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Exam Code: CAS-002
Exam Name: CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP)
Updated: Sep 12, 2017
Q&As: 532

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QUESTION 29
A software project manager has been provided with a requirement from the customer to place limits on the
types of transactions a given user can initiate without external interaction from another user with elevated
privileges. This requirement is BEST described as an cas-002 simulations implementation of:
A. an administrative control
B. dual control
C. separation of duties
D. least privilege
E. collusion
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 30
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is asking for ways to protect against zero-day exploits. The
CISO is concerned that an unrecognized threat could compromise corporate data and result in regulatory
fines as well as poor corporate publicity. The network is mostly flat, with split staff/guest wireless
functionality. Which of the following equipment MUST be deployed to guard against unknown threats?
A. Cloud-based antivirus solution, running as local admin, with push technology for definition updates.
B. Implementation of an offsite data center hosting all company data, as well as deployment of VDI for all
client computing needs.
C. Host based heuristic IPS, segregated on a management VLAN, with direct control of the perimeter
firewall ACLs.
D. Behavior based IPS with a communication link to a cloud based vulnerability and threat feed.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 31
An CAS-002 dumps organization is concerned with potential data loss in the event of a disaster, and created a backup datacenter as a mitigation strategy. The current storage method is a single NAS used by all servers in both datacenters. Which of the following options increases data availability in the event of a datacenter failure?
A. Replicate NAS changes to the tape backups at the other datacenter.
B. Ensure each server has two HBAs connected through two routes to the NAS.
C. Establish deduplication across diverse storage paths.
D. Establish a SAN that replicates between datacenters.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 32
A security administrator wants to prevent sensitive data residing on corporate laptops and desktops from
leaking outside of the corporate network. The company has already implemented full-disk encryption and
has disabled all peripheral devices on its desktops and laptops. Which of the following additional controls
MUST be implemented to minimize the risk of data leakage? (Select TWO).
A. A full-system backup should be implemented to a third-party provider with strong encryption for data in
transit.
B. A DLP gateway should be installed at the company border.
C. Strong authentication should be implemented via external biometric devices.
D. Full-tunnel VPN should be required for all network communication.
E. Full-drive file hashing should be implemented with hashes stored on separate storage.
F. Split-tunnel VPN should be enforced when transferring sensitive data.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
QUESTION 33
An organization would like to allow employees to use their network username and password to access a
third-party service. The company is using Active Directory Federated Services for their CAS-002 pdf directory service. Which of the following should the company ensure is supported by the third-party? (Select TWO).
A. LDAP/S
B. SAML
C. NTLM
D. OAUTH
E. Kerberos
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
QUESTION 34
A mature organization with legacy information systems has incorporated numerous new processes and
dependencies to manage security as its networks and infrastructure are modernized. The Chief
Information Office has become increasingly frustrated with frequent releases, stating that the organization
needs everything to work completely, and the vendor should already have those desires built into the
software product. The CAS-002 dumps vendor has been in constant communication with personnel and groups within the organization to understand its business process and capture new software requirements from users. Which of the following methods of software development is this organization’s configuration management
process using?
A. Agile
B. SDL
C. Waterfall
D. Joint application development
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 35
Joe, a hacker, has discovered he can specifically craft a webpage that when viewed in a browser crashes
the browser and then allows him to gain remote code execution in the context of the victim’s privilege level.
The browser crashes due to an exception error when a heap memory that is unused is accessed. Which of
the following BEST describes the application issue?
A. Integer overflow
B. Click-jacking
C. Race condition
D. SQL injection
E. Use after free
F. Input validation
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
QUESTION 36
A forensic analyst works for an e-discovery firm where several gigabytes of data are processed daily.
While the business is lucrative, they do not have the resources or the CAS-002 pdf scalability to adequately serve their clients. Since it is an e-discovery firm where chain of custody is important, which of the following scenarios should they consider?
A. Offload some data processing to a public cloud
B. Aligning their client intake with the resources available
C. Using a community cloud with adequate controls
D. Outsourcing the service to a third party cloud provider
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 37
select id, firstname, lastname from authors
User input= firstname= Hack;man
lastname=Johnson
Which of the following types of attacks is the user attempting?
A. XML injection
B. Command injection
C. Cross-site scripting
D. SQL injection
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 38
A network administrator with a company’s NSP has received a CERT alert for targeted adversarial
behavior at the company. In addition to the company’s physical security, which of the following can the
network administrator use to detect the presence of a malicious actor physically accessing the company’s
network or information systems from within? (Select TWO).
A. RAS

B. Vulnerability scanner
C. HTTP intercept
D. HIDS
E. Port scanner
F. Protocol analyzer
cas-002 simulationsCorrect Answer: DF
Explanation
QUESTION 39
A software development manager is taking over an existing software development project. The team
currently suffers from poor communication due to a long delay between requirements documentation and
feature delivery. This gap is resulting in an above average number of security-related bugs making it into
production. Which of the following development methodologies is the team MOST likely using now?
A. Agile
B. Waterfall
C. Scrum
D. Spiral
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 40
Which of the following BEST constitutes the basis for protecting VMs from attacks from other VMs hosted
on the same physical platform?
A. Aggressive patch management on the host and guest OSs.
B. Host based IDS sensors on all guest OSs.
C. Different antivirus solutions between the host and guest OSs.
D. Unique Network Interface Card (NIC) assignment per guest OS.
CAS-002 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 41
The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of a company that allows telecommuting has challenged the Chief
Security Officer’s (CSO) request to harden the corporate network’s perimeter. The CEO argues that the
company cannot protect its employees at home, so the risk at work is no different. Which of the following
BEST explains why this company should proceed with protecting its corporate network boundary?
A. The corporate network is the only network that is audited by regulators and customers.
B. The aggregation of employees on a corporate network makes it a more valuable target for attackers.
C. Home networks are unknown to attackers and less likely to be targeted directly.
D. Employees are more likely to be using personal computers for general web browsing when they are at
home.
CAS-002 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT v2.0)
Updated: Sep 09, 2017
Q&As: 118

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Question Set 1
QUESTION 1
Exhibit:
300-135 dumps

A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RouterA, IP address 10.1.2.1, and RouterB, IP address 10.1.2.2. Given the debug
output on RouterA, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.
B. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
C. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.
D. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
E. RouterA will form an adjacency with RouterB.
F. RouterA will not form an adjacency with RouterB.
300-135 
Correct Answer: DF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two
routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
300-135 dumps

How would you confirm on R1 300-135 dumps that load balancing is actually occurring on the default-network (0.0.0.0)?
A. Use ping and the show ip route command to confirm the timers for each default network resets to 0.
B. Load balancing does not occur over default networks; the second route will only be used for failover.
C. Use an extended ping along with repeated show ip route commands to confirm the gateway of last resort address toggles back and forth.
D. Use the traceroute command to an address that is not explicitly in the routing table.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which IPsec mode will encrypt a GRE tunnel to provide multiprotocol support and reduced overhead?
A. 3DES
B. multipoint GRE
C. tunnel
D. transport

Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which three features are benefits of using GRE tunnels in conjunction with IPsec for building site-to-site VPNs? (Choose three.)
A. allows dynamic routing over the tunnel
B. supports multi-protocol (non-IP) traffic over the tunnel
C. reduces IPsec headers overhead since tunnel mode is used
D. simplifies the ACL used in the crypto map
E. uses Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) to simplify the IPsec VPN configuration
300-135 pdf 
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which statement is true about an IPsec/GRE tunnel?
A. The GRE tunnel source and destination addresses are specified within the IPsec transform set.
B. An IPsec/GRE tunnel must use IPsec tunnel mode.
C. GRE encapsulation occurs before the IPsec encryption process.
D. Crypto map ACL is not needed to match which traffic will be protected.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
The default hide drive behavior is set to “Hide all drives unless otherwise specified” and all other settings
are left at their default settings. Why would one of the user’s drives still be visible?
A. Because it is a USB drive
B. Because it is a home drive
C. Because it is a drive substitute
D. Because it is a DVD-ROM drive
300-135 tshoot dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
You created a new RES Workspace Manager 2012 environment and enabled the option `Cache locally
unless otherwise specified’ at Global level.
Where will the user settings be saved during the session for users that log on to a terminal server session?
A. %homedrive%\Personal Settings\UserPref.
B. %homedrive%\Pwrmenu\UserPref.
C. %localappdata%\RES\WM\UserPref.
D. %userprofile%\Local setinngs\Application Data\RES\WM\UserPref.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
The environment is using the Relay Server. How can an administrator accomplish a direct database
connection with an individual RES Workspace Manager Agent?
A. Block the Relay Server in the firewall.
B. Use the `Datastore connection’ option in the .Connections’ tab of the RES Workspace Manager Agent.
C. Change the config.xml
D. Set the option `Connect directly to the Datastore’ on the Agents node.
300-135 tshoot Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Scope Control is used to
A. Configure to which users a certain application is available.
B. Configure to which users a certain Action setting is applied.
C. Define which nodes are available to a user with access to a certain Administrative Role.
D. Define which Workspace Manager objects are available to a user with access to a certain
Administrative Role.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
An administrator has configured User Settings for a specific application to track registry and files. At
application level, the User Setting is enabled. Start tracking changes is configured to track changes
immediately.
However, no changes are being preserved for users of the application. Which of the following could be the
cause of this problem?
1. Sampling mode is disabled.
2. User Settings is disabled at global level.
3. “Preserve” and “Apply” are both checked.
4. “Allow users to restore their own settings” is disabled

