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Today I passed the exam in 1st attempt.
I have a Data-warehouse and BI experience of over 3 years, which obviously helped.
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Exam Code: 070-461
Exam Name: Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Jul 21, 2017
Q&As: 164

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070-461

Pass4itsure  Latest and Most Accurate 070-461 PDF Dumps Exam Q&As:

Question No : 26 You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a table named Products.
The Products table has the following definition:070-461

You need to create an audit record only when either the RetailPrice or WholeSalePrice
column is updated.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF CCLUMNS_CHANGED(RetailPrice, WholesalePrice)
– – Create Audit Records
B. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF EXISTS(SELECT RetailPrice from inserted) OR
EXISTS (SELECT WholeSalePnce FROM inserted)
– – Create Audit Records
C. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF COLUMNS_UPDATED(RetailPrice, WholesalePrice)

– – Create Audit Records
D. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF UPDATE(RetailPrice) OR UPDATE(WholeSalePrice)
– – Create Audit Records
070-461 pdf Answer: D

Question No : 27 A table named Profits stores the total profit made each year within a territory. The Profits
table has columns named Territory, Year, and Profit.
You need to create a report that displays the profits made by each territory for each year
and its previous year.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
B. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
C. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
D. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
Answer: C

Question No : 28 You use Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database to develop a shopping cart application.
You need to rotate the unique values of the ProductName field of a table-valued expression
into multiple columns in the output.
Which Transact-SQL operator should you use?
A. CROSS JOIN
B. CROSS APPLY
C. PIVOT
D. UNPIVOT
070-461 exam 
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 29  You administer a Microsoft SQL Server database that supports a shopping application.
You need to retrieve a list of customers who live in territories that do not have a sales
person.Which Transact- SQL query or queries should you use? (Each correct answer presents a
complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer
WHERE TerritoryID <> SOME(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson)
B. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer
WHERE TerritoryID <> ALL(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson)
C. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer
WHERE TerritoryID <> ANY(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson)
D. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer
WHERE TerritoryID NOT IN(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson) Answer: B,D
You support a database structure shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
Question No : 30
070-461

Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total
FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson
ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID
GROUP BY GROUPING SETS((SalesPerson.Name, Country, City, DatePart(yyyy,
SaleDate)), (Country, City), (Country), ())
B. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total
FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson
ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID
GROUP BY CUBE(SalesPerson.Name, Country, City, DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate))
C. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total
FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson
ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID
GROUP BY CUBE(SalesPerson.Name, DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate), City, Country)
D. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total
FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson
ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID

GROUP BY ROLLUP(SalesPerson.Name, DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate), City, Country)
070-461 dumps 
Answer: A
Explanation:
Be careful with this question,because on exam can be different options for answer.
And none of them is correct : D You should report this question.

You are developing a database that will contain price information. You need to store the
prices that include a fixed precision and a scale of six digits. Which data type should you
use?
A. Float
B. Money
C. Smallmoney
D. Numeric
Answer: D
Explanation:
Numeric is the only one in the list that can give a fixed precision and scale.
Question No : 31
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server database that supports a banking transaction
management application.
You need to retrieve a list of account holders who live in cities that do not have a branch
location.
Which Transact-SQL query or queries should you use? (Each correct answer presents a
Question No : 32
complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. SELECT AccountHolderID
FROM AccountHolder
WHERE CityID NOT IN (SELECT CityID FROM BranchMaster)
B. SELECT AccountHolderID
FROM AccountHolder
WHERE CityID <> ALL (SELECT CityID FROM BranchMaster)
C. SELECT AccountHolderlD
FROM AccountHolder
WHERE CityID <> SOME (SELECT CityID FROM BranchMaster)
D. SELECT AccountHolderID
FROM AccountHolder
WHERE CityID <> ANY (SELECT CityID FROM BranchMaster)
070-461 vce 
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Verified the answers as correct.
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The database contains a table
named Employee. Part of the Employee table is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit
button.)
Question No : 33
070-461

Confidential information about the employees is stored in a separate table named
EmployeeData. One record exists within EmployeeData for each record in the Employee

table. You need to assign the appropriate constraints and table properties to ensure data
integrity and visibility. On which column in the Employee table should you a create a unique
constraint?
A. DateHired
B. DepartmentID
C. EmployeelD
D. EmployeeNum
E. FirstName
F. JobTitle
G. LastName
H. MiddleName
I. ReportsToID
Answer: D
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The database contains a table
named Employee. Part of the Employee table is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit
button.)
Question No : 34
070-461

✑ ✑
Confidential information about the employees is stored in a separate table named
EmployeeData. One record exists within EmployeeData for each record in the Employee
table.
You need to assign the appropriate constraints and table properties to ensure data integrity
and visibility.
On which column in the Employee table should you use an identity specification to include
a seed of 1,000 and an increment of 1?
A. DateHired
B. DepartmentID
C. EmployeeID
D. EmployeeNum
E. FirstName
F. JobTitle
G. LastName
H. MiddleName
I. ReportsToID
070-461 pdf 
Answer: C
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that includes a table named
Products. The Products table has columns named Productld, ProductName, and
CreatedDateTime.
The table contains a unique constraint on the combination of ProductName and
CreatedDateTime.
You need to modify the Products table to meet the following requirements:
Remove all duplicates of the Products table based on the ProductName column.
Retain only the newest Products row.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. WITH CTEDupRecords
AS
Question No : 35
SELECT MAX(CreatedDateTime) AS CreatedDateTime, ProductName
FROM Products
GROUP BY ProductName
HAVING COUNT(*) > 1
)
DELETE p
FROM Products p
JOIN CTEDupRecords cte ON
B. ProductName = cte.ProductName
AND p.CreatedDateTime > cte.CreatedDateTime
C. WITH CTEDupRecords
AS
(
SELECT MAX(CreatedDateTime) AS CreatedDateTime, ProductName
FROM Products
GROUP BY ProductName
HAVING COUNT(*) > 1
)
DELETE p
FROM Products p
JOIN CTEDupRecords cte ON
cte.ProductName = p.ProductName
AND cte.CreatedDateTime > p.CreatedDateTime
D. WITH CTEDupRecords
AS
(
SELECT MIN(CreatedDateTime) AS CreatedDateTime, ProductName
FROM Products
GROUP BY ProductName
)
DELETE p
FROM Products p
JOIN CTEDupRecords cte ON
E. ProductName = cte.ProductName
F. WITH CTEDupRecords
AS
(
SELECT MAX(CreatedDateTime) AS CreatedDateTime, ProductName
FROM Products
GROUP BY ProductName
HAVING COUNT(*) > 1
)
DELETE p
FROM Products p
JOIN CTEDupRecords cte ON
G. ProductName = cte.ProductName
Answer: B
Question No : 36You develop three Microsoft SQL Server 2012 databases named Database1, Database2,
and Database3.
You have permissions on both Database1 and Database2. You plan to write and deploy a
stored procedure named dbo.usp_InsertEvent in Database3. dbo.usp_InsertEvent must
execute other stored procedures in the other databases.
You need to ensure that callers that do not have permissions on Database1 or Database2
can execute the stored procedure.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. USE Database2
B. EXECUTE AS OWNER
C. USE Database1
D. EXECUTE AS CALLER
070-461 dumps 
Answer: B
Question No : 37  You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that has multiple tables in the Sales
schema. Some users must be prevented from deleting records in any of the tables in the
Sales schema. You need to manage users who are prevented from deleting records in the
Sales schema.
You need to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. What
should you do? A. Create a custom database role that includes the users. Deny Delete permissions on the
Sales schema for the custom database role.
B. Include the Sales schema as an owned schema for the db_denydatawriter role. Add the
users to the
db_denydatawriter role.
C. Deny Delete permissions on each table in the Sales schema for each user.
D. Create a custom database role that includes the users. Deny Delete permissions on
each table in the Sales schema for the custom database role.
Answer: A
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The database contains a Product
table created by using the following definition:
Question No : 38
070-461

