[Ensure Pass Dumps Exam] 2017 Accurate Cisco 210-451 Dumps CLDFND Exam Questions And Answers Certification with Youtube Study For Download

How to get free Cisco 210-451 dumps? VCE dumps and PDF dumps “Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals” is the name of Cisco 210-451 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. 2017 accurate Cisco 210-451 dumps CLDFND exam questions and answers certification with youtube study for download. Pass4itsure Cisco 210-451 dumps exam questions answers are updated (60 Q&As) are verified by experts.

The associated certifications of 210-451 dumps is CCNA Cloud. In order to protect the vital interests of each IT certification exams candidate, Pass4itsure provides high-quality Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/210-451.html dumps exam training materials.

Exam Code: 210-451
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals
Q&As: 60

[Ensure Pass Cisco 210-451 Dumps Exam From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWeFJLMDBQaDMyM1E

[Ensure Pass Cisco 300-160 Dumps Exam From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWSWJ6ZzZZU3FRTlk

210-451 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 210-451 Dumps Exam Q&As:

Which option is one essential characteristic of Cloud computing?
A. It must use virtualization.
B. It must provide load balancing services.
C. It must provide on-demand self service.
D. It must run on open source software.
210-451 exam Correct Answer: C
Which Cloud service model is appropriate for a physical data center move to the Cloud?
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Compute as a Service
D. Software as a Service
Correct Answer: A
What is an invalid Cloud deployment model 210-451 dumps ?
A. distributed
B. private
C. community
D. hybrid
Correct Answer: A
Which two options are benefits of the Cisco InterCloud Solution? (Choose two.)
A. enforces standardization on a single hypervisor product
B. provides self service for hybrid resources
C. management of heterogeneous SAN solutions
D. secure connectivity between public and private Clouds
Correct Answer: BD
Which option contains server hardware identifiers, firmware, state, configuration, and connectivity
A. pools
B. policies
C. service profiles
D. resource groups
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: C
An embedded software company is considering to improve the quality of its software components to be
delivered to the integration team. After studying various experience papers that report a higher level of
quality for software components, two main alternative techniques are identified: static analysis and
dynamic analysis. In deciding which one is most applicable and how they relate to each other a detailed
study is performed. Which of the following are TWO key similarities between static analysis and dynamic
analysis? 2 credits [K4]
Number of correct answers: 2
A. Both are performed using requirements as its major input document
B. Both are usually undertaken by integration testers
C. Both are usually undertaken by development during coding and unit testing
D. Both are related to reviews
E. Both usually use a tool
Correct Answer: CE
Which of the following is a dynamic analysis technique related to improving application performance? 1
credit [K2]
Number of correct answers: 1
A. Code complexity analysis
B. Profiling
C. Network package sniffing
D. Spelling and grammar checking
210-451 vce Correct Answer: B
Definition-use pairs are identified during which of the following static analysis activities? 1 credit [K2]
Number of correct answers: 1
A. Control flow analysis
B. Data flow activities
C. Coding standards analysis
D. Cyclomatic complexity analysis
Correct Answer: B
If we say that a set of tests has achieved 100% structural decision coverage on a particular module in a
program, what does that mean?
1 credit [K2]
Number of correct answers: 1
A. That all bugs present in that module were necessarily revealed by those tests.
B. That every control flow branch had been executed at least once by those tests.
C. That every dataflow in that module was exercised at least once by those tests.
D. That every path through that module was exercised at least once by those tests.
210-451 exam Correct Answer: B
If you are flying with an economy ticket, there is a possibility that you may get upgraded to business class,
especially if you hold a gold card in the airline’s frequent flier program. If you don’t hold a gold card, there
is a possibility that you will get `bumped’ off the flight if it is full and you check in late. This is shown in the
figure hereafter. Note that each box (i.e.
statement) has been numbered.
Three tests have been run:
Test 1: Gold card holder who gets upgraded to business class
Test 2: Non-gold card holder who stays in economy
Test 3: A person who is bumped from the flight
What is the statement coverage of these three tests?2 credits [K4]
Number of correct answers: 1
A. 60%
B. 70%
C. 80%
D. 90%
Correct Answer: C
As part of a risk analysis, technical risks are analyzed. Which TWO factors influence technical risk? 1
credit [K2]
Number of correct answers: 2
A. Complexity of technology
B. Frequency of use of the affected failure
C. Interfacing and integration issues

D. Damage to image
E. Lack of reasonable workaround
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: AC
A component has been analyzed as being highly critical. Which of the following structure- based test
design techniques provides the highest level of coverage? 1 credit [K2]
Number of correct answers: 1
A. Statement testing
B. Decision testing
C. Condition determination testing
D. Multiple condition testing
Correct Answer: C
The result of a product risk analysis performed on components I, II and III
of the airplane control system shows the following risk matrix:
The project wants to mitigate the risks by defining different types of coverage depending on the risk level of
the components. Which of the following would be a meaningful solution for setting the coverage targets?2
credits [K3]
Number of correct answers: 1
A. I: Condition determination coverage, II: Decision Coverage, III: Statement coverage
B. I: Condition determination coverage, II: Statement coverage, III: Decision coverage
C. I: Decision coverage, II: Condition determination coverage, III: Statement Coverage
D. I: Multiple condition coverage, II: Decision coverage, III: Condition determination coverage
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: A

This Cisco 210-451 dumps exam material is specially developed according to the needs of the candidates. It is researched by the IT experts of Pass4itsure. Their struggle is not just to help you pass the https://www.pass4itsure.com/210-451.html exam, but also in order to let you have a better tomorrow.

Read More Youtube:https://youtu.be/22_cabYvM1w

[Ensure Pass Dumps Exam] Latest Cisco 300-075 Dumps CIPTV2 Exam Topics Q&As for CCNP Collaboration Certification on Youtube For Success Quickly

What’s new with Cisco 300-075 dumps exam materials? “Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 2 v1.0” is the name of Cisco 300-075 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Latest Cisco 300-075 dumps CIPTV2 exam topics q&as for CCNP Collaboration Certification for success quickly.

Pass4itsure Cisco 300-075 dumps exam questions answers are updated (377 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 300-075 dumps is CCNP Collaboration. Try our free demo version which indicates real CCNP Collaboration https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-075.html dumps including exam time, types of questions and other necessary details.

