
before the message can be delivered.
TCP/IP is also a connection-oriented transport with orderly release. With orderly release,
any data remaining in the buffer is sent before the connection is terminated. The release is
accomplished in a three-way handshake between client and server processes. The
connection-oriented protocols in the OSI protocol suite, on the other hand, do not support
orderly release. Applications perform any handshake necessary for ensuring orderly
release. Examples of services that use connection-oriented transport services are telnet, rlogin, and
ftp.

Question No : 4 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
If the hubs in the graphic were replaced by switches, what would be virtually eliminated?
A. broadcast domains
B. repeater domains
C. Ethernet collisions
D. signal amplification
E. Ethernet broadcasts
Answer: C
Explanation:
Modern wired networks use a network switch to eliminate collisions. By connecting each
device directly to a port on the switch, either each port on a switch becomes its own
collision domain (in the case of half duplex links) or the possibility of collisions is eliminated
entirely in the case of full duplex links.

QUESTION 5
Adenosine triphosphate production via “anaerobic” glycolysis is associated with the significant formation of what by-product?
A. Pyruvic Acid
B. Phosphoric Acid
C. Citric Acid
D. Lactic Acid
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
The changes in muscle size associated with long-term resistance training is most likely due to increases in
_____.
A. muscle fiber cross-sectional diameter.

B. muscle fiber number.
C. connective tissue thickness.
D. hydration state of the muscle.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Downhill walking/jogging/running is characterized by eccentric activation of which of the following muscle groups?
A. Hamstrings
B. Gastrocnemius
C. Brachioradialis
D. Quadriceps femoris
100-105  vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
What is the typical resting blood pressure response to long term aerobic exercise in a hypertensive
individual?
A. Both systolic and diastolic pressures will increase.
B. Both systolic and diastolic pressures will decrease.
C. Systolic will increase, while diastolic will remain unchanged.
D. Systolic will decrease, while diastolic will remain unchanged.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
How does heart rate increase in relation to work rate and oxygen uptake during dynamic exercise?
A. Exponentially
B. Linearly
C. Curvilinearly
D. Inversely
100-105  exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which cardiovascular training approach, if repeated frequently, is most likely going to lead to overtraining?
A. One intensive day followed by three easy days.
B. One long day followed by three shorter duration days.
C. Two consecutive intensive days, followed by one easy day.
D. A medium intensive day followed by two easy days.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
What feature is unique to skeletal muscle as compared to cardiac muscle?
A. Absence of striations
B. Presence of branching
C. Requires nervous system stimulation
D. Presence of intercalated disks
100-105  dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
What is the correct path of blood flow through the chambers of the heart?
A. Left ventricle; left atrium; right atrium; right ventricle.
B. Right ventricle; right atrium; left atrium; left ventricle.
C. Left atrium; right atrium; left ventricle; right ventricle.
D. Right atrium; right ventricle; left atrium; left ventricle.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
What respiratory muscles can cause forceful expiration?
A. External intercostals
B. Pectoralis minor
C. Sternocleidomastoid
D. Internal intercostals
100-105  pdf Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Updated: Sep 22, 2017
Q&As: 85

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200-155 Dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate CompTIA Cisco 200-155 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 39
What refers to relatively expensive items that will be used over a long period?
A. Supplies
B. Taxes
C. Assets
D. Equipments
200-155 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 40
What is relatively costly item that allow the organization to deliver service over time?
A. Equipment
B. Supplies
C. Noncurrent asset
D. Current asset
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 41
Noncurrent assets require special management attention because of their liquidity and transportability,
current assets require special attention because of their cost and extensive time horizon it takes to plan,
acquire and manage them.
A. True
B. False
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
Assets limited to use, long-term investments, property and equipment are all categories of:
A. Current assets
B. Account investments
C. Noncurrent assets
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 43
is a measure of how much a tangible asset (such as plant or equipment) has been used up or consumed.
A. Depreciation
B. Equity
C. Retail cost
D. None of the above
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
The total amount of depreciation taken on as asset since it was put into use is called:
A. Approved Depreciation
B. Accumulated Depreciation
C. Accounted Depreciation