You need to ensure that the minimum amount of disk space is used to store the data in the
Product table.
What should you do?
A. Convert all indexes to Column Store indexes.
B. Implement Unicode Compression.
C. Implement row-level compression.
D. Implement page-level compression.
070-461 vce 
Answer: D
You generate a daily report according to the following query:
Question No : 39
070-461

You need to improve the performance of the query.
What should you do?
A. Drop the UDF and rewrite the report query as follows:
WITH cte(CustomerID, LastOrderDate) AS (
SELECT CustomerID, MAX(OrderDate) AS [LastOrderDate]
FROM Sales.SalesOrder
GROUP BY CustomerID
)
SELECT c.CustomerName
FROM cte
INNER JOIN Sales.Customer c
ON cte.CustomerID = c.CustomerID
WHERE cte.LastOrderDate < DATEADD(DAY, -90, GETDATE())
B. Drop the UDF and rewrite the report query as follows:
SELECT c.CustomerName
FROM Sales.Customer c
WHERE NOT EXISTS (

SELECT s.OrderDate
FROM Sales.SalesOrder
WHERE s.OrderDate > DATEADD(DAY, -90, GETDATE())
AND s.CustomerID = c.CustomerID)
C. Drop the UDF and rewrite the report query as follows:
SELECT DISTINCT c.CustomerName
FROM Sales.Customer c
INNER JOIN Sales.SalesOrder s
ON c.CustomerID = s.CustomerID
WHERE s.OrderDate < DATEADD(DAY, -90, GETDATE())
D. Rewrite the report query as follows:
SELECT c.CustomerName
FROM Sales.Customer c
WHERE NOT EXISTS (SELECT OrderDate FROM
Sales.ufnGetRecentOrders(c.CustomerID,
90))
Rewrite the UDF as follows:
CREATE FUNCTION Sales.ufnGetRecentOrders(@CustomerID int, @MaxAge datetime)
RETURNS TABLE AS RETURN (
SELECT OrderDate
FROM Sales.SalesOrder
WHERE s.CustomerID = @CustomerID
AND s.OrderDate > DATEADD(DAY, [email protected], GETDATE())
070-461 exam 
Answer: A
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database named ContosoDb. Tables are
defined as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
Question No : 40
070-461

You need to display rows from the Orders table for the Customers row having the
CustomerId value set to 1 in the following XML format:

<row OrderId=”1″ OrderDate=”2000-01-01T00:00:00″ Amount=”3400.00″
Name=”Customer
A” Country=”Australia” />
<row OrderId=”2″ OrderDate=”2001-01-01T00:00:00″ Amount=”4300.00″
Name=”Customer
A” Country=”Australia” />
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1
FOR XML RAW
B. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1
FOR XML RAW, ELEMENTS
C. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1
FOR XML AUTO
D. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId – Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId= 1
FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS
E. SELECT Name, Country, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId- 1
FOR XML AUTO
F. SELECT Name, Country, Orderld, OrderDate, Amount
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId= 1
FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS
G. SELECT Name AS ‘@Name’, Country AS ‘@Country’, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId= 1
FOR XML PATH (‘Customers’)
H. SELECT Name AS ‘Customers/Name’, Country AS ‘Customers/Country’, OrderId,
OrderDate, Amount
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId= 1
FOR XML PATH (‘Customers’)

Answer: A
You have a database that contains the tables as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit
button.)
Question No : 41 CORRECT TEXT
070-461

You have the following query:
070-461

✑ ✑ ✑ ✑
You need to recreate the query to meet the following requirements:
Reference columns by using one-part names only.
Sort aggregates by SalesTerritoryID, and then by ProductID.
Order the results in descending order from SalesTerritoryID to Produc
The solution must use the existing SELECT clause and FROM clause
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer
Answer:
070-461

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Exam Code: 70-740
Exam Name: Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows Server 2016
Updated: Jul 23, 2017
Q&As: 162

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Pass4itsure  Latest and Most Accurate 70-740 PDF Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION NO: 32
Which of the following statements about skewness of an empirical probability distribution are
correct?
1. When sampling returns from a time series of asset prices, discretely compounded returns
exhibit higher skewness than continuously compounded returns
2. When the mean is significantly less than the median, this is an indication of negative skewness
3. Skewness is a sign of asymmetry in the dispersion of the data
A. All three statements are correct
B. Statements 1 and 2 are correct
C. Statements 1 and 3 are correct
D. Statements 2 and 3 are correct
70-740 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 33
Consider two securities X and Y with the following 5 annual returns:
X: +10%, +3%, -2%, +3%, +5%
Y: +7%, -2%, +3%, -5%, +10%
In this case the sample covariance between the two time series can be calculated as:
A. 0.40729
B. 0.00109
C. 0.00087
D. 0.32583
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 34
The first derivative of a function f(x) is zero at some point, the second derivative is also zero at this
point. This means that:
A. f has necessarily a minimum at this point
B. f has necessarily a maximum at this point
C. f has necessarily neither a minimum nor a maximum at this point
D. f might have either a minimum or a maximum or neither of them at this point
70-740 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 35
Find the first-order Taylor approximation p(x) for the function: at the point .
A. -x
B. -x+1
C. x-1
D. x+1
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 36
At what point x does the function f(x) = x3 – 4×2 + 1 have a local minimum?
A. -0.666666667
B. 0
C. 2.66667
D. 2
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 37
What is the maximum value for f(x)= 8-(x+3)(x-3)?
A. 8
B. -1
C. 17
D. None of these
70-740 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 38
For the function f(x) =3x-x3 which of the following is true?
A. x = 0 is a minimum
B. x = -3 is a maximum
C. x = 2 is a maximum
D. None of these
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 39
What is the maximum value of the function F(x, y)=x2+y2 in the domain defined by inequalities x
1, y -2, y-x 3 ?
A. 29
B. -25
C. 1
D. 17
70-740 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 37
What is the maximum value for f(x)= 8-(x+3)(x-3)?
A. 8
B. -1
C. 17
D. None of these
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 38
For the function f(x) =3x-x3 which of the following is true?
A. x = 0 is a minimum
B. x = -3 is a maximum
C. x = 2 is a maximum
D. None of these
70-740 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 39
What is the maximum value of the function F(x, y)=x2+y2 in the domain defined by inequalities x
1, y -2, y-x 3 ?
A. 29
B. -25
C. 1
D. 17
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 40
You work for a brokerage firm that charges its client x per share. The volume of trade of a client of
type A depends on the per share commission in the following manner. If the commission is x, the
client of type A will trade e-ax shares on average each week. What is the optimal commission x
that maximizes the income from client A, noting that a is greater than zero?
A. 1
B. a
C. 42
D. a2
70-740 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 41
An indefinite integral of a polynomial function is
A. always positive
B. always increasing
C. always less than the function itself
D. none of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 42
Evaluate the derivative of ln(1+ x2) at the point x = 1
A. 0.5
B. 0
C. 1
D. 2
70-740 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 43
Evaluate the derivative of exp(x2 + 2x + 1) at the point x = -1
A. 0.5
B. 0
C. 1
D. 2
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 44
A 2-year bond has a yield of 5% and an annual coupon of 5%. What is the Macaulay Duration of
the bond?
A. 2
B. 1.95
C. 1.86
D. 1.75
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 45
A 2-year bond has a yield of 5% and an annual coupon of 5%. What is the Modified Duration of
the bond?
A. 2
B. 1.95
C. 1.86
D. 1.75
70-740 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 46
A bond has modified duration 6 and convexity 30. Find the duration-convexity approximation to the
percentage change in bond price when its yield increases by 5 basis points
A. 10 basis point rise
B. 24 basis fall
C. 24 basis point rise
D. 30 basis points fall.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 47
An underlying asset price is at 100, its annual volatility is 25% and the risk free interest rate is 5%.
A European call option has a strike of 85 and a maturity of 40 days. Its Black-Scholes price is
15.52. The options sensitivities are: delta = 0.98; gamma = 0.006 and vega = 1.55. What is the
delta-gamma-vega approximation to the new option price when the underlying asset price
changes to 105 and the volatility changes to 28%?
A. 17.33
B. 18.75
C. 19.23
D. 20.54
Answer: D