Exam Code: 300-075
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 2 v1.0
Q&As: 377

[Ensure Pass Cisco 300-075 Dumps Exam From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWTk00ekx3V0xfX3c

[Ensure Pass Cisco 300-208 Dumps Exam From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWd0NtZHRiUmJNV2s

300-075 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-075 Dumps Exam Q&As:

Question No : 34 Scenario:
There are two call control systems in this item.
The Cisco UCM is controlling the DX650, the Cisco Jabber for Windows Client, and the
7965 and 9971 Video IP Phones.
The Cisco VCS and TMS control the Cisco TelePresence Conductor, the Cisco
TelePresence MCU, and the Cisco Jabber TelePresence for Windows.
300-075 dumps

300-075 dumps

300-075 dumps

300-075 dumps

SIP Trunk:
300-075 dumps
What two tasks must be completed in order to support calls between the VCS controlled
endpoints and the Cisco Unified CM endpoints? (Choose two.)
A. Media Resource Group List.
B. Configure a SIP trunk on the Cisco Unified CM to point to the Cisco VCS.
C. Configure a neighbor zone on the Cisco Unified CM to point to the Cisco VCS.
D. Configure a SIP trunk on the Cisco VCS to point to the Cisco Unified CM.
E. Configure a neighbor zone on the Cisco VCS to point to the Cisco Unified CM.
300-075 exam 
Answer: C,D
Question No : 35 How long is the default keepalive period for SRST in Cisco 300-075 dumps IOS?
A. 45 sec
B. 30 sec
C. 60 sec
D. 120 sec
Answer: B
Question No : 36
Which three items must you configure to enable SAF Call Control Discovery? (Choose three.)
A.a calling search space
B.hosted DN patterns
C.translation patterns
D.route patterns
E.the SIP or H.323 trunk
F.hosted DN groups
300-075 pdf 
Answer: B,E,F
Question No : 37 Which module is the minimum PVDM3 module needed to support video transcoding?
A. PVDM3-32
B. PVDM3-64
C. PVDM3-128
D. PVDM3-192
300-075  vce 
Answer: C

Which of the following statements regarding exercise for persons with controlled
cardiovascular disease is TRUE?

A. Resistance exercise training is dangerous and should be avoided.
B. A physician-supervised exercise test is not necessary to establish exercise intensity.
C. Anginal pain is normal during exercise, and participants should be pushed through the
D. Exercise intensity should be set at an HR of 10 bpm less than the level at which
signs/symptoms were evidenced during an exercise test.
300-075 exam Answer: D
All of the following factors are important to consider when determining exercise intensity
A. An individual’s level of fitness.
B. The risk of cardiovascular or orthopedic injury.
C. Any previous history participating in organized sports.
D. Individual preference and exercise objectives.
Answer: C
When determining the intensity level, the RPE is a better indicator than percentage of
maximal HR for all of the following groups EXCEPT
A. Individuals on f3-blockers.
B. Aerobic classes that involve excessive arm movement.
C. Individuals older than 65 years.
D. Individuals involved in high-intensity exercise.
300-075 dumps Answer: D
Using the original Borg scale, it is recommended that the exercise intensity elicit an RPE
within the range of

A. 8 to 12.
B. 12 to 16.
C. 14 to 18.
D. 6 to 10.
Answer: B
The MINIMAL duration of exercise necessary to achieve improvements in health for
deconditioned individuals is
A. 20 minutes continuously.
B. 30 minutes continuously.
C. Multiple sessions of more than 10 minutes in duration throughout the day.
D. Two sessions of 20 minutes throughout the day.
300-075 pdf Answer: C
Which of the following is a method of strength and power training that involves an
eccentric loading of muscles and tendons followed immediately by an explosive
concentric contraction?
A. Super sets.
B. Split routines.
C. Plyometrics.
D. Periodization.
Answer: C
The safety of resistance exercise is dependent on all of the following except
A. Having a personal trainer.
B. Proper breathing.
C. Speed of movement.
D. Body mechanics.

300-075 vce Answer: A
The recommended muscular strength and endurance training program for apparently
healthy individuals should be
A. One set of 8 to 12 reps, 8 to 10 separate exercises, 2 days per week.
B. Two sets of six to eight reps, 8 to 10 separate exercises, 2 days per week.
C. One set of 8 to 12 reps, 8 to 10 separate exercises, 4 to 5 days per week.
D. Two sets of six to eight reps, 8 to 10 separate exercises, 4 days per week, and
alternating days for legs and upper body.
Answer: A
Which the following statements regarding intensity of resistance training is FALSE?
A. The number of repetitions to volitional fatigue will vary inversely with resistance.
B. It is necessary to determine the 1- RM to establish training intensity.
C. Exercise to volitional fatigue is not dangerous from a musculoskeletal standpoint
provided that good exercise form is maintained.
D. Exercise intensity should be similar for males and females.
300-075 exam Answer: B
The recommended cardiorespiratory endurance exercise training program for older
individuals should be
A. 40% to 60% of maximum HR, 20 to 30 minutes continuously, 3 days per week.
B. 50% to 70% of HRR, 20 to 30 minutes (multiple sessions of 5-10 min), 3 days per
C. 40% to 60% of maximum HR, 20 to 30 minutes (multiple sessions of 5-10 min), 3
days per week.
D. 50% to 70% of HRR, 20 to 30 minutes continuously, 3 days per week

300-075 dumps Answer: B
Osteoporosis is more prevalent in
A. Women who have never been pregnant.
B. African-American women.
C. Women who are involved in activities that place stress on the wrists, hips, or lum
bosacral region.
D. Postmenopausal women.
 Answer: D
Section 2: Sec Two (49 to 73)
Details: Nutrition and Weight Management

We are offering learning material for Cisco 300-075 dumps Implementing Cisco IP Telephony and Video, Part 2 (CIPTV2) exam by considering the real Cisco 300-075 exam criteria. Our highly educated experts are devoting their duties to prepare most relevant https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-075.html dumps exam questions for you.

Read More Youtube:https://youtu.be/n4tXL3mhzZo

[Ensure Pass Dumps Exam] Discount Cisco 100-105 Dumps ICND1 PDF Vce Files on Youtube Is Your Best Choice

Is Cisco 100-105 dumps certification worth getting? “Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)” is the name of Cisco 100-105 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Discount Cisco 100-105 dumps ICND1 pdf vce files on Youtube is your best choice.

Pass4itsure Cisco 100-105 dumps exam questions answers are updated (332 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 100-105 dumps is ICND1. Pass4itsure have a strong It expert team to constantly provide you with an effective https://www.pass4itsure.com/100-105.html dumps training resource.

Exam Code: 100-105
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Q&As: 332

[Ensure Pass Cisco 100-105 Dumps Exam From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWeVQ5WUxjZG1Idnc

[Ensure Pass Cisco 210-250 Dumps Exam From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWRzdFOXJORHhsck0

100-105 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 100-105 Dumps Exam Q&As:

Question No : 1 – (Topic 1) Refer to the exhibit.100-105 dumps

Mary is sending an instant message to Robert. The message will be broken into a series of
packets that will traverse all network devices. What addresses will populate these packets
as they are forwarded from Router1 to Router2?
100-105 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Answer: B
The Source and Destination IP address is not going to change. Host 1 IP address will stay
as being the source IP and the Host 2 IP address will stay the destination IP address.
Those two are not going to change.
For the MAC address it is going to change each time it goes from one hope to another.
(Except switches… they don’t change anything)
Frame leaving HOST 1 is going to have a source MAC of Host 1 and a destination MAC of
Router 1.
Router 1 is going to strip that info off and then will make the source MAC address of
Router1’s exiting interface, and making Router2’s interface as the destination MAC
Then the same will happen… Router2 100-105 exam is going to change the source/destination info to the

source MAC being the Router2 interface that it is going out, and the destination will be
Host2’s MAC address.