D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
What are the financial obligations that, due to their contractual terms, will be paid within one year?
A. Current assets
B. Current liabilities
C. Current financial reviews
D. Current payors
200-155 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
Estimated third party payor settlements are the category of?
A. Current assets
B. Current Equity
C. Current Expenses
D. Current liabilities
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 47
Which are the obligations to pay suppliers who have sold the health care organization goods or services
on credit?
A. Account suppliers
B. Account payable
C. Account receivable
D. Accrued Account
200-155 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 48
Accrued expenses are the liabilities and are reflected in the balance sheet.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 49
For not-for-profit health care providers, the net assets section of the balance sheet is analogous to the
owner’s equity section of a for-profit organization’s statement of cash flow.
A. True
B. False
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 50
Stockholders equity for investors-owned organizations represents:
A. Stock and retained earnings
B. Stock and accrual earnings
C. Stock and sales

D. Stock and purchase
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 51
Which of the following in NOT the body of the income statement for investors-owned health care
organizations?
A. Operating income
B. Non-operating income
C. Income for taxes
D. Excess of revenues
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
Which of the following in NOT the body of the statement of operations for non-for-profit health care
organizations?
A. Operating income
B. Non-operating income
C. Net income
D. Excess of revenues
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 53
uses the accrual basis of accounting, which summarizes how much the organization earned and the
resources it used to generate that income during a period of time.
A. Balance sheet
B. Non-operating income
C. Statement of operations
D. Accounting system for income
200-155 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 54
Revenues represent amounts earned by the organization would, not the amount of it received during the
period.
A. Cash
B. Credit
C. Revenue
D. Expense
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 55
Premium revenues are the revenues earned from capitated contracts which are not earned solely through
the delivery of service but rather through a passage of time.
A. True
B. False
200-155 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 56
Which are a measure of the amount of resources used or consumed in providing a service, not cash-out
flows?
A. Operating income
B. Credit
C. Revenue
D. Expense
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
Income derived from the organization’s main line of business is called:
A. Depreciated income
B. Operative income
C. Net income
D. None of the above
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 58
The allocation of the acquisition cost of debt to the period which it benefits refers to:
A. Depreciated income
B. Accrual expense
C. Net income
D. Amortization
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 59
Bad debt expense is:
A. the estimate of patient accounts payables that will not be collected.
B. the estimate of patient accounts receivables that will be collected.
C. the estimate of patient accounts receivables that will not be collected.
D. the estimate of patient accounts payables that will be collected.
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 60
Working capital is:
A. Current assets and current liabilities
B. Current expenses and current revenues
C. Expected assets and expected liabilities
D. Expected expenses and expected revenues
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 61
The difference between current assets and current liabilities is called:
A. Net accounting gain
B. Net expenditure
C. Net working capital
D. Net profit

200-155 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 62
Which of the following is NOT the phase of the working capital cycle?
A. Obtaining cash
B. Turning cash into resources
C. Resources are restricted to be used seldom
D. Billing patients for the services and collecting revenues
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
How much extra working capital an organization determines it must keep as a cushion is called its:
A. Obtaining cash strategy
B. Working capital strategy
C. Financing mix strategy
D. Billing strategy
200-155 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 64
A strategy that refers to how an organization chooses to finance its working capital needs is called:
A. Asset mix
B. Aggressive mix
C. Conservative mix
D. Financing mix
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 65
A health care organization that utilizes an aggressive asset mix strategy seeks to minimize its returns by
investing in non-liquid assets but faces the risk of lower liquidity.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: CAS-002
Exam Name: CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP)
Updated: Sep 12, 2017
Q&As: 532