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Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate – SAP HANA (Edition 2016 – SPS12)
Certification Provider:
Total Questions: 240 Q&A
Updated on: Jul 03, 2017

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C_HANAIMP_12

Kill4exam Latest and Most Accurate C_HANAIMP_12 PDF Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION NO: 1
Old English had three genders that resembled those of the Germans and so was probably
very difficult for a foreign traveler to learn in a short time.
A.
Old English had three genders that resembled those of the Germans
B. Old English had three genders resembling those of the Germans
C. The three genders of Old English resembled a German’s
D. Old English’s three genders resembled the German’s
E. The three genders of Old English that resembled those of the Germans
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best answer is B. The sentence requires a subject appropriate to both members of a
compound predicate, the second member being and so was probably very difficult for a foreign
traveler to learn in a short time. Old English makes a logical subject. A is incorrect because of the
use of the pronoun that. In D is seems that the three genders belonged to one German.
QUESTION NO: 2
Linguistically, the Pokot seem to be related to numerous peoples who live in the region
with both ties to the Nilo-Hamitic peoples who come from the north and to Bantu peoples
who come from central Africa.
A.
with both ties to the Nilo-Hamitic peoples who come from the north and to Bantu peoples who
come from central Africa.
B. with ties both to the Nilo-Hamitic peoples who come from the north and to Bantu peoples who
come from central Africa.
C. with ties both to the Nilo-Hamitic peoples who come from the north and Bantu peoples who
come from central Africa.
D. both with ties to the Nilo-Hamitic peoples who come from the north and to Bantu peoples who
come from central Africa.
E. both having ties to the Nilo-Hamitic peoples who come from the north and to Bantu peoples
who come from central Africa
Answer: B
C_HANAIMP_12 exam Explanation:
The best answer is B. Choice B places the word both in the best place in the sentence. The Pokot
are related both to… and to….
QUESTION NO: 3
Having logged thousands of hours watching primates from chimpanzees to macaques,
chimps and other primates are no longer thought to be natural-born killers by Dr. Swenson,
they are attuned to peacemaking.
A.
chimps and other primates are no longer thought tobe natural-born killers by Dr.Swenson, they
B. Dr. Swenson has come to believe that far from being natural-born killers, chimps and other
primates
C. Dr. Swenson has now the belief that far from being natural-born killers, chimps and other
primates
D. chimps and other primates are not longer thought to be natural-born killers by Dr. Swenson,
they
E. chimps and other primates are no more thought to be natural-born killers by Dr. Swenson, they
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best answer is B. The noun that comes directly after the comma is modified by having logged
thousands of hours watching primates from chimpanzees to macaques. Answers A, D, and E
illogically have the chimps observing other primates.
QUESTION NO: 4
In the thirties and forties, devotees of Willa Cather’s maintained that her writing has all the
qualities found in the highest order of American writers of the nineteenth and twentieth
century.
A.
Cather’s maintained that her writing has
B. Cather’s maintained that her writing had
C. Cather’s have maintained that her writing had
D. Cather maintained that her writing had
E. Cather maintained that her writing has
Answer: D
C_HANAIMP_12 pdf Explanation:
The best answer is D. The phrase devotees of Willa Cather presents a complete possessive
without adding an apostrophe to her last name. Because the sentence describes a past event, the
verb has in the present tense is incorrect.
QUESTION NO: 5
William Hornby acquired bison herds for breeding stock hoping that this move would
eventually lead to increasing in their numbers, and a fortification of their environment
.
A. increasing in their numbers,
B. an increase in their numbers,
C. their increase in numbers,
D. an increasing in numbers,
E. an increasing in the numbers of them,
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best answer is B. Choice B clearly and correctly uses parallel noun phrases to list the effects
of Hornby’s actions: an increase in… a fortification of
QUESTION NO: 6
The strand fills with water during the rainy season that the peat then holds and keeps it
humid, all of which creates conditions enabling trees to grow.
A.
enabling trees to grow.
B. for the trees to grow.
C. for growing trees.
D. that enable the trees to grow.
E. that the trees can grow.
Answer: D
C_HANAIMP_12 dumps Explanation:
The best answer is D. In choices B and C the preposition for is used unidiomaticly. In choice A the
omission of the word the makes it sound as though these conditions are necessary for all trees.
QUESTION NO: 7
People can debate the aesthetic merits of these overwrought, disquieting, sometimes
gruesome works of art, but no one can dispute their creators’ mastery of the paintbrush as
a blunt instrument.
A.
but no one can dispute their creators’ mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
B. but none can dispute their creators’ mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
C. but not a one can dispute their creators’ mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
D. but no person can dispute their creators’ mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
E. but none can dispute to their creators’ mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best answer is B. The use of none is idiomatically correct. Choice E is incorrect because
dispute can only be followed by a direct object.
QUESTION NO: 8
Drinking milk enriched with vitamin D may significantly reduce the risk of rickets and also
aid for sufferers of heart disease, according to studies recently completed at the University
of California in San Francisco.
A.
significantly reduce the risk of rickets and also aid for
B. be significant in reducing the risk of rickets and aid for
C. significantly reduce the risk of rickets and aid
D. cause a significant reduction in the risk of rickets and aid to
E. significantly reduce the risk of rickets as well as aiding
Answer: A
C_HANAIMP_12 vce Explanation:
The best answer is A. It is the distortion between how the person really is and how he perceives
himself that is the most important factor, as opposed to the level of self-perception itself.
QUESTION NO: 9
Robinson is a botanist whose dream is to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of
Hawaii, a place now awash with introduced species of plants and animals.
A.
who has the dream to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of Hawaii,
B. whose dream it is to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of Hawaii,
C. who it is his dream to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of Hawaii,
D. that is dreaming to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of Hawaii,
E. whose dream is to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of Hawaii,
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best answer is B. According to the passage, when negative social information is encountered
by a person with a highly elevated level of self-perception, it may lead to violence.
QUESTION NO: 10
As literary criticism grows more complex, students majoring in specialized areas like those
of post-colonialism and Marxist discourse have been becoming increasingly successful at
finding positions in the faculties of top universities.
A.
majoring in specialized areas like those of post-colonialism and Marxist discourse have been
becoming increasingly
B. who major in such specialized areas as post-colonialism and Marxist discourse are becoming
more and more