Question No : 2 – (Topic 1) A workstation has just resolved a browser URL to the IP address of a server. What protocol will the workstation now use to determine the destination MAC address to be placed into
frames directed toward the server?
Answer: E
The RARP protocol is used to translate hardware interface addresses to protocol
addresses. The RARP message format is very similar to the ARP format. When the booting
computer sends the broadcast ARP request, it places its own hardware address in both the
sending and receiving fields in the encapsulated ARP data packet. The RARP server will fill
in the correct sending and receiving IP addresses in its response to the message. This way
the booting computer will know its IP address when it gets the message from the RARP

Question No : 3 – (Topic 1) Which protocol uses a connection-oriented service to deliver files between end systems?
Answer: C
TCP is an example of a connection-oriented protocol. It requires a logical connection to be
established between the two processes before data is exchanged. The connection must be
maintained during the entire time that communication is taking place, then released
afterwards. The 100-105 dumps process is much like a telephone call, where a virtual circuit is established-the caller must know the person’s telephone number and the phone must be answered–
before the message can be delivered.
TCP/IP is also a connection-oriented transport with orderly release. With orderly release,
any data remaining in the buffer is sent before the connection is terminated. The release is
accomplished in a three-way handshake between client and server processes. The
connection-oriented protocols in the OSI protocol suite, on the other hand, do not support
orderly release. Applications perform any handshake necessary for ensuring orderly
release. Examples of services that use connection-oriented transport services are telnet, rlogin, and

Question No : 4 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
If the hubs in the graphic were replaced by switches, what would be virtually eliminated?
A. broadcast domains
B. repeater domains
C. Ethernet collisions
D. signal amplification
E. Ethernet broadcasts
Answer: C
Modern wired networks use a network switch to eliminate collisions. By connecting each
device directly to a port on the switch, either each port on a switch becomes its own
collision domain (in the case of half duplex links) or the possibility of collisions is eliminated
entirely in the case of full duplex links.

Adenosine triphosphate production via “anaerobic” glycolysis is associated with the significant formation of what by-product?
A. Pyruvic Acid
B. Phosphoric Acid
C. Citric Acid
D. Lactic Acid
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: D
The changes in muscle size associated with long-term resistance training is most likely due to increases in
A. muscle fiber cross-sectional diameter.

B. muscle fiber number.
C. connective tissue thickness.
D. hydration state of the muscle.
Correct Answer: A
Downhill walking/jogging/running is characterized by eccentric activation of which of the following muscle groups?
A. Hamstrings
B. Gastrocnemius
C. Brachioradialis
D. Quadriceps femoris
100-105  vce Correct Answer: D
What is the typical resting blood pressure response to long term aerobic exercise in a hypertensive
A. Both systolic and diastolic pressures will increase.
B. Both systolic and diastolic pressures will decrease.
C. Systolic will increase, while diastolic will remain unchanged.
D. Systolic will decrease, while diastolic will remain unchanged.
Correct Answer: B
How does heart rate increase in relation to work rate and oxygen uptake during dynamic exercise?
A. Exponentially
B. Linearly
C. Curvilinearly
D. Inversely
100-105  exam Correct Answer: B
Which cardiovascular training approach, if repeated frequently, is most likely going to lead to overtraining?
A. One intensive day followed by three easy days.
B. One long day followed by three shorter duration days.
C. Two consecutive intensive days, followed by one easy day.
D. A medium intensive day followed by two easy days.
Correct Answer: C
What feature is unique to skeletal muscle as compared to cardiac muscle?
A. Absence of striations
B. Presence of branching
C. Requires nervous system stimulation
D. Presence of intercalated disks
100-105  dumps Correct Answer: C
What is the correct path of blood flow through the chambers of the heart?
A. Left ventricle; left atrium; right atrium; right ventricle.
B. Right ventricle; right atrium; left atrium; left ventricle.
C. Left atrium; right atrium; left ventricle; right ventricle.
D. Right atrium; right ventricle; left atrium; left ventricle.
Correct Answer: D
What respiratory muscles can cause forceful expiration?
A. External intercostals
B. Pectoralis minor
C. Sternocleidomastoid
D. Internal intercostals
100-105  pdf Correct Answer: D

They continue to use their rich experience and knowledge to study the real 100-105 dumps exam questions of the past few years. Finally Pass4itsure’s targeted https://www.pass4itsure.com/100-105.html dumps questions and answers have advent, which will give a great help to a lot of people participating in the IT certification exams.

Read More Youtube:https://youtu.be/ROy_RACXzTY

[Ensure Pass Dumps Exam] Valid and Updated Cisco DCICT 200-155 Dumps Exam Answers Is What You Need To Take

What is Cisco 200-155 dumps? “Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies” is the name of Cisco 200-155 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Valid and updated Cisco DCICT 200-155 dumps exam answers is what you need to take. Pass4itsure Cisco 200-155 dumps exam questions answers are updated (85 Q&As) are verified by experts.

The associated certifications of 200-155 dumps is CCNA Data Center. You can also free online download the part of Pass4itsure Cisco certification https://www.pass4itsure.com/200-155.html dumps DCICT questions and answers pdf as a try.

Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Updated: Sep 22, 2017
Q&As: 85

[Ensure Pass Cisco 200-155 Dumps Exam From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWNHFtR0VqbXVEeUU

[Ensure Pass Cisco 300-135 Dumps Exam From Google Drive]:https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWVjNzVmpXTDBzU00

200-155 Dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate CompTIA Cisco 200-155 Dumps Exam Q&As:

What refers to relatively expensive items that will be used over a long period?
A. Supplies
B. Taxes
C. Assets
D. Equipments
200-155 exam Correct Answer: D
What is relatively costly item that allow the organization to deliver service over time?
A. Equipment
B. Supplies
C. Noncurrent asset
D. Current asset
Correct Answer: C
Noncurrent assets require special management attention because of their liquidity and transportability,
current assets require special attention because of their cost and extensive time horizon it takes to plan,
acquire and manage them.
A. True
B. False
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: B
Assets limited to use, long-term investments, property and equipment are all categories of:
A. Current assets
B. Account investments
C. Noncurrent assets
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
is a measure of how much a tangible asset (such as plant or equipment) has been used up or consumed.
A. Depreciation
B. Equity
C. Retail cost
D. None of the above
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: A
The total amount of depreciation taken on as asset since it was put into use is called:
A. Approved Depreciation
B. Accumulated Depreciation
C. Accounted Depreciation