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 4 only
300-135 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
What can be used to generate files for the Workspace Designer?
1. User Settings Sampling Mode
2. Desktop Sampler
3. Baseline Desktop Analyzer
4. Instant Reports
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 4
D. 3 and 4
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
The “Comments” that can be specified when assigning Application Managers to an application is displayed
to the
A. End user when the application is started.
B. End user when access to the application is requested.
C. Application Manager when users are assigned to the application
D. Application Manager when information about the application is viewed.
300-135 tshoot dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
An international Terminal Server farm centrally based in New York has users with different languages
working on it. The best way to create a language-dynamic Start Menu is to base it on
1. Zones.
2. Language Packs.
3. Keyboard mappings.
4. Environment Variables.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15 Which entry is recorded in the Audit Trail 300-135 tshoot ?
A. Granted access
B. Locked account
C. Security warning
D. Actions error
Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: 70-533
Exam Name: Implementing Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Solutions
Updated: Sep 02, 2017
Q&As: 205

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QUESTION 16
You plan to deploy a 70-533 dumps cloud service named contosoapp that has a web role named contosoweb and a worker role named contosoimagepurge.
You need to ensure the service meets the following requirements:
Contosoweb can be accessed over the Internet by using http.
Contosoimagepurge can only be accessed through tcp port 5001 from contosoweb.
Contosoimagepurge cannot be accessed directly over the Internet.
Which configuration should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate configuration setting to the correct
location in the service configuration file. Each configuration setting may be used once, more than once, or
not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
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Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 17
Your development team has created a new solution that is deployed in a virtual network named
fabDevVNet.
Your testing team wants to begin testing the solution in a second Azure subscription.
You need to create a virtual network named fabTestVNet that is identical to fabDevVNet. You want to
achieve this goal by using the least amount of administrative effort.
Which three steps should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list
of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 18
You manage an Azure subscription.
You develop a storage plan with the following requirements:
Database backup files that are generated once per year are retained for ten years.
High performance system telemetry logs are created constantly and processed for analysis every month.
In the table below, identify the storage redundancy type that must be used. Make only one selection in
each column.
Hot Area:
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70-533 exam Correct Answer:

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QUESTION 19
You publish a multi-tenant application named MyApp to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).
You need to ensure that only directory administrators from the other organizations can access MyApp’s
web API.
How should you configure MyApp’s manifest JSON file? To answer, drag the appropriate
PowerShell command to the correct location in the application’s manifest JSON file. Each value may be
used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to
view content.
Select and Place:
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QUESTION 20
You manage an Azure Web Site for a consumer-product company.
The website runs in Standard mode on a single medium instance.
You expect increased traffic to the website due to an upcoming sale during a holiday weekend.
You need to ensure that the website performs optimally when user activity is at its highest.
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QUESTION: 21
What is the best test to help determine ejection fraction at rest and during exercise?
A. Angiography.

B. Thallium stress test.
C. Single-proton emission computer tomography.
D. MUGA (blood pool imagery) study.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 22
A “cold spot” detected in the inferior portion of the left ventricle during a stress test that
resolves 3 hours later most likely indicates
A. An old inferior MI.
B. A MI that is healing.
C. Reversible myocardial ischemia.
D. The need for multiple bypass surgery.
70-533 vce Answer: C
QUESTION: 23
What is the best test of cardiovascular function for a client who is obese, has claudication
in the legs, and has limited mobility because of neurologic damage from uncontrolled
diabetes?
A. Dipyridamole or dobutamine testing and assessment of cardiovascular variables.
B. Discontinuous treadmill exercise test.
C. Resting echocardiography.
D. Continuous submaximal cycle ergometer test.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 24
Although 12-lead testing is the optimal 70-533 dumps ECG configuration, if only one lead can be used,
which one should it be?
A. Lead II.
B. Lead AV
L.
C. Lead V5
D. Lead V1
Answer: C
QUESTION: 25
Which of the following is an indication for terminating an exercise test?
A. The client requests test termination.
B. The respiratory exchange rate exceeds 0.95.
C. The maximal heart rate exceeds 200 bpm.
D. The RPE exceeds 17 on the standard scale.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 26
Given the sensitivity of the exercise ECG, stress testing conducted on 100 cardiac
rehabilitation clients with documented CAD would be expected to produce what results?
A. All 100 clients show ECG indicators of CAD.
B. Approximately 50 clients show ECG indicators of CAD.
C. Approximately 30 clients would show ECG indicators of CAD.
D. Approximately 70 clients would show ECG indicators of CAD.
70-533 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 27
What action should you take for a 55-year-old client who has three risk factors for heart
disease and complains of fatigue on exertion?
A. Conduct a submaximal stress test without the presence of a physician.
B. Conduct a maximal diagnostic stress test in the presence of a physician.
C. Use a questionnaire to evaluate activity, and do not conduct a test.
D. Start the client exercising slowly, and test after 6 weeks.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 28
Which two public methods must be implemented in a functional custom shipping method directly
extending Mage_Shipping_Model_Carrier_Abstract and also implementing
Mage_Shipping_Model_Carrier_Interface? (Choose two)
A. collectRates()
B. getAllowedMethods()
C. isTrackingAvailable()
D. isFixed()
E. getConfigData()
F. checkAvailableShipCountries()
70-533 pdf Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 29
Which of the following is the default setup script class name?
A. Mage_Core_Model_Mysql4_Setup
B. Mage_Core_Model_Resource_Setup_Default
C. Mage_Setup_Model_Resource_Default
D. Mage Core Model Resource Setup
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 30
You need to implement private sales utilizing Website Restrictions as provided by the Enterprise
Edition of Magento, and when customers are not logged in, you want them to be redirected to a
landing page. Where in the Magento admin would you find the settings needed for this task?

A. System -> Configuration -> Enterprise -> Website Restrictions
B. System -> Configuration -> General -> Website Restrictions
C. System -> Manage Stores -> Edit Website
D. System -> Permissions -> Website Restrictions
70-533 vce Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 31
Assume that PayPal has presented a new API for online purchasing that you are going to use.
Which class should you extend for doing that?
A. Mage_Sales_Model_Quote_Payment
B. Mage_Payment_Model_lnfo
C. Mage_Payment_Model_Method_Abstract
D. Mage_Sales_Model_Order_Payment
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 32
To update your order 70-533 dumps information from a third-party system using an XmlRpc call, you should
A. Use the native sales_order.update API call with the url /api/xmlrpc/
B. Create a custom API resource which allows you to receive XmlRpc requests
C. Create a custom API adapter to receive XmlRpc requests
D. Create a custom API handler to process XmlRpc requests
Answer: A
Explanation:

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Exam Code: 070-489
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Advanced Solutions
Updated: Aug 10, 2017
Q&As: 97

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1. Which GVP software component is used to configure the various components of GVP including
application provisioning?
A. Element Management Provisioning System
B. IP Call Manager
C. Voice Application Reporter
D. Genesys Studio
070-489 exam Answer: A
2. Which GVP application is used to build and test voice applications?
A. Element Management Provisioning System
B. IP Call Manager
C. Voice Application Reporter
D. Genesys Studio
Answer: D
3. Which version of the VoiceXML Specification does GVP version 7.5 support?
A. VoiceXML 1.0
B. VoiceXML 1.1
C. VoiceXML 2.0
D. VoiceXML 3.0
070-489 dumps Answer: C
4. The GVP VoiceXML application logic resides on .
A. a web server
B. the VCS
C. the VPM
D. the IPCM
Answer: A
5. How are VoiceXML pages produced during a GVP call session?
A. Web application server generates VoiceXML when processing asp or jsp pages
B. VCS or IPCS produce VoiceXML when the call is initiated
C. EMPS produces VoiceXML when the request comes in
D. IPCS creates the VoiceXML when it relays SIP messages
070-489 pdf Answer: A
6. The Voice Communication Server (VCS) processes calls.
A. VoIP
B. IPCS
C. Web-based GUI
D. TDM
Answer: D
7. The Internet Protocol Communication Server (IPCS) processes calls.