C. who majored in specialized areas such as those of post-colonialism and Marxist discourse are
being increasingly
D. who major in specialized areas like those of post-colonialism and Marxist discourse have been
becoming more and more
E. having majored in such specialized areas as post-colonialism and Marxist discourseare being
increasingly
Answer: D
C_HANAIMP_12 pdf Explanation:
The best answer is D. If the shark can be successfully bred in captivity, it is
possible to continue production of the drug without threatening the shark with extinction.
QUESTION NO: 11
The woodland sub-species were in isolation from contact with humans longer than either
their marsh cousins or the tree-dwelling sub-species.
A.
in isolation from contact with humans longer than
B. isolated from contact with humans longer than
C. in isolation from contact with humans longer than were
D. isolated from contact with humans longer than were
E. in isolation and without contacts with humans longer than
Answer: C
Explanation:
The best answer is C. The infinitive to abolish follows the verb ordered; producing the grammatical
and idiomatic sequence X ordered Y to do Z.
QUESTION NO: 12
For almost five thousand years after its beginning 2.5 million years ago, Homo habilis roamed the
earth, lived in semi-permanent camps, gathered food and shared their economy.
A. For almost five thousand years after its beginning 2.5 million years ago,
B. Beginning 2.5 million years ago for a period of almost five thousand years,
C. Beginning a period of almost five thousand years 2.5 million years ago,
D. During five thousand years, a period beginning 2.5 million years ago,
E. Over a period of five thousand years beginning 2.5 million years ago,
C_HANAIMP_12 dumps 
Answer: E
Explanation:
The best answer is E. Choice E is precise and idiomatically phrased. Choice A is illogical because
it refers grammatically to Homo habilis. Choice B is less clear and direct.
QUESTION NO: 13
Despite protests from some share holders, committee members have ordered the levels of
department head involvement to be curtailed and that the advertising program be
undertaken.
A.
the levels of department head involvement to be curtailed and that the advertising program be
B. the levels of department head involvement to be curtailed and that the advertising program
being
C. the measure of levels of department head involvement to be curtailed and the advertising
program to be
D. the levels of department head involvement to be curtailed with their advertising program being
E. that the levels of department head involvement be curtailed and the advertising program be
Answer: E
Explanation:
The best answer is E. Choice E clearly and correctly uses parallel phrases: the levels of
department head involvement be…. The advertising program be…..
QUESTION NO: 14
Advances in networking technology and home computers have made it easy for millions of
Americans to work in their homes, often facilitating the communication between the
manager, who continues to work on-site at the office, with his distant employees.
A.
communication between the manager, who continues to work on-site at the office, with his
distant employees

B. communication between the manager, who continues the work on-site at the office, with his
distant employees
C. communication between the manager, who continues to work on-site at the office, to his distant
employees
D. communication between the manager, who continues to work on-site at the office, and his
distant employees
E. communication between the manager, who continues to work on-site at the office, with his
distance employees
Answer: D
C_HANAIMP_12 exam Explanation:
The best answer is D. The communication has to be between the manager and his employee.
QUESTION NO: 15
There are any number of skilled freelancers who can develop strategy and create marketing
materials with a keen eye to using proven methods, but also to developing new and
innovative techniques.
A.
with a keen eye to using proven methods, but also to developing new and innovative
techniques
B. with a keen eye for using proven methods, and also to developing new and innovative
techniques
C. with a keen eye not only to using proven methods, but also to developing new and innovative
techniques
D. with a keen eye to using proven methods, but to developing now and innovative techniques
E. with a keen eye not only to using proven methods, and also to developing now and innovative
techniques
Answer: C
C_HANAIMP_12 vce Explanation:
The best answer is C. Choice C correctly develops the parallel not only… but also…

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCDP
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE v2.0)
Exam Code: 300-101
Total Questions: 247 Q&As
Last Updated: May 17, 2017

300-101

Teststarter 300-101 Dumps Virtual Routing and Forwarding-Lite

In this 300-101 article I’m sharing the basics of VRF Lite with two practical labs. I’ve received a couple of requests about this some time ago so, here it is. Note that the second lab is one I found on the internet and made a few changes.

Service providers often need to allow their customers’ traffic to pass through their cloud
without one customer’s traffic (and corresponding routes) be exposed to another customer.

VRF configuration isn’t at all dependent on MPLS but often the two components are chosen to run together. In Cisco terminology, deployment of VRFs without MPLS is known as VRF Lite.

Similarly, enterprise networks might need to segregate various teststarter 300-101 dumps application types, such as keeping voice and video traffic separate from data. These are just a couple of scenarios that could benefit from the Cisco Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF) feature.

VRF allows a single physical router to host multiple virtual routers, with those virtual routers logically isolated from one another, each with its own IP routing table. Simply put it, VRF’s are VLANs for layer 3, and is the basics to understanding MPLS.

Teststarter Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-101 Dumps Exam Q&As

Question Set 1
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101

Based on this FIB table, which statement is correct?
A. There is no default gateway.
B. The IP address of the router on FastEthernet is 209.168.201.1.
C. The gateway of last resort is 192.168.201.1.
D. The router will listen for all multicast traffic.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The 0.0.0.0/0 route is the default route and is listed as the first CEF entry. Here we see the next hop for this default route lists 192.168.201.1 as the default router
(gateway of last resort).

 

 


QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit
300-101

A network administrator checks this adjacency table on a router. What is a possible cause for the incomplete marking?
A. incomplete ARP information
B. incorrect ACL
C. dynamic routing protocol failure
D. serial link congestion
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To display information about the Cisco Express Forwarding adjacency table or the hardware Layer 3-switching adjacency table, use the show adjacency
command.
Reasons for Incomplete Adjacencies
There are two known reasons for an incomplete adjacency:
The router cannot use ARP successfully for the next-hop interface.
After a clear ip arp or a clear adjacency command, the router marks the adjacency as incomplete. Then it fails to clear the entry.
In an MPLS environment, IP CEF should be enabeled for Label Switching. Interface level command ip route-cache cef
No ARP Entry
When CEF cannot locate a valid adjacency for a destination prefix, it punts the packets to the CPU for ARP resolution and, in turn, for completion of the adjacency.

 

 

QUESTION 3
A network engineer notices that transmission rates of senders of TCP traffic sharply increase and decrease simultaneously during periods of congestion. Which
condition causes this?
A. global synchronization
B. tail drop
C. random early detection
D. queue management algorithm
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
TCP global synchronization in computer networks can happen to TCP/IP flows during periods of congestion because each sender will reduce their transmission
rate at the same time when packet loss occurs.
Routers on the Internet normally have packet queues, to allow them to hold packets when the network is busy, rather than discarding them.
Because routers have limited resources, the size of these queues is also limited. The simplest technique to limit queue size is known as tail drop. The queue is
allowed to fill to its maximum size, and then any new packets are simply discarded, until there is space in the queue again. This causes problems when used on
TCP/IP routers handling multiple TCP streams, especially when bursty traffic is present. While the network is stable, the queue is constantly full, and there are no
problems except that the full queue results in high latency. However, the introduction of a sudden burst of traffic may cause large numbers of established, steady
streams to lose packets simultaneously.

 

 


QUESTION 4
Which three problems result from application mixing of UDP and TCP streams within a network with no QoS? (Choose three.)
A. starvation
B. jitter
C. latency
D. windowing
E. lower throughput
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
It is a general best practice not to mix TCP-based traffic with UDP-based traffic (especially streaming video) within a single service provider class due to the
behaviors of these protocols during periods of congestion. Specifically, TCP transmitters will throttle-back flows when drops have been detected. Although some
UDP applications have application-level windowing, flow control, and retransmission capabilities, most UDP transmitters are completely oblivious to drops and thus
never lower transmission rates due to dropping. When TCP flows are combined with UDP flows in a single service provider class and the class experiences
congestion, then TCP flows will continually lower their rates, potentially giving up their bandwidth to drop-oblivious UDP flows. This effect is called TCP-starvation/
UDP-dominance. This can increase latency and lower the overall throughput.
TCP-starvation/UDP-dominance likely occurs if (TCP-based) mission-critical data is assigned to the same service provider class as (UDP-based) streaming video
and the class experiences sustained congestion. Even if WRED is enabled on the service provider class, the same behavior would be observed, as WRED (for the
most part) only affects TCP-based flows. Granted, it is not always possible to separate TCP-based flows from UDP-based flows, but it is beneficial to be aware of
this behavior when making such application-mixing decisions. Reference: 

 

 


QUESTION 5
Which method allows IPv4 and IPv6 to work together without requiring both to be used for a single connection during the migration process?
A. dual-stack method
B. 6to4 tunneling
C. GRE tunneling
D. NAT-PT
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Dual stack means that devices are able to run IPv4 and IPv6 in parallel. It allows hosts to simultaneously reach IPv4 and IPv6 content, so it offers a very flexible
coexistence strategy. For sessions that support IPv6, IPv6 is used on a dual stack endpoint. If both endpoints support IPv4 only, then IPv4 is used.
Benefits:
Native dual stack does not require any tunneling mechanisms on internal networks
Both IPv4 and IPv6 run independent of each other
Dual stack supports gradual migration of endpoints, networks, and applications.