D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B
What are the financial obligations that, due to their contractual terms, will be paid within one year?
A. Current assets
B. Current liabilities
C. Current financial reviews
D. Current payors
200-155 vce Correct Answer: B
Estimated third party payor settlements are the category of?
A. Current assets
B. Current Equity
C. Current Expenses
D. Current liabilities
Correct Answer: D
Which are the obligations to pay suppliers who have sold the health care organization goods or services
on credit?
A. Account suppliers
B. Account payable
C. Account receivable
D. Accrued Account
200-155 exam Correct Answer: B
Accrued expenses are the liabilities and are reflected in the balance sheet.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
For not-for-profit health care providers, the net assets section of the balance sheet is analogous to the
owner’s equity section of a for-profit organization’s statement of cash flow.
A. True
B. False
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: B
Stockholders equity for investors-owned organizations represents:
A. Stock and retained earnings
B. Stock and accrual earnings
C. Stock and sales

D. Stock and purchase
Correct Answer: A
Which of the following in NOT the body of the income statement for investors-owned health care
A. Operating income
B. Non-operating income
C. Income for taxes
D. Excess of revenues
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: D
Which of the following in NOT the body of the statement of operations for non-for-profit health care
A. Operating income
B. Non-operating income
C. Net income
D. Excess of revenues
Correct Answer: B
uses the accrual basis of accounting, which summarizes how much the organization earned and the
resources it used to generate that income during a period of time.
A. Balance sheet
B. Non-operating income
C. Statement of operations
D. Accounting system for income
200-155 vce Correct Answer: C
Revenues represent amounts earned by the organization would, not the amount of it received during the
A. Cash
B. Credit
C. Revenue
D. Expense
Correct Answer: A
Premium revenues are the revenues earned from capitated contracts which are not earned solely through
the delivery of service but rather through a passage of time.
A. True
B. False
200-155 exam Correct Answer: A
Which are a measure of the amount of resources used or consumed in providing a service, not cash-out
A. Operating income
B. Credit
C. Revenue
D. Expense
Correct Answer: D
Income derived from the organization’s main line of business is called:
A. Depreciated income
B. Operative income
C. Net income
D. None of the above
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: B
The allocation of the acquisition cost of debt to the period which it benefits refers to:
A. Depreciated income
B. Accrual expense
C. Net income
D. Amortization
Correct Answer: D
Bad debt expense is:
A. the estimate of patient accounts payables that will not be collected.
B. the estimate of patient accounts receivables that will be collected.
C. the estimate of patient accounts receivables that will not be collected.
D. the estimate of patient accounts payables that will be collected.
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: C
Working capital is:
A. Current assets and current liabilities
B. Current expenses and current revenues
C. Expected assets and expected liabilities
D. Expected expenses and expected revenues
Correct Answer: A
The difference between current assets and current liabilities is called:
A. Net accounting gain
B. Net expenditure
C. Net working capital
D. Net profit

200-155 vce Correct Answer: C
Which of the following is NOT the phase of the working capital cycle?
A. Obtaining cash
B. Turning cash into resources
C. Resources are restricted to be used seldom
D. Billing patients for the services and collecting revenues
Correct Answer: C
How much extra working capital an organization determines it must keep as a cushion is called its:
A. Obtaining cash strategy
B. Working capital strategy
C. Financing mix strategy
D. Billing strategy
200-155 exam Correct Answer: B
A strategy that refers to how an organization chooses to finance its working capital needs is called:
A. Asset mix
B. Aggressive mix
C. Conservative mix
D. Financing mix
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: D
A health care organization that utilizes an aggressive asset mix strategy seeks to minimize its returns by
investing in non-liquid assets but faces the risk of lower liquidity.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

If you do not pass the Cisco 200-155 dumps exam, Pass4itsure will full refund to you. After your understanding of our reliability, I believe you will quickly add Pass4itsure https://www.pass4itsure.com/200-155.html dumps products to your cart.

Read More Youtube:https://youtu.be/we3j96ptWco

I used the blog to help me study:http://www.easyhometraining.com/helpful-windows-server-2012-070-410-dumps/

[Ensure Pass Cisco Dumps Exam] New Updated Cisco 300-135 TSHOOT Dumps Exams Video Questions and Answers For Download (From Google Drive)

Where do I get trusted Cisco 300-135 dumps? “Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT v2.0)” is the name of Cisco 300-135 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. New updated cisco 300-135 tshoot dumps exams video questions and answers for download. Pass4itsure 300-135 dumps exam questions answers are updated (118 Q&As) are verified by experts.

The associated certifications of 300-135 dumps is CCNP Routing and Switching. Pass4itsure Cisco certification https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-135.html dumps is the most effective way to pass the certification exam. With this certification, you will achieve your dreams, and become successful.

Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT v2.0)
Updated: Sep 09, 2017
Q&As: 118

[Ensure Pass Cisco 300-135 Dumps Exam From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWVjNzVmpXTDBzU00

[Ensure Pass Microsoft 70-331 Dumps Exam From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWX2NfdW10MUk1MHM

300-135 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-135 Dumps Exam Q&As:

Question Set 1
300-135 dumps

A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RouterA, IP address, and RouterB, IP address Given the debug
output on RouterA, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.
B. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
C. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.
D. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
E. RouterA will form an adjacency with RouterB.
F. RouterA will not form an adjacency with RouterB.
Correct Answer: DF
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two
routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D
Refer to the exhibit.
300-135 dumps

How would you confirm on R1 300-135 dumps that load balancing is actually occurring on the default-network (
A. Use ping and the show ip route command to confirm the timers for each default network resets to 0.
B. Load balancing does not occur over default networks; the second route will only be used for failover.
C. Use an extended ping along with repeated show ip route commands to confirm the gateway of last resort address toggles back and forth.
D. Use the traceroute command to an address that is not explicitly in the routing table.
Correct Answer: D
Which IPsec mode will encrypt a GRE tunnel to provide multiprotocol support and reduced overhead?
B. multipoint GRE
C. tunnel
D. transport

Correct Answer: D
Which three features are benefits of using GRE tunnels in conjunction with IPsec for building site-to-site VPNs? (Choose three.)
A. allows dynamic routing over the tunnel
B. supports multi-protocol (non-IP) traffic over the tunnel
C. reduces IPsec headers overhead since tunnel mode is used
D. simplifies the ACL used in the crypto map
E. uses Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) to simplify the IPsec VPN configuration
300-135 pdf 
Correct Answer: ABD
Which statement is true about an IPsec/GRE tunnel?
A. The GRE tunnel source and destination addresses are specified within the IPsec transform set.
B. An IPsec/GRE tunnel must use IPsec tunnel mode.
C. GRE encapsulation occurs before the IPsec encryption process.
D. Crypto map ACL is not needed to match which traffic will be protected.
Correct Answer: C