A. SIP
B. HTML
C. TDM D.
EMPS
070-489 vce Answer: A
8. The Internet Protocol Communication Server (IPCS) processes calls.
A. SIP
B. HTML
C. TDM D.
EMPS
Answer: A
9. A Primary Voice Application URL is required when provisioning the IVR Profile. The Primary Voice
Application CANNOT include .
A. the fully qualified name of the web server that hosts the application
B. the numeric IP address of the web server that hosts the application
C. the name of the first page of the voice application
D. the path to the <Application Name>.XML file
070-489 exam Answer: D
10. Refer to the CTI Property tab in the Provisioning IVR profile section in the EMPS. The Default Route
Number is used when .
A. IVR Server is unable to contact the Solution Control Interface (SCI)
B. IVR Server is unable to contact the Universal Routing Server (URS), or when the URS is unable to
find an agent number to which it can route the call
C. IVR component, specifically Genesys Queue Adapter (GQA), cannot communicate with SCS.
D. IVR Server component cannot communicate with the Web Server
Answer: B
11.The <DNIS>.XML and <Application_Name>.xml files are generated when .
A. a call arrives at the VCS
B. an application is created and configured in EMPS
C. the WatchDog on the EMPS is restarted
D. requested by the IVR Server
070-489 dumps Answer: B
12. The <Application_Name>.xml files provides all of the .
A. VCS configuration information
B. voice application information
C. IPCS configuration information
D. web server configuration information
Answer: B
13. The DNIS.xml provides .
A. the Primary Application URL
B. all application configuration information but no process information
C. the address of the IVR Server
D. the URL path to the <Application_Name>.XML
070-489 pdf Answer: D
14. Where is the default location of the DNIS Application Mapping Files?
A. <install dir>\CN\data
B. <install dir>\CN\web\dispenser\spd_data
C. <install dir>\CN\config
D. http://EMPS:9810/spm
Answer: B
15. In the <Application_Name>.xml file, the IVRTimeout value determines .
A. how long URS waits for the response from web server before timing out and trying default routing
target.
B. how long VCS/IPCS waits for the response from web server before timing out and attempting to reach
the Backup IVR URL.
C. how long GQA waits for the connection with the IVR Server before using the Backup IVR URL.
D. how long VCS/IPCS waits for the response from web server before timing out and attempting to reach
the Primary IVR URL.
070-489 vce Answer: B
16. Which of the following features can be changed using the Element Management System (EMS) GUI
when monitoring a VCS?
A. the log level for each process
B. the default directory for logging
C. the Behind or In-Front configuration for that particular VCS
D. the speech recognition vendor for that particular VCS
Answer: A
17.When would you use the Import Server Instance CSV feature in EMPS?
A. Never. This feature is not available through the EMPS
B. Any time you want to make a change to any of the parameters in EMPS
C. You want to start the Watchdog service
D. When numerous changes are needed with servers or configuration of various components for a
server and in conjunction with Genesys Technical Support
070-489 exam Answer: D
18. Under what circumstances is a username and password required to access the EMPS?
A. Never. By default, a username and password is not required since EMPS is only used for monitoring
purposes.
B. Always. When opening EMPS Login screen, the system will require users enter their username and

password.
C. Only when the EMPS is being accessed from a remote workstation. You are automatically
authenticated and can log in from a local machine.
D. Only when using SunOne Directory Server because OpenLDAP has no built-in security for the EMPS
login screen.
Answer: B
19. The ability to record the caller’s speech for application analysis is configured in an IVR Profile within
the EMPS and is referred to as .
A. OA&M
B. EMS Runtime
C. Enable ASR Transcoding
D. Enable ASR Logging
070-489 dumps Answer: D
20.The process on the VCS/IPCS that starts the other component processes is the .
A. Page Collector
B. IVR Server Client C.
Call Flow Assistant D.
WatchDog
Answer: D
21.Which VCS/IPCS component controls the TDM telephony or IP Telephony interfaces?
A. PopGateway
B. Page Collector
C. MRCP Client
D. Net Management
070-489 pdf Answer: A
22. Which of the following are Windows prerequisites for VCS?
A. there are no Windows prerequisites
B. Active Directory
C. IIS and SNMP
D. SQL Server
Answer: C

23. A logical group of ports is referred to as a .
A. Telephony Manager
B. Route
C. Page Collector
D. MRCP Client
070-489 vce Answer: B

24. For most deployments with VCS configured in Behind-the-Switch mode using Genesys Framework,
DNIS is obtained through what mechanism?
A. VCS request to the T-Server via IVR Server
B. VCS requests to the Dialogic telephony board
C. a route point corresponding to the appropriate strategy
D. VCS request directly to the ACD/PBX
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 70-412
Exam Name: Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
Updated: Aug 04, 2017
Q&As: 424

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70-412 dumps

Pass4itsure  Latest and Most Accurate 70-412 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 22
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains an
enterprise certification authority (CA).
The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You install the Active
Directory Federation Services server role on Server1.
You plan to configure Server1 as an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) server.
The Federation Service name will be set to adfs1.contoso.com.
You need to identify which type of certificate template you must use to request a certificate for AD FS.
Hot Area:
70-412 dumps

70-412 exam Correct Answer:

70-412 dumps

QUESTION 23
HOTSPOT
Your network contains two application servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The application servers
have the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature installed.
You create an NLB cluster that contains the two servers.
You plan to deploy an application named App1 to the nodes in the cluster. App1 uses TCP port 8080 and
TCP port 8081.
Clients will connect to App1 by using HTTP and HTTPS via a single reverse proxy. App1 does not use
session state information.
You need to configure a port rule for Appl. The solution must ensure that connections to App1 are
distributed evenly between the nodes.
Which port rule should you use?
To answer, select the appropriate rule in the answer area.
Hot Area:
70-412 dumps

70-412 dumps

Correct Answer:
70-412 dumps

70-412 dumps

QUESTION 24
DRAG DROP
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains three
servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.

70-412 dumps

70-412 dumps  Server1 is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-412 dumps

Template1 contains custom cryptography settings that are required by the corporate security team.
On Server2, an administrator successfully installs a certificate based on Template1.
The administrator reports that Template1 is not listed in the Certificate Enrollment wizard on Server3, even
after selecting the Show all templates check box.
You need to ensure that you can install a server authentication certificate on Server3. The certificate must
comply with the cryptography requirements.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence?
To answer, move the appropriate three actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange
them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
70-412 dumps

Correct Answer:
70-412 dumps

QUESTION 25
HOTSPOT
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 and Server2 have the Hyper-V server role installed.
Server1 and Server2 have different processor models from the same manufacturer.
On Server1, you plan to create a virtual machine named VM1. Eventually, VM1 will be exported to Server2.
You need to ensure that when you import VM1 to Server2, you can start VM1 from saved snapshots.
What should you configure on VM1?
To answer, select the appropriate node in the answer area.
Hot Area:
70-412 dumps

Correct Answer:
70-412 dumps

QUESTION: 26
Explain how flowcharts can be constructed to identify and highlight the non-value added
steps in a process.

70-412 pdf Answer:

70-412 dumps

QUESTION: 27
Explain the relationship between Y = f(X) and a flowchart in respect to Six Sigma
management.

Answer:
As you can see from the following figure, CTQ1= f(X1, X2, X3, X4, X5) and CTQ
2= f(X1, X2, X3, X4, X5)

QUESTION: 28
Explain how Failure Modes and Effects Analysis (FMEA) is used to identify the Xs that
cause CTQs to be out of specification. Construct a table to illustrate your explanation.
70-412 vce Answer:
Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA) is used to identify, estimate, prioritize,
and reduce the risk of failure in CTQs through the development of countermeasures
based on Xs. There are 10 steps to conducting a FMEA. First, team members identify the
critical parameters and their potential failure modes through brainstorming or other tools,
that is, ways in which the design might fail (columns 1 and 2 of the table below). Second,
team members identify the potential effect of each failure (consequences of that failure) and
rate its severity (columns 3 and 4 of the table below). The definition of the severity scale is
shown below. Third, team members identify causes of the effects and rate their likelihood of
occurrence (columns 5 and 6 of the table below). The definition of the likelihood of
occurrence scale is shown below. Fifth, team members identify the current controls for
detecting each failure mode and rate the organization’s ability to detect each failure mode

(columns 7 and 8 of the table below). The definition of the detection scale is shown below.
Sixth, team members calculate the RPN (Risk Priority Number) for each failure mode by
multiplying the values in columns 4, 6 and 8 (column 9 of the table below). Seventh, team
members identify recommended actions and contingency plans, persons responsible, and
target completion dates for reducing or eliminating each failure mode (columns 10 and 11 of
the table below). Eight, team members identify the date the action was taken to reduce or
eliminate each failure mode (column 12 of the table below). Ninth, team members rank the
severity (column 12 of the table below), occurrence (column 13 of the table below) and
detection (column 14 of the table below) of each failure mode after the recommended action
(column 10 of the table below) has been put into motion. Tenth, team members multiple the
values in columns 13, 14 and 15 of the table below to calculate the RPN (Risk Priority
Number) for each failure mode after the recommended action (column 16 of the table below)
has been put into motion.