 

 


QUESTION 6
Which statement about the use of tunneling to migrate to IPv6 is true?
A. Tunneling is less secure than dual stack or translation.
B. Tunneling is more difficult to configure than dual stack or translation.
C. Tunneling does not enable users of the new protocol to communicate with users of the old protocol without dual-stack hosts.
D. Tunneling destinations are manually determined by the IPv4 address in the low-order 32 bits of IPv4-compatible IPv6 addresses.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Using the tunneling option, organizations build an overlay network that tunnels one protocol over the other by encapsulating IPv6 packets within IPv4 packets and
IPv4 packets within IPv6 packets. The advantage of this approach is that the new protocol can work without disturbing the old protocol, thus providing connectivity
between users of the new protocol. Tunneling has two disadvantages, as discussed in RFC 6144:
Users of the new architecture cannot use the services of the underlying infrastructure.
Tunneling does not enable users of the new protocol to communicate with users of the old protocol without dual-stack hosts, which negates interoperability.

 

 


QUESTION 7
A network administrator executes the command clear ip route. Which two tables does this command clear and rebuild? (Choose two.)
A. IP routing
B. FIB
C. ARP cache
D. MAC address table
E. Cisco Express Forwarding table
F. topology table

Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To clear one or more entries in the IP routing table, use the following commands in any mode:
Command Purpose
clear ip route {* |
Clears one or more routes from both the
{route |
unicast RIB and all the module FIBs. The
prefix/length}[next-hop route options are as follows:
interface]}
· *–All routes.
[vrf vrf-name]
Example:
· route–An individual IP route.
switch(config)# clear ip
· prefix/length–Any IP prefix.
route
10.2.2.2
· next-hop–The next-hop address
· interface–The interface to reach the
next-hop address.
The vrf-name can be any case-sensitive, al
phanumeric string up to 32 characters.
Reference:

 

 


QUESTION 8
Which switching method is used when entries are present in the output of the command show ip cache?
A. fast switching
B. process switching
C. Cisco Express Forwarding switching
D. cut-through packet switching
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Fast switching allows higher throughput by switching a packet using a cache created by the initial packet sent to a particular destination. Destination addresses
are stored in the high-speed cache to expedite forwarding. Routers offer better packet-transfer performance when fast switching is enabled. Fast switching is
enabled by default on all interfaces that support fast switching.
To display the routing table cache used to fast switch IP traffic, use the “show ip cache” EXEC command.
Reference:

 

 


QUESTION 9
Which two actions must you perform to enable and use window scaling on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Execute the command ip tcp window-size 65536.
B. Set window scaling to be used on the remote host.
C. Execute the command ip tcp queuemax.
D. Set TCP options to “enabled” on the remote host.
E. Execute the command ip tcp adjust-mss.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The TCP Window Scaling feature adds support for the Window Scaling option in RFC 1323, TCP Extensions for High Performance . A larger window size is
recommended to improve TCP performance in network paths with large bandwidth-delay product characteristics that are called Long Fat Networks (LFNs). The
TCP Window Scaling enhancement provides that support. The window scaling extension in Cisco IOS software expands the definition of the TCP window to 32
bits and then uses a scale factor to carry this 32-bit value in the 16-bit window field of the TCP header. The window size can increase to a scale factor of 14.
Typical applications use a scale factor of 3 when deployed in LFNs.
The TCP Window Scaling feature complies with RFC 1323. The larger scalable window size will allow TCP to perform better over LFNs. Use the ip tcp window
size command in global configuration mode to configure the TCP window size. In order for this to work, the remote host must also support this feature and its
window size must be increased. 

The worldwide network landscape is continually changing with new technologies being introduced continually. The new revision of the Cisco ROUTE 300-101 exam is the most information packed addition to the CCNP Routing and Switching curriculum experienced to date! By the time you’re done watching, you’ll be ready to configure routing protocols at a master level; grasp the big-picture of worldwide Cisco CCNP network design; fill in plenty of “knowledge gaps” left by the CCNA on routing protocols; and confidently sit for the teststarter 300-101 dumps.

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Exam Code: 1Z0-061
Exam Name: Oracle Database 12c: SQL Fundamentals
Updated: Apr 18, 2017
Q&As: 75
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QUESTION 11

What is takin place at the Verifing Encryption stage of the wireless enterpriseactivation process? (Choose one)
A. The BlackBerry device and BlackBerry Enterprise Server are netotiating a master encryption key
B. All personal information on the BlackBerry device being compressed, encrytped and sent over the wirless network to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
C. All settings on the BlackBerry device are being verified by the BlackBerry Enterprise Server for security considerations
D. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server is sending service book information to the BlackBerry device
E. The BlackBerry device is scanning the BlackBerry Enterprise Server settings for security considerations

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 12
Which of the following is an encryption standard that is used by the BlackBerry Enterprise Server to communicate with BlackBerry devices? (Shoose one)
A. HTTPS
B. AES
C. TKIP
D. DES
E. TLS

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
A BlackBerry device user who is active on a BlackBerry Enterpirse Server files an email message to a subfolder in the email application and notices the email message no longer appears in the Messages list on the BlackBerry device. Why is this email message no longer viewable in the mail Messages list? (Choose one)
A. The user has the option Hide Filed Messages set to Yes
B. The current theme active on the BlackBerry device is hiding the email message
C. A corrupt Desktop[CMIME] service book
D. Folder redirection is enabled
E. The BlackBerry device email message database is corrupt

Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 14
Which two of the following processes can determine the current build version of BlackBerry Desktop Manger that is installed? (Choose two)
A. Right click the BlackBerry Desktop Manager icon on the desktop and review properties B. Open BlackBerry Desktop Manager>Help>About Desktop Manager
C. Launch the BlackBerry Desktop Manager application and look at the title bar at the top fo the application
D. Open Control panel>Add / remover programs > Select Desktop Manager and choose click here for support info in Windows
E. Look on the BlackBerry Desktop Manager CD

Correct Answer: BD

 

 

QUESTION 15
Which file should be edited to enable advance loggin in BlackBerry Desktop Manager? (Choose one)
A. Dmtrace.log
B. Jvm.log
C. Tiff.log
D. iloptcfg.cfg
E. Sync.log

Correct Answer: D

 

 

1Z0-061 pdf QUESTION 16
Within the properties of a given Desktop service book, which field denotes the BlackBerry Enterprise Server that the BlackBerry device has been activated on? (Choose one)
A. DSID
B. UID
C. CID
D. Gatetway IP
E. User ID

Correct Answer: B

 

 

QUESTION 17
In BlackBerry Desktop Manager, the title bar continually shows a tatus of Disconnected after connecting the BlackBerry device to the computer. Which of the following troubleshooting steps would help resolve this issue? (Choose two)
A. Perform a clean install of the BlackBerry Device Software
B. Perform a hard reset fo the BlackBerry device
C. Uninstall previous installations of BlackBerry Device Software
D. Ensure Power Management options are turned off for the USB Root Hubs on the computer
E. Ensure no other USB devices are connected to the computer

Correct Answer: BD

 

 

QUESTION 18
If the synchronization process with BlackBerry Desktop Manager appears to be successful but no information is transferred to the BlackBerry device, what is the cause of this? (Choose one)
A. The BlackBerry device memory is full
B. The items were transferred to a media card instead of the internal BlackBerry device memory
C. The wireless radio is turned off
D. BlackBerry Desktop Manger is setup to sue the wrong MAPI profile
E. The BlackBerry device is missing the appropriate service books
Correct Answer: D

 

 