The default hide drive behavior is set to “Hide all drives unless otherwise specified” and all other settings
are left at their default settings. Why would one of the user’s drives still be visible?
A. Because it is a USB drive
B. Because it is a home drive
C. Because it is a drive substitute
D. Because it is a DVD-ROM drive
300-135 tshoot dumps Correct Answer: B
You created a new RES Workspace Manager 2012 environment and enabled the option `Cache locally
unless otherwise specified’ at Global level.
Where will the user settings be saved during the session for users that log on to a terminal server session?
A. %homedrive%\Personal Settings\UserPref.
B. %homedrive%\Pwrmenu\UserPref.
C. %localappdata%\RES\WM\UserPref.
D. %userprofile%\Local setinngs\Application Data\RES\WM\UserPref.
Correct Answer: A
The environment is using the Relay Server. How can an administrator accomplish a direct database
connection with an individual RES Workspace Manager Agent?
A. Block the Relay Server in the firewall.
B. Use the `Datastore connection’ option in the .Connections’ tab of the RES Workspace Manager Agent.
C. Change the config.xml
D. Set the option `Connect directly to the Datastore’ on the Agents node.
300-135 tshoot Correct Answer: B
Scope Control is used to
A. Configure to which users a certain application is available.
B. Configure to which users a certain Action setting is applied.
C. Define which nodes are available to a user with access to a certain Administrative Role.
D. Define which Workspace Manager objects are available to a user with access to a certain
Administrative Role.
Correct Answer: D
An administrator has configured User Settings for a specific application to track registry and files. At
application level, the User Setting is enabled. Start tracking changes is configured to track changes
However, no changes are being preserved for users of the application. Which of the following could be the
cause of this problem?
1. Sampling mode is disabled.
2. User Settings is disabled at global level.
3. “Preserve” and “Apply” are both checked.
4. “Allow users to restore their own settings” is disabled

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 4 only
300-135 Correct Answer: C
What can be used to generate files for the Workspace Designer?
1. User Settings Sampling Mode
2. Desktop Sampler
3. Baseline Desktop Analyzer
4. Instant Reports
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 4
D. 3 and 4
Correct Answer: B
The “Comments” that can be specified when assigning Application Managers to an application is displayed
to the
A. End user when the application is started.
B. End user when access to the application is requested.
C. Application Manager when users are assigned to the application
D. Application Manager when information about the application is viewed.
300-135 tshoot dumps Correct Answer: C
An international Terminal Server farm centrally based in New York has users with different languages
working on it. The best way to create a language-dynamic Start Menu is to base it on
1. Zones.
2. Language Packs.
3. Keyboard mappings.
4. Environment Variables.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15 Which entry is recorded in the Audit Trail 300-135 tshoot ?
A. Granted access
B. Locked account
C. Security warning
D. Actions error
Correct Answer: A

Pass4itsure website is fully equipped with resources and the questions of CCNP 300-135 dumps, it also includes the Cisco 300-135 exam practice test. Which can help candidates prepare for the exam and pass the exam. You can download the part of the trial https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-135.html exam questions and answers as a try.
Read More Youtube:https://youtu.be/K2S9iwgc3BY

[Ensure Pass Exam] High Quality CCNP 300-101 Dumps ROUTE v2.0 Exam Answers Training Guaranteed Success [Video]

We constantly upgrade our Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching Teststarter 300-101 dumps, all the products you get with one year of free updates. You can always extend the to update subscription time, so that you will get more time to fully prepare for the exam. If you still confused to use the Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching 300-101 Exam of Teststarter, then you can download part of the examination questions and answers in Teststarter website. It is free to try, and if it is suitable for you, then go to buy it, to ensure that you will never regret.

Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCDP
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE v2.0)
Exam Code: 300-101
Total Questions: 247 Q&As
Last Updated: May 17, 2017


Teststarter 300-101 Dumps Virtual Routing and Forwarding-Lite

In this 300-101 article I’m sharing the basics of VRF Lite with two practical labs. I’ve received a couple of requests about this some time ago so, here it is. Note that the second lab is one I found on the internet and made a few changes.

Service providers often need to allow their customers’ traffic to pass through their cloud
without one customer’s traffic (and corresponding routes) be exposed to another customer.

VRF configuration isn’t at all dependent on MPLS but often the two components are chosen to run together. In Cisco terminology, deployment of VRFs without MPLS is known as VRF Lite.

Similarly, enterprise networks might need to segregate various teststarter 300-101 dumps application types, such as keeping voice and video traffic separate from data. These are just a couple of scenarios that could benefit from the Cisco Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF) feature.

VRF allows a single physical router to host multiple virtual routers, with those virtual routers logically isolated from one another, each with its own IP routing table. Simply put it, VRF’s are VLANs for layer 3, and is the basics to understanding MPLS.

Teststarter Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-101 Dumps Exam Q&As

Question Set 1
Refer to the exhibit.

Based on this FIB table, which statement is correct?
A. There is no default gateway.
B. The IP address of the router on FastEthernet is
C. The gateway of last resort is
D. The router will listen for all multicast traffic.
Correct Answer: C
The route is the default route and is listed as the first CEF entry. Here we see the next hop for this default route lists as the default router
(gateway of last resort).



Refer to the exhibit

A network administrator checks this adjacency table on a router. What is a possible cause for the incomplete marking?
A. incomplete ARP information
B. incorrect ACL
C. dynamic routing protocol failure
D. serial link congestion
Correct Answer: A
To display information about the Cisco Express Forwarding adjacency table or the hardware Layer 3-switching adjacency table, use the show adjacency
Reasons for Incomplete Adjacencies
There are two known reasons for an incomplete adjacency:
The router cannot use ARP successfully for the next-hop interface.
After a clear ip arp or a clear adjacency command, the router marks the adjacency as incomplete. Then it fails to clear the entry.
In an MPLS environment, IP CEF should be enabeled for Label Switching. Interface level command ip route-cache cef
No ARP Entry
When CEF cannot locate a valid adjacency for a destination prefix, it punts the packets to the CPU for ARP resolution and, in turn, for completion of the adjacency.



A network engineer notices that transmission rates of senders of TCP traffic sharply increase and decrease simultaneously during periods of congestion. Which
condition causes this?
A. global synchronization
B. tail drop
C. random early detection
D. queue management algorithm
Correct Answer: A
TCP global synchronization in computer networks can happen to TCP/IP flows during periods of congestion because each sender will reduce their transmission
rate at the same time when packet loss occurs.
Routers on the Internet normally have packet queues, to allow them to hold packets when the network is busy, rather than discarding them.
Because routers have limited resources, the size of these queues is also limited. The simplest technique to limit queue size is known as tail drop. The queue is
allowed to fill to its maximum size, and then any new packets are simply discarded, until there is space in the queue again. This causes problems when used on
TCP/IP routers handling multiple TCP streams, especially when bursty traffic is present. While the network is stable, the queue is constantly full, and there are no
problems except that the full queue results in high latency. However, the introduction of a sudden burst of traffic may cause large numbers of established, steady
streams to lose packets simultaneously.