QUESTION: 29
Define “capability of the process” in statistical terms.
Answer:
Capability is a measure of the relative relationship between the “Voice of the Process” and
the “Voice of the Customer.” This relationship considers the differential between the mean

and nominal of the process. The capability of a stable and normally distributed process is
defined as 99.73% of its output will be in the interval between LNL(mean + 3[ R /d2]) and
UNL (mean – 3[ R /d2]), given measurement data and a subgroup size between 2 and 10
inclusive.
QUESTION: 30
Construct a dot plot for the CTQ. Construct dot plots to study the CTQ for the different levels
of X1 and X2. Construct main effects plots and interaction plots for the following data set.

There is a significant interaction between X1 and X2 that will affect the CTQ. The
70-412 exam interaction is seen in the crossed lines.
QUESTION: 31

Explain the purpose of a 2k full factorial design.
Answer:
The purpose of a 2k full factorial design is to understand the relationships between a set of
Xs each with only two levels, and the interactions of the X’s, on the CTQ’s.

QUESTION NO: 32
Which of the following directories contain the information that is found on a Windows 98 Desktop?
A. C:\Program files\Programs\Desktop
B. C:\Startup\Desktop\Items
C. C:\Windows\Desktop
D. C:\Desktop
70-412 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 33
You are investigating a case of child pornography on a hard drive containing Windows XP. In the
:\Documents and Settings\Bad You are investigating a case of child pornography on a hard drive
containing Windows XP. In the ?:\Documents and Settings\Bad Guy\Local Settings\Temporary
Internet Files?folder you find three images of child pornography. You find no other copies of the
images on the suspect hard drive, and you find no other copies of the filenames. What can be
deduced from your findings? images on the suspect? hard drive, and you find no other copies of
the filenames. What can be deduced from your findings?
A. The presence and location of the images is strong evidence of possession.
B. The presence and location of the images proves the images were intentionally downloaded.
C. Both a and c
D. The presence and location of the images is not strong evidence of possession.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 34
To later verify the contents of an evidence file?
7RODWHUYHULI\WKHFRQWHQWVRIDQHYLGHQFHILOH
A. EnCase writes a CRC value for every 64 sectors copied.
B. EnCase writes an MD5 hash value for every 32 sectors copied.
C. EnCase writes an MD5 hash value every 64 sectors copied.
D. EnCase writes a CRC value for every 128 sectors copied.
70-412 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 35
When undeleting a file in the FAT file system, EnCase will check the to see if it
has already been overwritten.
A. directory entry
B. data on the hard drive
C. deletion table
D. FAT
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 36
Select the appropriate name for the highlighted area of the binary numbers.
A. Bit
B. Nibble
C. Word
D. Byte
E. Dword
70-412 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 37
A SCSI host adapter would most likely perform which of the following tasks?
A. Set up the connection of IDE hard drives.
B. None of the above.
C. Configure the motherboard settings to the BIOS.
D. Make SCSI hard drives and other SCSI devices accessible to the operating system.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 38
Assume that MyNote.txt has been deleted. The FAT file system directory entry for that file has
been overwritten. The data for MyNote.txt is now:
A. Allocated
B. Cross-linked
C. Unallocated
D. Overwritten
70-412 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 39
During the power-up sequence, which of the following happens first?
A. The BIOS on an add-in card is executed.
B. The boot sector is located on the hard drive.
C. The ower On Self-Test.? 7KH ? RZHU2Q6HOI7HVW
D. The floppy drive is checked for a diskette.
Answer: C

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[Ensure Pass PDF Exam From Google Drive] Preparing for Latest Updated 070-461 PDF Microsoft SQL Server 2012 070-461 Practice Test Online on Yumpu

Today I passed the exam in 1st attempt.
I have a Data-warehouse and BI experience of over 3 years, which obviously helped.
Questions where you actually have to implement things you learn would be easy you have database experience.
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Exam Code: 070-461
Exam Name: Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Jul 21, 2017
Q&As: 164

Choosing Microsoft 070-461 pdf study material means you choose an effective, smart, and fast way to succeed in your 070-461 pdf exam certification. You will find explanations along with the answers where is necessary in the 070-461 pdf actual test files.

070-461

Pass4itsure  Latest and Most Accurate 070-461 PDF Dumps Exam Q&As:

Question No : 26 You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a table named Products.
The Products table has the following definition:070-461

You need to create an audit record only when either the RetailPrice or WholeSalePrice
column is updated.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF CCLUMNS_CHANGED(RetailPrice, WholesalePrice)
– – Create Audit Records
B. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF EXISTS(SELECT RetailPrice from inserted) OR
EXISTS (SELECT WholeSalePnce FROM inserted)
– – Create Audit Records
C. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF COLUMNS_UPDATED(RetailPrice, WholesalePrice)

– – Create Audit Records
D. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF UPDATE(RetailPrice) OR UPDATE(WholeSalePrice)
– – Create Audit Records
070-461 pdf Answer: D

Question No : 27 A table named Profits stores the total profit made each year within a territory. The Profits
table has columns named Territory, Year, and Profit.
You need to create a report that displays the profits made by each territory for each year
and its previous year.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
B. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
C. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
D. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
Answer: C

Question No : 28 You use Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database to develop a shopping cart application.
You need to rotate the unique values of the ProductName field of a table-valued expression
into multiple columns in the output.
Which Transact-SQL operator should you use?
A. CROSS JOIN
B. CROSS APPLY
C. PIVOT
D. UNPIVOT
070-461 exam 
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 29  You administer a Microsoft SQL Server database that supports a shopping application.
You need to retrieve a list of customers who live in territories that do not have a sales
person.Which Transact- SQL query or queries should you use? (Each correct answer presents a
complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer
WHERE TerritoryID <> SOME(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson)
B. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer
WHERE TerritoryID <> ALL(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson)
C. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer
WHERE TerritoryID <> ANY(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson)
D. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer
WHERE TerritoryID NOT IN(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson) Answer: B,D
You support a database structure shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
Question No : 30
070-461

Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total
FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson
ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID
GROUP BY GROUPING SETS((SalesPerson.Name, Country, City, DatePart(yyyy,
SaleDate)), (Country, City), (Country), ())
B. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total
FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson
ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID
GROUP BY CUBE(SalesPerson.Name, Country, City, DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate))
C. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total
FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson
ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID
GROUP BY CUBE(SalesPerson.Name, DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate), City, Country)
D. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total
FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson
ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID

GROUP BY ROLLUP(SalesPerson.Name, DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate), City, Country)
070-461 dumps 
Answer: A
Explanation:
Be careful with this question,because on exam can be different options for answer.
And none of them is correct : D You should report this question.

You are developing a database that will contain price information. You need to store the
prices that include a fixed precision and a scale of six digits. Which data type should you
use?
A. Float
B. Money
C. Smallmoney
D. Numeric
Answer: D
Explanation:
Numeric is the only one in the list that can give a fixed precision and scale.
Question No : 31
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server database that supports a banking transaction
management application.
You need to retrieve a list of account holders who live in cities that do not have a branch
location.
Which Transact-SQL query or queries should you use? (Each correct answer presents a
Question No : 32
complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. SELECT AccountHolderID
FROM AccountHolder
WHERE CityID NOT IN (SELECT CityID FROM BranchMaster)
B. SELECT AccountHolderID
FROM AccountHolder
WHERE CityID <> ALL (SELECT CityID FROM BranchMaster)
C. SELECT AccountHolderlD
FROM AccountHolder
WHERE CityID <> SOME (SELECT CityID FROM BranchMaster)
D. SELECT AccountHolderID
FROM AccountHolder
WHERE CityID <> ANY (SELECT CityID FROM BranchMaster)
070-461 vce 
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Verified the answers as correct.
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The database contains a table
named Employee. Part of the Employee table is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit
button.)
Question No : 33
070-461

Confidential information about the employees is stored in a separate table named
EmployeeData. One record exists within EmployeeData for each record in the Employee

table. You need to assign the appropriate constraints and table properties to ensure data
integrity and visibility. On which column in the Employee table should you a create a unique
constraint?
A. DateHired
B. DepartmentID
C. EmployeelD
D. EmployeeNum
E. FirstName
F. JobTitle
G. LastName
H. MiddleName
I. ReportsToID
Answer: D
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The database contains a table
named Employee. Part of the Employee table is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit
button.)
Question No : 34
070-461