QUESTION 19
Which three of the following conditions must be met in order to initiate a wireless enterprise activation of a BlackBerry device on a BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose three)
A. The servccie provider has provisioned the BlackBerry device for the Enterprise service class
B. The user account has been added to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
C. The PIN number of th eBlackBerry device has been manually entered under the user account on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
D. An activation password has been set for the user on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
E. The BlackBerry devicemust reeive a token from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server

Correct Answer: ABD

 

 

QUESTION 20
When configuring a BlackBerry device for access to Wi-Fi, which two of the following pieces of infomration are required? (Choose two)
A. IMEI
B. PIN
C. WLAN MAC
D. IMSI
E. SSID

Correct Answer: CE

 

 

QUESTION 21
Which of the following can be obtained from the Options>Acout screren of the BlackBerry device? (choose one)
A. BlackBerry Device Software version
B. Owner information
C. Mobile Network IMSI
D. PIN
E. IT Policy name

Correct Answer: A

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Preparation Guide for Up To Date Microsoft 70-411 Exam Administering Windows Server 2012

Exam Code: 70-411
Exam Name: Administering Windows Server 2012
Updated: Mar 17, 2017
Q&As: 234
Published: September 17, 2012
Languages: English, Chinese (Simplified), French, German, Japanese, Portuguese (Brazil)
Audiences:IT professionals
Technology: Windows Server 2012 R2
Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSA, MCSE
Exam Information:http://www.real4exam.com/70-411.html

70-411 Exam Objetives

1.1 Deploy and manage server images

  • Windows Deployment Services Overview (TechNet Library)70-411 exam
  • What’s New for Windows Deployment Services (TechNet Library)
  • Windows Deployment Services Getting Started Guide for Windows Server 2012 (TechNet Library)
  • Deploying 70-411 exam Windows Server 2012: From Bare Metal, Server Core, Minimal Server Interface, and More (Session: Andrew Mason @ TechEd North America 2012)
  • What’s New in Windows Deployment Services in Windows Server 2012 R2 (R2)
  • Windows Deployment Services Cmdlets in Windows PowerShell (R2)
  • Using the WDS PowerShell Cmdlets in Windows Server 2012 R2 (R2)
  • Managing and Deploying Driver Packages in Windows Deployment Services (R2)

 

Real4exam Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-411 Exam Q&As 

70-411 exam Question No : 32 – (Topic 0)  Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain
contains a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has a
share named Share1.
When users without permission to Share1 attempt to access the share, they receive the
Access Denied message as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-411 exam

You deploy a new file server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to configure Server2 to display the same custom Access Denied message as
Server1.
What should you install on Server2?
A. The Remote Assistance feature
B. The Storage Services server role
C. The File Server Resource Manager role service
D. The Enhanced Storage feature
Answer: C
Explanation:
Access-Denied Assistance is a new role service of the File Server role in Windows Server
2012.

70-411 exam

We need to install the prerequisites for Access-Denied Assistance.
Because Access-Denied Assistance relies up on e-mail notifications, we also need to
configure each relevant file server with a Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) server
address. Let’s do that quickly with Windows PowerShell:
Set-FSRMSetting -SMTPServer mailserver. nuggetlab.com -AdminEmailAddress
[email protected] -FromEmailAddress [email protected]
You can enable Access-Denied Assistance either on a per-server basis or centrally via
Group Policy. To my mind, the latter approach is infinitely preferable from an administration
standpoint.
Create a new GPO and make sure to target the GPO at your file servers’ Active Directory
computer accounts as well as those of your AD client computers. In the Group Policy
Object Editor, we are looking for the following path to configure Access-Denied Assistance:
\Computer Configuration\Policies\Administrative Templates\System\Access-Denied
Assistance

70-411 exam

The Customize message for Access Denied errors policy, shown in the screenshot below,
enables us to create the actual message box shown to users when they access a shared
file to which their user account has no access.

70-411 exam

What’s cool about this policy is that we can “personalize” the e-mail notifications to give us
administrators (and, optionally, file owners) the details they need to resolve the permissions
issue quickly and easily.
For instance, we can insert pre-defined macros to swap in the full path to the target file, the
administrator e-mail address, and so forth. See this example:
Whoops! It looks like you’re having trouble accessing [Original File Path]. Please click
Request Assistance to send [Admin Email] a help request e-mail message. Thanks!
You should find that your users prefer these human-readable, informative error messages
to the cryptic, non-descript error dialogs they are accustomed to dealing with.
The Enable access-denied assistance on client for all file types policy should be enabled to
force client computers to participate in Access-Denied Assistance. Again, you must make
sure to target your GPO scope accordingly to “hit” your domain workstations as well as
your Windows Server 2012 file servers.
Testing the configuration
This should come as no surprise to you, but Access-Denied Assistance works only with
Windows Server 2012 and Windows 8 computers. More specifically, you must enable the
Desktop Experience feature on your servers to see Access-Denied Assistance messages
on server computers.
When a Windows 8 client computer attempts to open a file to which the user has no
access, the custom Access-Denied Assistance message should appear:

70-411 exam

If the user clicks Request Assistance in the Network Access dialog box, they see a
secondary message:

70-411 exam

At the end of this process, the administrator(s) will receive an e-mail message that contains
the key information they need in order to resolve the access problem:
The user’s Active Directory identity
The full path to the problematic file
A user-generated explanation of the problem
So that’s it, friends! Access-Denied Assistance presents Windows systems administrators
with an easy-to-manage method for more efficiently resolving user access problems on
shared file system resources. Of course, the key caveat is that your file servers must run
Windows Server 2012 and your client devices must run Windows 8, but other than that, this
is a great technology that should save admins extra work and end-users extra headaches.

 

 

70-411 exam Question No : 33 – (Topic 0)  You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the
File Server Resource Manager role service installed.
Each time a user receives an access-denied message after attempting to access a folder
✑ ✑ ✑ ✑ ✑ ✑ ✑
on Server1, an email notification is sent to a distribution list named DL1.
You create a folder named Folder1 on Server1, and then you configure custom NTFS
permissions for Folder1.
You need to ensure that when a user receives an access-denied message while attempting
to access Folder1, an email notification is sent to a distribution list named DL2. The
solution must not prevent DL1 from receiving notifications about other access-denied
messages.
What should you do?
A. From Server Manager, run the New Share Wizard to create a share for Folder1 by
selecting the SMB Share – Advanced option.
B. From the File Server Resource Manager console, modify the Access-Denied Assistance
settings.
C. From the File Server Resource Manager console, modify the Email Notifications
settings.
D. From Server Manager, run the New Share Wizard to create a share for Folder1 by
selecting the SMB Share -Applications option.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Configure the email notification settings
You must configure the email notification settings on each file server that will send the
access-denied assistance messages.
Open File Server Resource Manager. In Server Manager, click Tools, and then
click File Server Resource Manager.
Right-click File Server Resource Manager (Local), and then click Configure
Options.
Click the Email Notifications tab.
Configure the following settings:
In the SMTP server name or IP address box, type the name of IP address of the
SMTP server in your organization.
In the Default administrator recipients and Default “From” e-mail address boxes,
type the email address of the file server administrator.
Click Send Test E-mail to ensure that the email notifications are configured
correctly.
Click OK.