Which three problems result from application mixing of UDP and TCP streams within a network with no QoS? (Choose three.)
A. starvation
B. jitter
C. latency
D. windowing
E. lower throughput
Correct Answer: ACE
It is a general best practice not to mix TCP-based traffic with UDP-based traffic (especially streaming video) within a single service provider class due to the
behaviors of these protocols during periods of congestion. Specifically, TCP transmitters will throttle-back flows when drops have been detected. Although some
UDP applications have application-level windowing, flow control, and retransmission capabilities, most UDP transmitters are completely oblivious to drops and thus
never lower transmission rates due to dropping. When TCP flows are combined with UDP flows in a single service provider class and the class experiences
congestion, then TCP flows will continually lower their rates, potentially giving up their bandwidth to drop-oblivious UDP flows. This effect is called TCP-starvation/
UDP-dominance. This can increase latency and lower the overall throughput.
TCP-starvation/UDP-dominance likely occurs if (TCP-based) mission-critical data is assigned to the same service provider class as (UDP-based) streaming video
and the class experiences sustained congestion. Even if WRED is enabled on the service provider class, the same behavior would be observed, as WRED (for the
most part) only affects TCP-based flows. Granted, it is not always possible to separate TCP-based flows from UDP-based flows, but it is beneficial to be aware of
this behavior when making such application-mixing decisions. Reference: 



Which method allows IPv4 and IPv6 to work together without requiring both to be used for a single connection during the migration process?
A. dual-stack method
B. 6to4 tunneling
C. GRE tunneling
Correct Answer: A
Dual stack means that devices are able to run IPv4 and IPv6 in parallel. It allows hosts to simultaneously reach IPv4 and IPv6 content, so it offers a very flexible
coexistence strategy. For sessions that support IPv6, IPv6 is used on a dual stack endpoint. If both endpoints support IPv4 only, then IPv4 is used.
Native dual stack does not require any tunneling mechanisms on internal networks
Both IPv4 and IPv6 run independent of each other
Dual stack supports gradual migration of endpoints, networks, and applications.



Which statement about the use of tunneling to migrate to IPv6 is true?
A. Tunneling is less secure than dual stack or translation.
B. Tunneling is more difficult to configure than dual stack or translation.
C. Tunneling does not enable users of the new protocol to communicate with users of the old protocol without dual-stack hosts.
D. Tunneling destinations are manually determined by the IPv4 address in the low-order 32 bits of IPv4-compatible IPv6 addresses.
Correct Answer: C
Using the tunneling option, organizations build an overlay network that tunnels one protocol over the other by encapsulating IPv6 packets within IPv4 packets and
IPv4 packets within IPv6 packets. The advantage of this approach is that the new protocol can work without disturbing the old protocol, thus providing connectivity
between users of the new protocol. Tunneling has two disadvantages, as discussed in RFC 6144:
Users of the new architecture cannot use the services of the underlying infrastructure.
Tunneling does not enable users of the new protocol to communicate with users of the old protocol without dual-stack hosts, which negates interoperability.



A network administrator executes the command clear ip route. Which two tables does this command clear and rebuild? (Choose two.)
A. IP routing
C. ARP cache
D. MAC address table
E. Cisco Express Forwarding table
F. topology table

Correct Answer: AB
To clear one or more entries in the IP routing table, use the following commands in any mode:
Command Purpose
clear ip route {* |
Clears one or more routes from both the
{route |
unicast RIB and all the module FIBs. The
prefix/length}[next-hop route options are as follows:
· *–All routes.
[vrf vrf-name]
· route–An individual IP route.
switch(config)# clear ip
· prefix/length–Any IP prefix.
· next-hop–The next-hop address
· interface–The interface to reach the
next-hop address.
The vrf-name can be any case-sensitive, al
phanumeric string up to 32 characters.



Which switching method is used when entries are present in the output of the command show ip cache?
A. fast switching
B. process switching
C. Cisco Express Forwarding switching
D. cut-through packet switching
Correct Answer: A
Fast switching allows higher throughput by switching a packet using a cache created by the initial packet sent to a particular destination. Destination addresses
are stored in the high-speed cache to expedite forwarding. Routers offer better packet-transfer performance when fast switching is enabled. Fast switching is
enabled by default on all interfaces that support fast switching.
To display the routing table cache used to fast switch IP traffic, use the “show ip cache” EXEC command.



Which two actions must you perform to enable and use window scaling on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Execute the command ip tcp window-size 65536.
B. Set window scaling to be used on the remote host.
C. Execute the command ip tcp queuemax.
D. Set TCP options to “enabled” on the remote host.
E. Execute the command ip tcp adjust-mss.
Correct Answer: AB
The TCP Window Scaling feature adds support for the Window Scaling option in RFC 1323, TCP Extensions for High Performance . A larger window size is
recommended to improve TCP performance in network paths with large bandwidth-delay product characteristics that are called Long Fat Networks (LFNs). The
TCP Window Scaling enhancement provides that support. The window scaling extension in Cisco IOS software expands the definition of the TCP window to 32
bits and then uses a scale factor to carry this 32-bit value in the 16-bit window field of the TCP header. The window size can increase to a scale factor of 14.
Typical applications use a scale factor of 3 when deployed in LFNs.
The TCP Window Scaling feature complies with RFC 1323. The larger scalable window size will allow TCP to perform better over LFNs. Use the ip tcp window
size command in global configuration mode to configure the TCP window size. In order for this to work, the remote host must also support this feature and its
window size must be increased. 

The worldwide network landscape is continually changing with new technologies being introduced continually. The new revision of the Cisco ROUTE 300-101 exam is the most information packed addition to the CCNP Routing and Switching curriculum experienced to date! By the time you’re done watching, you’ll be ready to configure routing protocols at a master level; grasp the big-picture of worldwide Cisco CCNP network design; fill in plenty of “knowledge gaps” left by the CCNA on routing protocols; and confidently sit for the teststarter 300-101 dumps.

Cisco 500-275 Exam Demo, The Best Cisco 500-275 Qs&As On Store

We are committed on providing you with the latest and most Cisco 500-275 exam preparation products.If you want to pass Cisco 500-275 exam successfully, do not miss to read latest Cisco 500-275 on Flydumps.

The FireAMP Mobile endpoint connector currently supports which mobile OS device?
A. Firefox
C. Android
D. iPhone

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2
Which statement describes an advantage of the FireAMP product?
A. Signatures are pushed to endpoints more quickly than other antivirus products.
B. Superior detection algorithms on the endpoint limit the amount of work the cloud must perform.
C. It provides enterprise visibility.
D. It relies on sandboxing.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
Which feature allows retrospective detection?
A. Total Recall
B. Cloud Recall
C. Recall Alert
D. Recall Analysis

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
Which statement describes an advantage of cloud-based detection?
A. Limited customization allows for faster detection.
B. Fewer resources are required on the endpoint.
C. Sandboxing reduces the overall management overhead of the system.
D. High-speed analytical engines on the endpoint limit the amount of work the cloud must perform.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
The FireAMP connector monitors the system for which type of activity?
A. Vulnerabilities
B. Enforcement of usage policies
C. File operations
D. Authentication activity

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
Which disposition can be returned in response to a malware cloud lookup?
A. Dirty
B. Virus
C. Malware
D. Infected

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 7
Which option is a detection technology that is used by FireAMP?
A. fuzzy matching
B. Norton AntiVirus
C. network scans
D. Exterminator