✑ ✑
Confidential information about the employees is stored in a separate table named
EmployeeData. One record exists within EmployeeData for each record in the Employee
table.
You need to assign the appropriate constraints and table properties to ensure data integrity
and visibility.
On which column in the Employee table should you use an identity specification to include
a seed of 1,000 and an increment of 1?
A. DateHired
B. DepartmentID
C. EmployeeID
D. EmployeeNum
E. FirstName
F. JobTitle
G. LastName
H. MiddleName
I. ReportsToID
070-461 pdf 
Answer: C
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that includes a table named
Products. The Products table has columns named Productld, ProductName, and
CreatedDateTime.
The table contains a unique constraint on the combination of ProductName and
CreatedDateTime.
You need to modify the Products table to meet the following requirements:
Remove all duplicates of the Products table based on the ProductName column.
Retain only the newest Products row.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. WITH CTEDupRecords
AS
Question No : 35
SELECT MAX(CreatedDateTime) AS CreatedDateTime, ProductName
FROM Products
GROUP BY ProductName
HAVING COUNT(*) > 1
)
DELETE p
FROM Products p
JOIN CTEDupRecords cte ON
B. ProductName = cte.ProductName
AND p.CreatedDateTime > cte.CreatedDateTime
C. WITH CTEDupRecords
AS
(
SELECT MAX(CreatedDateTime) AS CreatedDateTime, ProductName
FROM Products
GROUP BY ProductName
HAVING COUNT(*) > 1
)
DELETE p
FROM Products p
JOIN CTEDupRecords cte ON
cte.ProductName = p.ProductName
AND cte.CreatedDateTime > p.CreatedDateTime
D. WITH CTEDupRecords
AS
(
SELECT MIN(CreatedDateTime) AS CreatedDateTime, ProductName
FROM Products
GROUP BY ProductName
)
DELETE p
FROM Products p
JOIN CTEDupRecords cte ON
E. ProductName = cte.ProductName
F. WITH CTEDupRecords
AS
(
SELECT MAX(CreatedDateTime) AS CreatedDateTime, ProductName
FROM Products
GROUP BY ProductName
HAVING COUNT(*) > 1
)
DELETE p
FROM Products p
JOIN CTEDupRecords cte ON
G. ProductName = cte.ProductName
Answer: B
Question No : 36You develop three Microsoft SQL Server 2012 databases named Database1, Database2,
and Database3.
You have permissions on both Database1 and Database2. You plan to write and deploy a
stored procedure named dbo.usp_InsertEvent in Database3. dbo.usp_InsertEvent must
execute other stored procedures in the other databases.
You need to ensure that callers that do not have permissions on Database1 or Database2
can execute the stored procedure.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. USE Database2
B. EXECUTE AS OWNER
C. USE Database1
D. EXECUTE AS CALLER
070-461 dumps 
Answer: B
Question No : 37  You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that has multiple tables in the Sales
schema. Some users must be prevented from deleting records in any of the tables in the
Sales schema. You need to manage users who are prevented from deleting records in the
Sales schema.
You need to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. What
should you do? A. Create a custom database role that includes the users. Deny Delete permissions on the
Sales schema for the custom database role.
B. Include the Sales schema as an owned schema for the db_denydatawriter role. Add the
users to the
db_denydatawriter role.
C. Deny Delete permissions on each table in the Sales schema for each user.
D. Create a custom database role that includes the users. Deny Delete permissions on
each table in the Sales schema for the custom database role.
Answer: A
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The database contains a Product
table created by using the following definition:
Question No : 38
070-461

You need to ensure that the minimum amount of disk space is used to store the data in the
Product table.
What should you do?
A. Convert all indexes to Column Store indexes.
B. Implement Unicode Compression.
C. Implement row-level compression.
D. Implement page-level compression.
070-461 vce 
Answer: D
You generate a daily report according to the following query:
Question No : 39
070-461

You need to improve the performance of the query.
What should you do?
A. Drop the UDF and rewrite the report query as follows:
WITH cte(CustomerID, LastOrderDate) AS (
SELECT CustomerID, MAX(OrderDate) AS [LastOrderDate]
FROM Sales.SalesOrder
GROUP BY CustomerID
)
SELECT c.CustomerName
FROM cte
INNER JOIN Sales.Customer c
ON cte.CustomerID = c.CustomerID
WHERE cte.LastOrderDate < DATEADD(DAY, -90, GETDATE())
B. Drop the UDF and rewrite the report query as follows:
SELECT c.CustomerName
FROM Sales.Customer c
WHERE NOT EXISTS (

SELECT s.OrderDate
FROM Sales.SalesOrder
WHERE s.OrderDate > DATEADD(DAY, -90, GETDATE())
AND s.CustomerID = c.CustomerID)
C. Drop the UDF and rewrite the report query as follows:
SELECT DISTINCT c.CustomerName
FROM Sales.Customer c
INNER JOIN Sales.SalesOrder s
ON c.CustomerID = s.CustomerID
WHERE s.OrderDate < DATEADD(DAY, -90, GETDATE())
D. Rewrite the report query as follows:
SELECT c.CustomerName
FROM Sales.Customer c
WHERE NOT EXISTS (SELECT OrderDate FROM
Sales.ufnGetRecentOrders(c.CustomerID,
90))
Rewrite the UDF as follows:
CREATE FUNCTION Sales.ufnGetRecentOrders(@CustomerID int, @MaxAge datetime)
RETURNS TABLE AS RETURN (
SELECT OrderDate
FROM Sales.SalesOrder
WHERE s.CustomerID = @CustomerID
AND s.OrderDate > DATEADD(DAY, [email protected], GETDATE())
070-461 exam 
Answer: A
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database named ContosoDb. Tables are
defined as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
Question No : 40
070-461

You need to display rows from the Orders table for the Customers row having the
CustomerId value set to 1 in the following XML format:

<row OrderId=”1″ OrderDate=”2000-01-01T00:00:00″ Amount=”3400.00″
Name=”Customer
A” Country=”Australia” />
<row OrderId=”2″ OrderDate=”2001-01-01T00:00:00″ Amount=”4300.00″
Name=”Customer
A” Country=”Australia” />
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1
FOR XML RAW
B. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1
FOR XML RAW, ELEMENTS
C. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1
FOR XML AUTO
D. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId – Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId= 1
FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS
E. SELECT Name, Country, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId- 1
FOR XML AUTO
F. SELECT Name, Country, Orderld, OrderDate, Amount
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId= 1
FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS
G. SELECT Name AS ‘@Name’, Country AS ‘@Country’, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId= 1
FOR XML PATH (‘Customers’)
H. SELECT Name AS ‘Customers/Name’, Country AS ‘Customers/Country’, OrderId,
OrderDate, Amount
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId= 1
FOR XML PATH (‘Customers’)

Answer: A
You have a database that contains the tables as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit
button.)
Question No : 41 CORRECT TEXT
070-461

You have the following query:
070-461

✑ ✑ ✑ ✑
You need to recreate the query to meet the following requirements:
Reference columns by using one-part names only.
Sort aggregates by SalesTerritoryID, and then by ProductID.
Order the results in descending order from SalesTerritoryID to Produc
The solution must use the existing SELECT clause and FROM clause
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer
Answer:
070-461

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Exam Code: 70-740
Exam Name: Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows Server 2016
Updated: Jul 23, 2017
Q&As: 162