70-411 exam Question No : 34 HOTSPOT – (Topic 0) Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain
contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the File
Server Resource Manager role service installed.
You need to configure Server1 to meet the following requirements:
Ensure that old files in a folder named Folder1 are archived automatically to a
folder named Archive1.
Ensure that all storage reports are saved to a network share.
Which two nodes should you configure?
To answer, select the appropriate two nodes in the answer area.
70-411 exam

70-411 exam

 

 

70-411 exam Question No : 35 DRAG DROP – (Topic 0)  You are a network administrator of an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the
Web Server (IIS) server role installed.
Server1 will host a web site at URL The application pool
identity account of the web site will be set to a domain user account named AppPool1.
You need to identify the setspn.exe command that you must run to configure the
appropriate Service Principal Name (SPN) for the web site.
What should you run?
To answer, drag the appropriate objects to the correct location. Each object may be used
once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or
scroll to view content.
70-411 exam

 

70-411 exam Question No : 36 – (Topic 0)  Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain
contains a domain controller named DC1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. DC1 is
backed up daily.
The domain has the Active Directory Recycle Bin enabled.
During routine maintenance, you delete 500 inactive user accounts and 100 inactive
groups. One of the deleted groups is named Group1. Some of the deleted user accounts
are members of some of the deleted groups.
For documentation purposes, you must provide a list of the members of Group1 before the
group was deleted.
You need to identify the names of the users who were members of Group1 prior to its
deletion.
You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. What should you do first?
A. Mount the most recent Active Directory backup.
B. Reactivate the tombstone of Group1.
C. Perform an authoritative restore of Group1.
D. Use the Recycle Bin to restore Group1.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Active Directory Recycle Bin does not have the ability to track simple changes to
objects.
If the object itself is not deleted, no element is moved to the Recycle Bin for possible
recovery in the future. In other words, there is no rollback capacity for changes to object
properties, or, in other words, to the values of these properties.

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Free Download First-hand Microsoft 70-480 Vce Exam Collection for Microsoft Windows Store Apps

Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this 70-480 exam? Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to your feedback. Testcos appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft Certification program.

Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft Windows Store apps
Exam Name: Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3
Exam Code: 70-480
Total Questions: 205 Q&As
Last Updated: Mar 06, 2017
Exam Information: http://www.testcos.com/70-480.html
70-480 vce

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Share some Microsoft Specialist 70-480 Exam Questions and Answers Below:

Question No : 18 HOTSPOT – (Topic 1)  An HTML page has a canvas element.
You need to draw a red rectangle on the canvas element dynamically. The rectangle
should resemble the following graphic.
70-480 vce

How should you build the code segment? (To answer, select the appropriate options from
the drop-down lists in the answer area.)

70-480 vce

70-480 vce

70-480 vce

 

Question No : 19 – (Topic 1)  You are developing an HTML5 page that has an element with an ID of logo. The page
includes the following HTML.
<div>
Logo:<br>
<div id=”logo”>
</div>
</div>
You need to move the logo element lower on the page by five pixels.
Which lines of code should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)
A. document.getElementById(“logo”) .style.position = “relative”;
B. document.getElementByld(“logo”).Style.top = “5px”;
C. document.getElementById(“logo”).style.top = “-5px”;
D. document.getElementById(“logo”).style.position = “absolute”;
Answer: A,B
Reference:

 

Question No : 20 – (Topic 1)  You are developing a web page by using HTML5 and C5S3. The page includes a <div> tag
with the ID set to validate.
When the page is rendered, the contents of the <div> tag appear on a line separate from
the content above and below it. The rendered page resembles the following graphic.
70-480 vce

The page must be rendered so that the <div> tag is not forced to be separate from the
other content. The following graphic shows the correctly rendered output.

70-480 vce

You need to ensure that the page is rendered to meet the requirement.
Which line of code should you use?
A. document.getElementById(“validate”).style.display = “inline”;
B. document.getElementById(“validate”).style.margin = “0”;
C. document.getElementById(“validate”).style.padding = “0”;
D. document.getElementSyId(“validate”).style.display = “block”;
Answer: A
Reference:

 

Question No : 21 HOTSPOT – (Topic 1) You are creating a web worker for an HTML5 application.
The following tasks must be performed from within the web worker:
Register an event listener for the web worker
Start and stop the web worker
You need to define a function that performs the required tasks.
Which code segment should you use? (To answer, select the appropriate option from the
drop-down list in the answer area.)
70-480 vce

70-480 vce

70-480 vce

 

Question No : 22 – (Topic 1)  You are creating a JavaScript function that displays the name of a web application.
You declare the following button element.
<input type=”button” id= “About” value=”About” />
When a user clicks the button, a JavaScript function named About must be called.
You need to create an event handler that calls the About function when the button is
clicked.
Which two code segments can you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete
solution. Choose two.)

70-480 vce

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C,D
Reference:

 

Question No : 23 HOTSPOT – (Topic 1)  You are creating a function by using JavaScript. The function accepts an object as the
parameter and returns a string that identifies the data type of the object.
✑ ✑ ✑
You have the following requirements:
The function must return “Number” if the object is a number.
The function must return “String” if the object is a string.
The function must return “Unknown” if the object is neither a number nor a string.
You need to implement the function to meet the requirements.
How should you build the code segment? (To answer, select the appropriate options from
the drop-down lists in the answer area.)

70-480 vce

70-480 vce

70-480 vce

 

Question No : 24 – (Topic 1) You need to test the value of the following variable in JavaScript.
var length = “75”;
A block of code must execute if the length equals 75 regardless of the data type.
You need to use the statement that meets this requirement.
Which lines of code should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
Choose two.)
A. if (length = = = 75)
B. if (length = = 75)
C. if (length! = 75)
D. if (length = = “75”)
Answer: B,D

Question No : 25 – (Topic 1) You are developing an application that uses a third-party JavaScript library named
doWork().
The library occasionally throws an “object is null or undefined” error with an error code of
-2146823281.
The application must:
Extract and handle the exceptions thrown by doWork()
Continue normal program execution if other exceptions occur
You need to implement the requirements.
Which code segment should you use?
70-480 vce

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C

I’ll keep things short and sweet in this 70-480 vce.  The content below will cover all of the sections described in the “Skills Measured” section of the Microsoft article that describes the Microsoft Certification exam 70-480 dumps: Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3.  I was not surprised to find that the vast majority of the test topics are discussed on the following two sites: http://www.collection4pdf.com/microsoft-70-483-exam-certification-training/, and  http://www.exampass.net/microsoft-70-243-exam-youtube-training-materials.html.  Since all three of these sites provide extremely reliable information, I attempted to stick with these three sites for all of the 70-480 pdf study guide materials.  You will find that for the most part I was successful.  Enough of my rambling though.  Let’s get started.

Cisco 500-275 Exam Demo, The Best Cisco 500-275 Qs&As On Store

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QUESTION 1
The FireAMP Mobile endpoint connector currently supports which mobile OS device?
A. Firefox
B. HTML5
C. Android
D. iPhone

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2
Which statement describes an advantage of the FireAMP product?
A. Signatures are pushed to endpoints more quickly than other antivirus products.
B. Superior detection algorithms on the endpoint limit the amount of work the cloud must perform.
C. It provides enterprise visibility.
D. It relies on sandboxing.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
Which feature allows retrospective detection?
A. Total Recall
B. Cloud Recall
C. Recall Alert
D. Recall Analysis

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
Which statement describes an advantage of cloud-based detection?
A. Limited customization allows for faster detection.
B. Fewer resources are required on the endpoint.
C. Sandboxing reduces the overall management overhead of the system.
D. High-speed analytical engines on the endpoint limit the amount of work the cloud must perform.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
The FireAMP connector monitors the system for which type of activity?
A. Vulnerabilities
B. Enforcement of usage policies
C. File operations
D. Authentication activity

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
Which disposition can be returned in response to a malware cloud lookup?
A. Dirty
B. Virus
C. Malware
D. Infected

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 7
Which option is a detection technology that is used by FireAMP?
A. fuzzy matching
B. Norton AntiVirus
C. network scans
D. Exterminator

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 8
If a file’s SHA-256 hash is sent to the cloud, but the cloud has never seen the hash before, which disposition is returned?
A. Clean
B. Neutral
C. Malware
D. Unavailable

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 9
File information is sent to the Sourcefire Collective Security Intelligence Cloud using which format?
A. MD5
B. SHA-1
C. filenames