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 8
If a file’s SHA-256 hash is sent to the cloud, but the cloud has never seen the hash before, which disposition is returned?
A. Clean
B. Neutral
C. Malware
D. Unavailable

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 9
File information is sent to the Sourcefire Collective Security Intelligence Cloud using which format?
A. MD5
B. SHA-1
C. filenames

D. SHA-256 Correct Answer: D
Question Set 1 QUESTION 1
How does application blocking enhance security?
A. It identifies and logs usage.
B. It tracks application abuse.
C. It deletes identified applications.
D. It blocks vulnerable applications from running, until they are patched.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
Which set of actions would you take to create a simple custom detection?
A. Add a SHA-256 value; upload a file to calculate a SHA-256 value; upload a text file that contains SHA-256 values.
B. Upload a packet capture; use a Snort rule; use a ClamAV rule.
C. Manually input the PE header data, the MD-5 hash, and a list of MD-5 hashes.
D. Input the file and file name.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
Advanced custom signatures are written using which type of syntax?
A. Snort signatures
B. Firewall signatures
C. ClamAV signatures
D. bash shell

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
When discussing the FireAMP product, which term does the acronym DFC represent?
A. It means Detected Forensic Cause.
B. It means Duplicate File Contents.
C. It means Device Flow Correlation.
D. It is not an acronym that is associated with the FireAMP product.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 5
Custom whitelists are used for which purpose?
A. to specify which files to alert on
B. to specify which files to delete
C. to specify which files to ignore
D. to specify which files to sandbox Correct Answer: C

Flydumps Cisco 500-275 exam dumps are audited by our certified subject matter experts and published authors for development. Flydumps Cisco 500-275 exam dumps are one of the highest quality Cisco 500-275 Q&As in the world. It covers nearly 96% real questions and answers, including the entire testing scope. Flydumps guarantees you pass Cisco 500-275 exam at first attempt.

Cisco 500-265 Cert, Discount Cisco 500-265 Exam Questions With New Discount

Flydumps Cisco 500-265 exam material details are researched and created by the Most Professional Certified Authors who are regularly using current exams experience to create precise and logical dumps.You can get questions and answers from many other websites or books,but logic is the main key of success,and Flydumps will give you this key of success.

Which two business use trends have surfaced in the last five years and require nontraditional security? (Choose two.)
B. Wi-Fi connections
C. partial URL and application blocking
D. third-party applications
E. web and email attacks
F. a large number of remote employees

Correct Answer: AF
Which three options describe the main problems with traditional security solutions? (Choose three.)
A. fragmented solutions
B. the lack of management solutions
C. missing components
D. solutions being pieced together
E. the lack of a cloud solution
F. the lack of a firewall
G. security gaps

Correct Answer: ADG
The current Cisco comprehensive framework solutions are divided into which three categories? (Choose three.)
A. Content Security
B. Cloud Security
C. Network Security
D. Access Security
E. Data Center Security
F. Internet Security
G. Advanced Malware Protection

Correct Answer: ACD
In the Cisco future solutions architecture framework, the security solutions are directly built upon which component?
A. management and intelligence capabilities
B. Cisco security platforms
C. third-party applications
D. security intelligence operations
Correct Answer: B

Which three values should you use to position Cisco security solutions? (Choose three.)
A. time-to-value
B. protection
C. control
D. integration
E. flexibility
F. agility
G. scalability
Correct Answer: BCE
Cisco Architecture Solutions
Which Cisco security technology delivers the best real-time threat intelligence?
A. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall
B. Cisco Identity Services Engine
C. Cisco Security Manager
D. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
E. Cisco TrustSec

Correct Answer: D
Which two solutions are main components of Cisco Content Security? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall
B. Cisco Web Security
C. Cisco Remote-Access VPN
D. Sourcefire Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
E. Cisco Email Security
F. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection

Correct Answer: BE
Cisco Content Security integrates seamlessly with existing security and network infrastructures. This statement describes which Cisco value?
A. time-to-value
B. protection
C. control
D. scalability
E. flexibility
F. agility
Correct Answer: E

Which two features are components of the Cisco Web Security Appliance? (Choose two.)
A. encryption
B. URL filtering
C. user identity tracking
D. antispam defense
E. impact assessment
F. Cisco Application Visibility and Control
G. context awareness
H. device profiling and onboarding

Correct Answer: BF
Cisco network security offers unmatched visibility and control of network and application traffic. This statement describes which Cisco value?
A. time-to-value
B. protection
C. control
D. scalability
E. flexibility
F. agility

Correct Answer: C
Which four solutions are Cisco network security solutions? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco site-to-site VPN technologies
B. Cisco Identity and Access Control
C. Cisco Email Security
D. Cisco Web Security Appliance
E. Sourcefire Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
F. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall
G. Cisco security appliance
H. Cisco Remote-Access VPN

Correct Answer: AEFG
Which two features are part of site-to-site VPN? (Choose two.)
A. web email controls
B. user identity traction
C. SSL decryption
D. Snort technology
E. remote access
F. seamless connection with Cisco ASA

Correct Answer: EF
Cisco Secure Access Solutions delivers a secure connection to a continually growing number of endpoints. This statement is an example of which Cisco value?
A. time-to-value
B. protection
C. control
D. scalability
E. flexibility
F. agility
Correct Answer: E
Which feature is a primary feature of Cisco AnyConnect?
A. role-based policy management
B. context-aware access
C. secure and flexible remote access
D. SSL decryption

All our Cisco products are up to date! When you buy any Cisco 500-265 product from Certpaper, as “Cisco 500-265 Questions & Answers with explanations”,you are automatically offered the CheckPoint 156-915 updates for a total of 90 days from the day you bought it.If you want to renew your Cisco 500-265 Certification purchase during the period of these 90 days,your Cisco 500-265 Certification product is renewed and you are further enabled to enjoy the free Cisco updates.

Cisco 640-911 Exam, Welcome To Buy Cisco 640-911 Exam Practice PDF With New Discount

Flydumps presents the highest quality of Cisco 640-911 practice material which helps candidates to pass the Cisco 640-911 exams in the first attempt.The brain dumps are the latest,authenticated by expert and covering each and every aspect of Cisco 640-911 exam.

Which option is an example of a distance vector routing protocol?

Correct Answer: A
Which option is an example of an advanced distance vector routing protocol?
Correct Answer: A
Which option is an example of a link-state routing protocol?
Correct Answer: C
What is the maximum allowable hop count for RIPv1?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 15
E. 16
Correct Answer: D
What is the default periodic interval at which RIPv1 sends routing updates?
A. 15 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 45 seconds
D. 60 seconds
E. 90 seconds
F. RIPv1 only sends routing updates when the topology changes.
Correct Answer: B
What does RIPv1 send to its neighbors?
A. Information about changed routes
B. Information about new routes
C. The entire routing table
D. Information about deleted routes
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 35
What are two advantages of employing an external router for inter-VLAN routing over an IEEE 802.1Q trunk link? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 3 functionality is not required on the switch.
B. The router facilitates communication between VLANs.
C. The single traffic path is optimized.
D. Latency is reduced as packets leave the switch.
E. Equal-Cost Multipath is supported.