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Pass4itsure  Latest and Most Accurate 70-740 PDF Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION NO: 32
Which of the following statements about skewness of an empirical probability distribution are
correct?
1. When sampling returns from a time series of asset prices, discretely compounded returns
exhibit higher skewness than continuously compounded returns
2. When the mean is significantly less than the median, this is an indication of negative skewness
3. Skewness is a sign of asymmetry in the dispersion of the data
A. All three statements are correct
B. Statements 1 and 2 are correct
C. Statements 1 and 3 are correct
D. Statements 2 and 3 are correct
70-740 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 33
Consider two securities X and Y with the following 5 annual returns:
X: +10%, +3%, -2%, +3%, +5%
Y: +7%, -2%, +3%, -5%, +10%
In this case the sample covariance between the two time series can be calculated as:
A. 0.40729
B. 0.00109
C. 0.00087
D. 0.32583
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 34
The first derivative of a function f(x) is zero at some point, the second derivative is also zero at this
point. This means that:
A. f has necessarily a minimum at this point
B. f has necessarily a maximum at this point
C. f has necessarily neither a minimum nor a maximum at this point
D. f might have either a minimum or a maximum or neither of them at this point
70-740 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 35
Find the first-order Taylor approximation p(x) for the function: at the point .
A. -x
B. -x+1
C. x-1
D. x+1
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 36
At what point x does the function f(x) = x3 – 4×2 + 1 have a local minimum?
A. -0.666666667
B. 0
C. 2.66667
D. 2
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 37
What is the maximum value for f(x)= 8-(x+3)(x-3)?
A. 8
B. -1
C. 17
D. None of these
70-740 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 38
For the function f(x) =3x-x3 which of the following is true?
A. x = 0 is a minimum
B. x = -3 is a maximum
C. x = 2 is a maximum
D. None of these
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 39
What is the maximum value of the function F(x, y)=x2+y2 in the domain defined by inequalities x
1, y -2, y-x 3 ?
A. 29
B. -25
C. 1
D. 17
70-740 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 37
What is the maximum value for f(x)= 8-(x+3)(x-3)?
A. 8
B. -1
C. 17
D. None of these
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 38
For the function f(x) =3x-x3 which of the following is true?
A. x = 0 is a minimum
B. x = -3 is a maximum
C. x = 2 is a maximum
D. None of these
70-740 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 39
What is the maximum value of the function F(x, y)=x2+y2 in the domain defined by inequalities x
1, y -2, y-x 3 ?
A. 29
B. -25
C. 1
D. 17
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 40
You work for a brokerage firm that charges its client x per share. The volume of trade of a client of
type A depends on the per share commission in the following manner. If the commission is x, the
client of type A will trade e-ax shares on average each week. What is the optimal commission x
that maximizes the income from client A, noting that a is greater than zero?
A. 1
B. a
C. 42
D. a2
70-740 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 41
An indefinite integral of a polynomial function is
A. always positive
B. always increasing
C. always less than the function itself
D. none of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 42
Evaluate the derivative of ln(1+ x2) at the point x = 1
A. 0.5
B. 0
C. 1
D. 2
70-740 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 43
Evaluate the derivative of exp(x2 + 2x + 1) at the point x = -1
A. 0.5
B. 0
C. 1
D. 2
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 44
A 2-year bond has a yield of 5% and an annual coupon of 5%. What is the Macaulay Duration of
the bond?
A. 2
B. 1.95
C. 1.86
D. 1.75
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 45
A 2-year bond has a yield of 5% and an annual coupon of 5%. What is the Modified Duration of
the bond?
A. 2
B. 1.95
C. 1.86
D. 1.75
70-740 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 46
A bond has modified duration 6 and convexity 30. Find the duration-convexity approximation to the
percentage change in bond price when its yield increases by 5 basis points
A. 10 basis point rise
B. 24 basis fall
C. 24 basis point rise
D. 30 basis points fall.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 47
An underlying asset price is at 100, its annual volatility is 25% and the risk free interest rate is 5%.
A European call option has a strike of 85 and a maturity of 40 days. Its Black-Scholes price is
15.52. The options sensitivities are: delta = 0.98; gamma = 0.006 and vega = 1.55. What is the
delta-gamma-vega approximation to the new option price when the underlying asset price
changes to 105 and the volatility changes to 28%?
A. 17.33
B. 18.75
C. 19.23
D. 20.54
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C_HANAIMP_12
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate – SAP HANA (Edition 2016 – SPS12)
Certification Provider:
Total Questions: 240 Q&A
Updated on: Jul 03, 2017

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C_HANAIMP_12

Kill4exam Latest and Most Accurate C_HANAIMP_12 PDF Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION NO: 1
Old English had three genders that resembled those of the Germans and so was probably
very difficult for a foreign traveler to learn in a short time.
A.
Old English had three genders that resembled those of the Germans
B. Old English had three genders resembling those of the Germans
C. The three genders of Old English resembled a German’s
D. Old English’s three genders resembled the German’s
E. The three genders of Old English that resembled those of the Germans
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best answer is B. The sentence requires a subject appropriate to both members of a
compound predicate, the second member being and so was probably very difficult for a foreign
traveler to learn in a short time. Old English makes a logical subject. A is incorrect because of the
use of the pronoun that. In D is seems that the three genders belonged to one German.
QUESTION NO: 2
Linguistically, the Pokot seem to be related to numerous peoples who live in the region
with both ties to the Nilo-Hamitic peoples who come from the north and to Bantu peoples
who come from central Africa.
A.
with both ties to the Nilo-Hamitic peoples who come from the north and to Bantu peoples who
come from central Africa.
B. with ties both to the Nilo-Hamitic peoples who come from the north and to Bantu peoples who
come from central Africa.
C. with ties both to the Nilo-Hamitic peoples who come from the north and Bantu peoples who
come from central Africa.
D. both with ties to the Nilo-Hamitic peoples who come from the north and to Bantu peoples who
come from central Africa.
E. both having ties to the Nilo-Hamitic peoples who come from the north and to Bantu peoples
who come from central Africa
Answer: B
C_HANAIMP_12 exam Explanation:
The best answer is B. Choice B places the word both in the best place in the sentence. The Pokot
are related both to… and to….
QUESTION NO: 3
Having logged thousands of hours watching primates from chimpanzees to macaques,
chimps and other primates are no longer thought to be natural-born killers by Dr. Swenson,
they are attuned to peacemaking.
A.
chimps and other primates are no longer thought tobe natural-born killers by Dr.Swenson, they
B. Dr. Swenson has come to believe that far from being natural-born killers, chimps and other
primates
C. Dr. Swenson has now the belief that far from being natural-born killers, chimps and other
primates
D. chimps and other primates are not longer thought to be natural-born killers by Dr. Swenson,
they
E. chimps and other primates are no more thought to be natural-born killers by Dr. Swenson, they
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best answer is B. The noun that comes directly after the comma is modified by having logged
thousands of hours watching primates from chimpanzees to macaques. Answers A, D, and E
illogically have the chimps observing other primates.
QUESTION NO: 4
In the thirties and forties, devotees of Willa Cather’s maintained that her writing has all the
qualities found in the highest order of American writers of the nineteenth and twentieth
century.
A.
Cather’s maintained that her writing has
B. Cather’s maintained that her writing had
C. Cather’s have maintained that her writing had
D. Cather maintained that her writing had
E. Cather maintained that her writing has
Answer: D
C_HANAIMP_12 pdf Explanation:
The best answer is D. The phrase devotees of Willa Cather presents a complete possessive
without adding an apostrophe to her last name. Because the sentence describes a past event, the
verb has in the present tense is incorrect.
QUESTION NO: 5
William Hornby acquired bison herds for breeding stock hoping that this move would
eventually lead to increasing in their numbers, and a fortification of their environment
.
A. increasing in their numbers,
B. an increase in their numbers,
C. their increase in numbers,
D. an increasing in numbers,
E. an increasing in the numbers of them,
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best answer is B. Choice B clearly and correctly uses parallel noun phrases to list the effects
of Hornby’s actions: an increase in… a fortification of
QUESTION NO: 6
The strand fills with water during the rainy season that the peat then holds and keeps it
humid, all of which creates conditions enabling trees to grow.
A.
enabling trees to grow.
B. for the trees to grow.
C. for growing trees.
D. that enable the trees to grow.
E. that the trees can grow.
Answer: D
C_HANAIMP_12 dumps Explanation:
The best answer is D. In choices B and C the preposition for is used unidiomaticly. In choice A the
omission of the word the makes it sound as though these conditions are necessary for all trees.
QUESTION NO: 7
People can debate the aesthetic merits of these overwrought, disquieting, sometimes
gruesome works of art, but no one can dispute their creators’ mastery of the paintbrush as
a blunt instrument.
A.
but no one can dispute their creators’ mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
B. but none can dispute their creators’ mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
C. but not a one can dispute their creators’ mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
D. but no person can dispute their creators’ mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
E. but none can dispute to their creators’ mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best answer is B. The use of none is idiomatically correct. Choice E is incorrect because
dispute can only be followed by a direct object.
QUESTION NO: 8
Drinking milk enriched with vitamin D may significantly reduce the risk of rickets and also
aid for sufferers of heart disease, according to studies recently completed at the University
of California in San Francisco.
A.
significantly reduce the risk of rickets and also aid for
B. be significant in reducing the risk of rickets and aid for
C. significantly reduce the risk of rickets and aid
D. cause a significant reduction in the risk of rickets and aid to
E. significantly reduce the risk of rickets as well as aiding
Answer: A
C_HANAIMP_12 vce Explanation:
The best answer is A. It is the distortion between how the person really is and how he perceives
himself that is the most important factor, as opposed to the level of self-perception itself.
QUESTION NO: 9
Robinson is a botanist whose dream is to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of
Hawaii, a place now awash with introduced species of plants and animals.
A.
who has the dream to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of Hawaii,
B. whose dream it is to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of Hawaii,
C. who it is his dream to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of Hawaii,
D. that is dreaming to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of Hawaii,
E. whose dream is to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of Hawaii,
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best answer is B. According to the passage, when negative social information is encountered
by a person with a highly elevated level of self-perception, it may lead to violence.
QUESTION NO: 10
As literary criticism grows more complex, students majoring in specialized areas like those
of post-colonialism and Marxist discourse have been becoming increasingly successful at
finding positions in the faculties of top universities.
A.
majoring in specialized areas like those of post-colonialism and Marxist discourse have been
becoming increasingly
B. who major in such specialized areas as post-colonialism and Marxist discourse are becoming
more and more