D. SHA-256 Correct Answer: D
Question Set 1 QUESTION 1
How does application blocking enhance security?
A. It identifies and logs usage.
B. It tracks application abuse.
C. It deletes identified applications.
D. It blocks vulnerable applications from running, until they are patched.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
Which set of actions would you take to create a simple custom detection?
A. Add a SHA-256 value; upload a file to calculate a SHA-256 value; upload a text file that contains SHA-256 values.
B. Upload a packet capture; use a Snort rule; use a ClamAV rule.
C. Manually input the PE header data, the MD-5 hash, and a list of MD-5 hashes.
D. Input the file and file name.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
Advanced custom signatures are written using which type of syntax?
A. Snort signatures
B. Firewall signatures
C. ClamAV signatures
D. bash shell

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
When discussing the FireAMP product, which term does the acronym DFC represent?
A. It means Detected Forensic Cause.
B. It means Duplicate File Contents.
C. It means Device Flow Correlation.
D. It is not an acronym that is associated with the FireAMP product.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 5
Custom whitelists are used for which purpose?
A. to specify which files to alert on
B. to specify which files to delete
C. to specify which files to ignore
D. to specify which files to sandbox Correct Answer: C

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Flydumps Cisco 500-265 exam material details are researched and created by the Most Professional Certified Authors who are regularly using current exams experience to create precise and logical dumps.You can get questions and answers from many other websites or books,but logic is the main key of success,and Flydumps will give you this key of success.

QUESTION 1
Which two business use trends have surfaced in the last five years and require nontraditional security? (Choose two.)
A. BYOD
B. Wi-Fi connections
C. partial URL and application blocking
D. third-party applications
E. web and email attacks
F. a large number of remote employees

Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 2
Which three options describe the main problems with traditional security solutions? (Choose three.)
A. fragmented solutions
B. the lack of management solutions
C. missing components
D. solutions being pieced together
E. the lack of a cloud solution
F. the lack of a firewall
G. security gaps

Correct Answer: ADG
QUESTION 3
The current Cisco comprehensive framework solutions are divided into which three categories? (Choose three.)
A. Content Security
B. Cloud Security
C. Network Security
D. Access Security
E. Data Center Security
F. Internet Security
G. Advanced Malware Protection

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 4
In the Cisco future solutions architecture framework, the security solutions are directly built upon which component?
A. management and intelligence capabilities
B. Cisco security platforms
C. third-party applications
D. security intelligence operations
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which three values should you use to position Cisco security solutions? (Choose three.)
A. time-to-value
B. protection
C. control
D. integration
E. flexibility
F. agility
G. scalability
Correct Answer: BCE
Cisco Architecture Solutions
QUESTION 1
Which Cisco security technology delivers the best real-time threat intelligence?
A. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall
B. Cisco Identity Services Engine
C. Cisco Security Manager
D. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
E. Cisco TrustSec

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Which two solutions are main components of Cisco Content Security? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall
B. Cisco Web Security
C. Cisco Remote-Access VPN
D. Sourcefire Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
E. Cisco Email Security
F. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 3
Cisco Content Security integrates seamlessly with existing security and network infrastructures. This statement describes which Cisco value?
A. time-to-value
B. protection
C. control
D. scalability
E. flexibility
F. agility
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
Which two features are components of the Cisco Web Security Appliance? (Choose two.)
A. encryption
B. URL filtering
C. user identity tracking
D. antispam defense
E. impact assessment
F. Cisco Application Visibility and Control
G. context awareness
H. device profiling and onboarding

Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 5
Cisco network security offers unmatched visibility and control of network and application traffic. This statement describes which Cisco value?
A. time-to-value
B. protection
C. control
D. scalability
E. flexibility
F. agility

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which four solutions are Cisco network security solutions? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco site-to-site VPN technologies
B. Cisco Identity and Access Control
C. Cisco Email Security
D. Cisco Web Security Appliance
E. Sourcefire Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
F. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall
G. Cisco security appliance
H. Cisco Remote-Access VPN

Correct Answer: AEFG
QUESTION 7
Which two features are part of site-to-site VPN? (Choose two.)
A. web email controls
B. user identity traction
C. SSL decryption
D. Snort technology
E. remote access
F. seamless connection with Cisco ASA

Correct Answer: EF
QUESTION 8
Cisco Secure Access Solutions delivers a secure connection to a continually growing number of endpoints. This statement is an example of which Cisco value?
A. time-to-value
B. protection
C. control
D. scalability
E. flexibility
F. agility
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 9
Which feature is a primary feature of Cisco AnyConnect?
A. role-based policy management
B. context-aware access
C. secure and flexible remote access
D. SSL decryption

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QUESTION 29
Which option is an example of a distance vector routing protocol?
A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. ARP

D. IS-IS
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
Which option is an example of an advanced distance vector routing protocol?
A. EIGRP
B. RIP
C. OSPF
D. ARP
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
Which option is an example of a link-state routing protocol?
A. EIGRP
B. RIP
C. OSPF
D. ARP
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
What is the maximum allowable hop count for RIPv1?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 15
E. 16
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
What is the default periodic interval at which RIPv1 sends routing updates?
A. 15 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 45 seconds
D. 60 seconds
E. 90 seconds
F. RIPv1 only sends routing updates when the topology changes.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
What does RIPv1 send to its neighbors?
A. Information about changed routes
B. Information about new routes
C. The entire routing table
D. Information about deleted routes
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 35
What are two advantages of employing an external router for inter-VLAN routing over an IEEE 802.1Q trunk link? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 3 functionality is not required on the switch.
B. The router facilitates communication between VLANs.
C. The single traffic path is optimized.
D. Latency is reduced as packets leave the switch.
E. Equal-Cost Multipath is supported.

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 36
Which statement correctly describes an SVI?
A. An SVI is a Layer 2 interface and uses a dynamic MAC address.
B. An SVI cannot have an IP address assigned to it.
C. An SVI provides Layer 3 routing between VLANs.
D. Each switch port requires an SVI assignment.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37
What is the Cisco Nexus Operating System command to define a port as a Layer 3 port?
A. Port routed
B. No switchport
C. l3 switchport
D. Port switching off

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 38
Which statement is correct regarding a routed port on a multilayer switch?
A. A routed port requires an SVI definition.
B. Routed ports cannot be configured on a multilayer switch that uses SVIs.
C. A maximum of 32 routed ports can be provisioned on a given multilayer switch.
D. A routed port is a physical port that supports Layer 3 routing.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 39
On a new Cisco Nexus switch, you receive an error message when you attempt to create an SVI. What is the first command you must use to create the SVI?
A. Interface vlan (vlan_id)
B. Vlan (vlan_id)
C. Feature svi
D. Interface routed

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 40
Which command should you use to configure a Cisco Nexus switch port for Layer 2 operation?
A. nexus(config-if)#switchport
B. nexus(config-if)#layer-2
C. nexus(config-if)#routed
D. nexus(config)#interface vlan 10 nexus(config-if)#switchport

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
Which version of Cisco Nexus Operating System became a common operating system for Cisco Nexus switches and Cisco MDS storage switches?
A. 2.7
B. 3.3
C. 3.9
D. 4.1
E. 5.01GD
F. 6.2
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
What are two core features of Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose two.)
A. SNMPv3
B. RMON
C. System Manager

D. PSS
E. VRF
F. TRILL
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 43
What is the acronym expansion of the UDLD feature of Cisco Nexus Operating System?
A. UniDirectional Link Detection
B. Unified Data Link Distribution
C. Unified Data Loss Detection
D. Unified Directional Link Distribution
E. Unidirectional Data Loss Detection
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
What are four security features that are included in Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco TrustSec
B. IEEE 802.1Qau
C. CoPP
D. port security
E. PIM
F. SSL VPN
G. IPsec VPN
H. ACLs
Correct Answer: ACDH QUESTION 45
What are three modular Layer 2 processes in Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose three.)
A. UDLD
B. PIM
C. HSRP
D. STP
E. Cisco Discovery Protocol

F. OSPF
Correct Answer: ADE

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