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate CompTIA CAS-002 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 29
A software project manager has been provided with a requirement from the customer to place limits on the
types of transactions a given user can initiate without external interaction from another user with elevated
privileges. This requirement is BEST described as an cas-002 simulations implementation of:
A. an administrative control
B. dual control
C. separation of duties
D. least privilege
E. collusion
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 30
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is asking for ways to protect against zero-day exploits. The
CISO is concerned that an unrecognized threat could compromise corporate data and result in regulatory
fines as well as poor corporate publicity. The network is mostly flat, with split staff/guest wireless
functionality. Which of the following equipment MUST be deployed to guard against unknown threats?
A. Cloud-based antivirus solution, running as local admin, with push technology for definition updates.
B. Implementation of an offsite data center hosting all company data, as well as deployment of VDI for all
client computing needs.
C. Host based heuristic IPS, segregated on a management VLAN, with direct control of the perimeter
firewall ACLs.
D. Behavior based IPS with a communication link to a cloud based vulnerability and threat feed.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 31
An CAS-002 dumps organization is concerned with potential data loss in the event of a disaster, and created a backup datacenter as a mitigation strategy. The current storage method is a single NAS used by all servers in both datacenters. Which of the following options increases data availability in the event of a datacenter failure?
A. Replicate NAS changes to the tape backups at the other datacenter.
B. Ensure each server has two HBAs connected through two routes to the NAS.
C. Establish deduplication across diverse storage paths.
D. Establish a SAN that replicates between datacenters.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 32
A security administrator wants to prevent sensitive data residing on corporate laptops and desktops from
leaking outside of the corporate network. The company has already implemented full-disk encryption and
has disabled all peripheral devices on its desktops and laptops. Which of the following additional controls
MUST be implemented to minimize the risk of data leakage? (Select TWO).
A. A full-system backup should be implemented to a third-party provider with strong encryption for data in
transit.
B. A DLP gateway should be installed at the company border.
C. Strong authentication should be implemented via external biometric devices.
D. Full-tunnel VPN should be required for all network communication.
E. Full-drive file hashing should be implemented with hashes stored on separate storage.
F. Split-tunnel VPN should be enforced when transferring sensitive data.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
QUESTION 33
An organization would like to allow employees to use their network username and password to access a
third-party service. The company is using Active Directory Federated Services for their CAS-002 pdf directory service. Which of the following should the company ensure is supported by the third-party? (Select TWO).
A. LDAP/S
B. SAML
C. NTLM
D. OAUTH
E. Kerberos
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
QUESTION 34
A mature organization with legacy information systems has incorporated numerous new processes and
dependencies to manage security as its networks and infrastructure are modernized. The Chief
Information Office has become increasingly frustrated with frequent releases, stating that the organization
needs everything to work completely, and the vendor should already have those desires built into the
software product. The CAS-002 dumps vendor has been in constant communication with personnel and groups within the organization to understand its business process and capture new software requirements from users. Which of the following methods of software development is this organization’s configuration management
process using?
A. Agile
B. SDL
C. Waterfall
D. Joint application development
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 35
Joe, a hacker, has discovered he can specifically craft a webpage that when viewed in a browser crashes
the browser and then allows him to gain remote code execution in the context of the victim’s privilege level.
The browser crashes due to an exception error when a heap memory that is unused is accessed. Which of
the following BEST describes the application issue?
A. Integer overflow
B. Click-jacking
C. Race condition
D. SQL injection
E. Use after free
F. Input validation
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
QUESTION 36
A forensic analyst works for an e-discovery firm where several gigabytes of data are processed daily.
While the business is lucrative, they do not have the resources or the CAS-002 pdf scalability to adequately serve their clients. Since it is an e-discovery firm where chain of custody is important, which of the following scenarios should they consider?
A. Offload some data processing to a public cloud
B. Aligning their client intake with the resources available
C. Using a community cloud with adequate controls
D. Outsourcing the service to a third party cloud provider
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 37
select id, firstname, lastname from authors
User input= firstname= Hack;man
lastname=Johnson
Which of the following types of attacks is the user attempting?
A. XML injection
B. Command injection
C. Cross-site scripting
D. SQL injection
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 38
A network administrator with a company’s NSP has received a CERT alert for targeted adversarial
behavior at the company. In addition to the company’s physical security, which of the following can the
network administrator use to detect the presence of a malicious actor physically accessing the company’s
network or information systems from within? (Select TWO).
A. RAS

B. Vulnerability scanner
C. HTTP intercept
D. HIDS
E. Port scanner
F. Protocol analyzer
cas-002 simulationsCorrect Answer: DF
Explanation
QUESTION 39
A software development manager is taking over an existing software development project. The team
currently suffers from poor communication due to a long delay between requirements documentation and
feature delivery. This gap is resulting in an above average number of security-related bugs making it into
production. Which of the following development methodologies is the team MOST likely using now?
A. Agile
B. Waterfall
C. Scrum
D. Spiral
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 40
Which of the following BEST constitutes the basis for protecting VMs from attacks from other VMs hosted
on the same physical platform?
A. Aggressive patch management on the host and guest OSs.
B. Host based IDS sensors on all guest OSs.
C. Different antivirus solutions between the host and guest OSs.
D. Unique Network Interface Card (NIC) assignment per guest OS.
CAS-002 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 41
The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of a company that allows telecommuting has challenged the Chief
Security Officer’s (CSO) request to harden the corporate network’s perimeter. The CEO argues that the
company cannot protect its employees at home, so the risk at work is no different. Which of the following
BEST explains why this company should proceed with protecting its corporate network boundary?
A. The corporate network is the only network that is audited by regulators and customers.
B. The aggregation of employees on a corporate network makes it a more valuable target for attackers.
C. Home networks are unknown to attackers and less likely to be targeted directly.
D. Employees are more likely to be using personal computers for general web browsing when they are at
home.
CAS-002 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation

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