C. who majored in specialized areas such as those of post-colonialism and Marxist discourse are
being increasingly
D. who major in specialized areas like those of post-colonialism and Marxist discourse have been
becoming more and more
E. having majored in such specialized areas as post-colonialism and Marxist discourseare being
increasingly
Answer: D
C_HANAIMP_12 pdf Explanation:
The best answer is D. If the shark can be successfully bred in captivity, it is
possible to continue production of the drug without threatening the shark with extinction.
QUESTION NO: 11
The woodland sub-species were in isolation from contact with humans longer than either
their marsh cousins or the tree-dwelling sub-species.
A.
in isolation from contact with humans longer than
B. isolated from contact with humans longer than
C. in isolation from contact with humans longer than were
D. isolated from contact with humans longer than were
E. in isolation and without contacts with humans longer than
Answer: C
Explanation:
The best answer is C. The infinitive to abolish follows the verb ordered; producing the grammatical
and idiomatic sequence X ordered Y to do Z.
QUESTION NO: 12
For almost five thousand years after its beginning 2.5 million years ago, Homo habilis roamed the
earth, lived in semi-permanent camps, gathered food and shared their economy.
A. For almost five thousand years after its beginning 2.5 million years ago,
B. Beginning 2.5 million years ago for a period of almost five thousand years,
C. Beginning a period of almost five thousand years 2.5 million years ago,
D. During five thousand years, a period beginning 2.5 million years ago,
E. Over a period of five thousand years beginning 2.5 million years ago,
C_HANAIMP_12 dumps 
Answer: E
Explanation:
The best answer is E. Choice E is precise and idiomatically phrased. Choice A is illogical because
it refers grammatically to Homo habilis. Choice B is less clear and direct.
QUESTION NO: 13
Despite protests from some share holders, committee members have ordered the levels of
department head involvement to be curtailed and that the advertising program be
undertaken.
A.
the levels of department head involvement to be curtailed and that the advertising program be
B. the levels of department head involvement to be curtailed and that the advertising program
being
C. the measure of levels of department head involvement to be curtailed and the advertising
program to be
D. the levels of department head involvement to be curtailed with their advertising program being
E. that the levels of department head involvement be curtailed and the advertising program be
Answer: E
Explanation:
The best answer is E. Choice E clearly and correctly uses parallel phrases: the levels of
department head involvement be…. The advertising program be…..
QUESTION NO: 14
Advances in networking technology and home computers have made it easy for millions of
Americans to work in their homes, often facilitating the communication between the
manager, who continues to work on-site at the office, with his distant employees.
A.
communication between the manager, who continues to work on-site at the office, with his
distant employees

B. communication between the manager, who continues the work on-site at the office, with his
distant employees
C. communication between the manager, who continues to work on-site at the office, to his distant
employees
D. communication between the manager, who continues to work on-site at the office, and his
distant employees
E. communication between the manager, who continues to work on-site at the office, with his
distance employees
Answer: D
C_HANAIMP_12 exam Explanation:
The best answer is D. The communication has to be between the manager and his employee.
QUESTION NO: 15
There are any number of skilled freelancers who can develop strategy and create marketing
materials with a keen eye to using proven methods, but also to developing new and
innovative techniques.
A.
with a keen eye to using proven methods, but also to developing new and innovative
techniques
B. with a keen eye for using proven methods, and also to developing new and innovative
techniques
C. with a keen eye not only to using proven methods, but also to developing new and innovative
techniques
D. with a keen eye to using proven methods, but to developing now and innovative techniques
E. with a keen eye not only to using proven methods, and also to developing now and innovative
techniques
Answer: C
C_HANAIMP_12 vce Explanation:
The best answer is C. Choice C correctly develops the parallel not only… but also…

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCDP
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE v2.0)
Exam Code: 300-101
Total Questions: 247 Q&As
Last Updated: May 17, 2017

300-101

Teststarter 300-101 Dumps Virtual Routing and Forwarding-Lite

In this 300-101 article I’m sharing the basics of VRF Lite with two practical labs. I’ve received a couple of requests about this some time ago so, here it is. Note that the second lab is one I found on the internet and made a few changes.

Service providers often need to allow their customers’ traffic to pass through their cloud
without one customer’s traffic (and corresponding routes) be exposed to another customer.

VRF configuration isn’t at all dependent on MPLS but often the two components are chosen to run together. In Cisco terminology, deployment of VRFs without MPLS is known as VRF Lite.

Similarly, enterprise networks might need to segregate various teststarter 300-101 dumps application types, such as keeping voice and video traffic separate from data. These are just a couple of scenarios that could benefit from the Cisco Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF) feature.

VRF allows a single physical router to host multiple virtual routers, with those virtual routers logically isolated from one another, each with its own IP routing table. Simply put it, VRF’s are VLANs for layer 3, and is the basics to understanding MPLS.

Teststarter Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-101 Dumps Exam Q&As

Question Set 1
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101

Based on this FIB table, which statement is correct?
A. There is no default gateway.
B. The IP address of the router on FastEthernet is 209.168.201.1.
C. The gateway of last resort is 192.168.201.1.
D. The router will listen for all multicast traffic.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The 0.0.0.0/0 route is the default route and is listed as the first CEF entry. Here we see the next hop for this default route lists 192.168.201.1 as the default router
(gateway of last resort).

 

 


QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit
300-101

A network administrator checks this adjacency table on a router. What is a possible cause for the incomplete marking?
A. incomplete ARP information
B. incorrect ACL
C. dynamic routing protocol failure
D. serial link congestion
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To display information about the Cisco Express Forwarding adjacency table or the hardware Layer 3-switching adjacency table, use the show adjacency
command.
Reasons for Incomplete Adjacencies
There are two known reasons for an incomplete adjacency:
The router cannot use ARP successfully for the next-hop interface.
After a clear ip arp or a clear adjacency command, the router marks the adjacency as incomplete. Then it fails to clear the entry.
In an MPLS environment, IP CEF should be enabeled for Label Switching. Interface level command ip route-cache cef
No ARP Entry
When CEF cannot locate a valid adjacency for a destination prefix, it punts the packets to the CPU for ARP resolution and, in turn, for completion of the adjacency.

 

 

QUESTION 3
A network engineer notices that transmission rates of senders of TCP traffic sharply increase and decrease simultaneously during periods of congestion. Which
condition causes this?
A. global synchronization
B. tail drop
C. random early detection
D. queue management algorithm
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
TCP global synchronization in computer networks can happen to TCP/IP flows during periods of congestion because each sender will reduce their transmission
rate at the same time when packet loss occurs.
Routers on the Internet normally have packet queues, to allow them to hold packets when the network is busy, rather than discarding them.
Because routers have limited resources, the size of these queues is also limited. The simplest technique to limit queue size is known as tail drop. The queue is
allowed to fill to its maximum size, and then any new packets are simply discarded, until there is space in the queue again. This causes problems when used on
TCP/IP routers handling multiple TCP streams, especially when bursty traffic is present. While the network is stable, the queue is constantly full, and there are no
problems except that the full queue results in high latency. However, the introduction of a sudden burst of traffic may cause large numbers of established, steady
streams to lose packets simultaneously.

 

 


QUESTION 4
Which three problems result from application mixing of UDP and TCP streams within a network with no QoS? (Choose three.)
A. starvation
B. jitter
C. latency
D. windowing
E. lower throughput
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
It is a general best practice not to mix TCP-based traffic with UDP-based traffic (especially streaming video) within a single service provider class due to the
behaviors of these protocols during periods of congestion. Specifically, TCP transmitters will throttle-back flows when drops have been detected. Although some
UDP applications have application-level windowing, flow control, and retransmission capabilities, most UDP transmitters are completely oblivious to drops and thus
never lower transmission rates due to dropping. When TCP flows are combined with UDP flows in a single service provider class and the class experiences
congestion, then TCP flows will continually lower their rates, potentially giving up their bandwidth to drop-oblivious UDP flows. This effect is called TCP-starvation/
UDP-dominance. This can increase latency and lower the overall throughput.
TCP-starvation/UDP-dominance likely occurs if (TCP-based) mission-critical data is assigned to the same service provider class as (UDP-based) streaming video
and the class experiences sustained congestion. Even if WRED is enabled on the service provider class, the same behavior would be observed, as WRED (for the
most part) only affects TCP-based flows. Granted, it is not always possible to separate TCP-based flows from UDP-based flows, but it is beneficial to be aware of
this behavior when making such application-mixing decisions. Reference: 

 

 


QUESTION 5
Which method allows IPv4 and IPv6 to work together without requiring both to be used for a single connection during the migration process?
A. dual-stack method
B. 6to4 tunneling
C. GRE tunneling
D. NAT-PT
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Dual stack means that devices are able to run IPv4 and IPv6 in parallel. It allows hosts to simultaneously reach IPv4 and IPv6 content, so it offers a very flexible
coexistence strategy. For sessions that support IPv6, IPv6 is used on a dual stack endpoint. If both endpoints support IPv4 only, then IPv4 is used.
Benefits:
Native dual stack does not require any tunneling mechanisms on internal networks
Both IPv4 and IPv6 run independent of each other
Dual stack supports gradual migration of endpoints, networks, and applications.

 

 


QUESTION 6
Which statement about the use of tunneling to migrate to IPv6 is true?
A. Tunneling is less secure than dual stack or translation.
B. Tunneling is more difficult to configure than dual stack or translation.
C. Tunneling does not enable users of the new protocol to communicate with users of the old protocol without dual-stack hosts.
D. Tunneling destinations are manually determined by the IPv4 address in the low-order 32 bits of IPv4-compatible IPv6 addresses.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Using the tunneling option, organizations build an overlay network that tunnels one protocol over the other by encapsulating IPv6 packets within IPv4 packets and
IPv4 packets within IPv6 packets. The advantage of this approach is that the new protocol can work without disturbing the old protocol, thus providing connectivity
between users of the new protocol. Tunneling has two disadvantages, as discussed in RFC 6144:
Users of the new architecture cannot use the services of the underlying infrastructure.
Tunneling does not enable users of the new protocol to communicate with users of the old protocol without dual-stack hosts, which negates interoperability.

 

 


QUESTION 7
A network administrator executes the command clear ip route. Which two tables does this command clear and rebuild? (Choose two.)
A. IP routing
B. FIB
C. ARP cache
D. MAC address table
E. Cisco Express Forwarding table
F. topology table

Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To clear one or more entries in the IP routing table, use the following commands in any mode:
Command Purpose
clear ip route {* |
Clears one or more routes from both the
{route |
unicast RIB and all the module FIBs. The
prefix/length}[next-hop route options are as follows:
interface]}
· *–All routes.
[vrf vrf-name]
Example:
· route–An individual IP route.
switch(config)# clear ip
· prefix/length–Any IP prefix.
route
10.2.2.2
· next-hop–The next-hop address
· interface–The interface to reach the
next-hop address.
The vrf-name can be any case-sensitive, al
phanumeric string up to 32 characters.
Reference:

 

 


QUESTION 8
Which switching method is used when entries are present in the output of the command show ip cache?
A. fast switching
B. process switching
C. Cisco Express Forwarding switching
D. cut-through packet switching
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Fast switching allows higher throughput by switching a packet using a cache created by the initial packet sent to a particular destination. Destination addresses
are stored in the high-speed cache to expedite forwarding. Routers offer better packet-transfer performance when fast switching is enabled. Fast switching is
enabled by default on all interfaces that support fast switching.
To display the routing table cache used to fast switch IP traffic, use the “show ip cache” EXEC command.
Reference:

 

 


QUESTION 9
Which two actions must you perform to enable and use window scaling on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Execute the command ip tcp window-size 65536.
B. Set window scaling to be used on the remote host.
C. Execute the command ip tcp queuemax.
D. Set TCP options to “enabled” on the remote host.
E. Execute the command ip tcp adjust-mss.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The TCP Window Scaling feature adds support for the Window Scaling option in RFC 1323, TCP Extensions for High Performance . A larger window size is
recommended to improve TCP performance in network paths with large bandwidth-delay product characteristics that are called Long Fat Networks (LFNs). The
TCP Window Scaling enhancement provides that support. The window scaling extension in Cisco IOS software expands the definition of the TCP window to 32
bits and then uses a scale factor to carry this 32-bit value in the 16-bit window field of the TCP header. The window size can increase to a scale factor of 14.
Typical applications use a scale factor of 3 when deployed in LFNs.
The TCP Window Scaling feature complies with RFC 1323. The larger scalable window size will allow TCP to perform better over LFNs. Use the ip tcp window
size command in global configuration mode to configure the TCP window size. In order for this to work, the remote host must also support this feature and its
window size must be increased. 

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QUESTION 11

What is takin place at the Verifing Encryption stage of the wireless enterpriseactivation process? (Choose one)
A. The BlackBerry device and BlackBerry Enterprise Server are netotiating a master encryption key
B. All personal information on the BlackBerry device being compressed, encrytped and sent over the wirless network to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
C. All settings on the BlackBerry device are being verified by the BlackBerry Enterprise Server for security considerations
D. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server is sending service book information to the BlackBerry device
E. The BlackBerry device is scanning the BlackBerry Enterprise Server settings for security considerations

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 12
Which of the following is an encryption standard that is used by the BlackBerry Enterprise Server to communicate with BlackBerry devices? (Shoose one)
A. HTTPS
B. AES
C. TKIP
D. DES
E. TLS

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
A BlackBerry device user who is active on a BlackBerry Enterpirse Server files an email message to a subfolder in the email application and notices the email message no longer appears in the Messages list on the BlackBerry device. Why is this email message no longer viewable in the mail Messages list? (Choose one)
A. The user has the option Hide Filed Messages set to Yes
B. The current theme active on the BlackBerry device is hiding the email message
C. A corrupt Desktop[CMIME] service book
D. Folder redirection is enabled
E. The BlackBerry device email message database is corrupt

Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 14
Which two of the following processes can determine the current build version of BlackBerry Desktop Manger that is installed? (Choose two)
A. Right click the BlackBerry Desktop Manager icon on the desktop and review properties B. Open BlackBerry Desktop Manager>Help>About Desktop Manager
C. Launch the BlackBerry Desktop Manager application and look at the title bar at the top fo the application
D. Open Control panel>Add / remover programs > Select Desktop Manager and choose click here for support info in Windows
E. Look on the BlackBerry Desktop Manager CD

Correct Answer: BD

 

 

QUESTION 15
Which file should be edited to enable advance loggin in BlackBerry Desktop Manager? (Choose one)
A. Dmtrace.log
B. Jvm.log
C. Tiff.log
D. iloptcfg.cfg
E. Sync.log

Correct Answer: D

 

 

1Z0-061 pdf QUESTION 16
Within the properties of a given Desktop service book, which field denotes the BlackBerry Enterprise Server that the BlackBerry device has been activated on? (Choose one)
A. DSID
B. UID
C. CID
D. Gatetway IP
E. User ID

Correct Answer: B

 

 

QUESTION 17
In BlackBerry Desktop Manager, the title bar continually shows a tatus of Disconnected after connecting the BlackBerry device to the computer. Which of the following troubleshooting steps would help resolve this issue? (Choose two)
A. Perform a clean install of the BlackBerry Device Software
B. Perform a hard reset fo the BlackBerry device
C. Uninstall previous installations of BlackBerry Device Software
D. Ensure Power Management options are turned off for the USB Root Hubs on the computer
E. Ensure no other USB devices are connected to the computer

Correct Answer: BD

 

 

QUESTION 18
If the synchronization process with BlackBerry Desktop Manager appears to be successful but no information is transferred to the BlackBerry device, what is the cause of this? (Choose one)
A. The BlackBerry device memory is full
B. The items were transferred to a media card instead of the internal BlackBerry device memory
C. The wireless radio is turned off
D. BlackBerry Desktop Manger is setup to sue the wrong MAPI profile
E. The BlackBerry device is missing the appropriate service books
Correct Answer: D

 

 

QUESTION 19
Which three of the following conditions must be met in order to initiate a wireless enterprise activation of a BlackBerry device on a BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose three)
A. The servccie provider has provisioned the BlackBerry device for the Enterprise service class
B. The user account has been added to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
C. The PIN number of th eBlackBerry device has been manually entered under the user account on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
D. An activation password has been set for the user on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
E. The BlackBerry devicemust reeive a token from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server

Correct Answer: ABD

 

 

QUESTION 20
When configuring a BlackBerry device for access to Wi-Fi, which two of the following pieces of infomration are required? (Choose two)
A. IMEI
B. PIN
C. WLAN MAC
D. IMSI
E. SSID

Correct Answer: CE

 

 

QUESTION 21
Which of the following can be obtained from the Options>Acout screren of the BlackBerry device? (choose one)
A. BlackBerry Device Software version
B. Owner information
C. Mobile Network IMSI
D. PIN
E. IT Policy name

Correct Answer: A

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