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 36
Which statement correctly describes an SVI?
A. An SVI is a Layer 2 interface and uses a dynamic MAC address.
B. An SVI cannot have an IP address assigned to it.
C. An SVI provides Layer 3 routing between VLANs.
D. Each switch port requires an SVI assignment.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37
What is the Cisco Nexus Operating System command to define a port as a Layer 3 port?
A. Port routed
B. No switchport
C. l3 switchport
D. Port switching off

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 38
Which statement is correct regarding a routed port on a multilayer switch?
A. A routed port requires an SVI definition.
B. Routed ports cannot be configured on a multilayer switch that uses SVIs.
C. A maximum of 32 routed ports can be provisioned on a given multilayer switch.
D. A routed port is a physical port that supports Layer 3 routing.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 39
On a new Cisco Nexus switch, you receive an error message when you attempt to create an SVI. What is the first command you must use to create the SVI?
A. Interface vlan (vlan_id)
B. Vlan (vlan_id)
C. Feature svi
D. Interface routed

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 40
Which command should you use to configure a Cisco Nexus switch port for Layer 2 operation?
A. nexus(config-if)#switchport
B. nexus(config-if)#layer-2
C. nexus(config-if)#routed
D. nexus(config)#interface vlan 10 nexus(config-if)#switchport

Correct Answer: A
Which version of Cisco Nexus Operating System became a common operating system for Cisco Nexus switches and Cisco MDS storage switches?
A. 2.7
B. 3.3
C. 3.9
D. 4.1
E. 5.01GD
F. 6.2
Correct Answer: D
What are two core features of Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose two.)
C. System Manager

Correct Answer: CD
What is the acronym expansion of the UDLD feature of Cisco Nexus Operating System?
A. UniDirectional Link Detection
B. Unified Data Link Distribution
C. Unified Data Loss Detection
D. Unified Directional Link Distribution
E. Unidirectional Data Loss Detection
Correct Answer: A
What are four security features that are included in Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco TrustSec
B. IEEE 802.1Qau
D. port security
G. IPsec VPN
Correct Answer: ACDH QUESTION 45
What are three modular Layer 2 processes in Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose three.)
E. Cisco Discovery Protocol

Correct Answer: ADE

CCNA Exam Certification Guide is a best-of-breed Cisco 640-911 exam study guide that has been completely updated to focus specifically on the objectives.Senior instructor and best-selling author Wendell Odom shares preparation hints and Cisco 640-911 tips to help you identify areas of weakness and improve both your conceptual and hands-on knowledge.Cisco 640-911 Material is presented in a concise manner,focusing on increasing your understanding and retention of exam topics.

Cisco 400-101 Practice, 100% Success Rate Cisco 400-101 New Questions With Accurate Answers

100% Valid Dumps For Cisco 400-101 Exam Pass:Flydumps have been updated the Cisco 400-101 exam dumps and added the new exam questions, in the latest version of Cisco 400-101 PDF Flydumps or VCE practice test, you will get all the new changed Cisco 400-101 exam questions, which will help you 100% passing Cisco 400-101 exam. Welcome to visit our website Flydumps.com and get your Cisco 400-101 exam passed.

What is a cause for unicast flooding?
A. Unicast flooding occurs when multicast traffic arrives on a Layer 2 switch that has directly connected multicast receivers.
B. When PIM snooping is not enabled, unicast flooding occurs on the switch that interconnects the PIM-enabled routers.
C. A man-in-the-middle attack can cause the ARP cache of an end host to have the wrong MAC address. Instead of having the MAC address of the default gateway, it has a MAC address of the man-in-the-middle. This causes all traffic to be unicast flooded through the man-in-the-middle, which can then sniff all packets.
D. Forwarding table overflow prevents new MAC addresses from being learned, and packets destined to those MAC addresses are flooded until space becomes available in the forwarding table.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Causes of Flooding The very cause of flooding is that destination MAC address of the packet is not in the L2 forwarding table of the switch. In this case the packet will be flooded out of all forwarding ports in its VLAN (except the port it was received on). Below case studies display most common reasons for destination MAC address not being known to the switch. Cause 1: Asymmetric Routing Large amounts of flooded traffic might saturate low-bandwidth links causing network performance issues or complete connectivity outage to devices connected across such low-bandwidth links Cause 2: Spanning-Tree Protocol Topology Changes Another common issue caused by flooding is Spanning-Tree Protocol (STP) Topology Change Notification (TCN). TCN is designed to correct forwarding tables after the forwarding topology has changed. This is necessary to avoid a connectivity outage, as after a topology change some destinations previously accessible via particular ports might become accessible via different ports. TCN operates by shortening the forwarding table aging time, such that if the address is not relearned, it will age out and flooding will occur Cause 3: Forwarding Table Overflow Another possible cause of flooding can be overflow of the switch forwarding table. In this case, new addresses cannot be learned and packets destined to such addresses are flooded until some space becomes available in the forwarding table. New addresses will then be learned. This is possible but rare, since most modern switches have large enough forwarding tables to accommodate MAC addresses for most designs.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/catalyst-6000-series-switches/23563-143.html
Refer to the exhibit.

Video Source S is sending interactive video traffic to Video Receiver R. Router R1 has multiple routing table entries for destination R. Which load-balancing mechanism on R1 can cause out-of-order video traffic to be received by destination R?
A. per-flow load balancing on R1 for destination R
B. per-source-destination pair load balancing on R1 for destination R
C. CEF load balancing on R1 for destination R
D. per-packet load balancing on R1 for destination R

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Per-packet load balancing guarantees equal load across all links, however potentially the packets may arrive out-of-order at the destination as differential delay may exist within the network.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/modules/ps2033/prod_technical_reference09186a00800afeb7.html
What is Nagle’s algorithm used for?
A. To increase the latency
B. To calculate the best path in distance vector routing protocols
C. To calculate the best path in link state routing protocols
D. To resolve issues caused by poorly implemented TCP flow control.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Silly window syndrome is a problem in computer networking caused by poorly implemented TCP flow control. A serious problem can arise in the sliding window operation when the sending application program creates data slowly, the receiving application program consumes data slowly, or both. If a server with this problem is unable to process all incoming data, it requests that its clients reduce the amount of data they send at a time (the window setting on a TCP packet). If the server continues to be unable to process all incoming data, the window becomes smaller and smaller, sometimes to the point that the data transmitted is smaller than the packet header, making data transmission extremely inefficient. The name of this problem is due to the window size shrinking to a “silly” value. When there is no synchronization between the sender and receiver regarding capacity of the flow of data or the size of the packet, the window syndrome problem is created. When the silly window syndrome is created by the sender, Nagle’s algorithm is used. Nagle’s solution requires that the sender sends the first segment even if it is a small one, then that it waits until an ACK is received or a maximum sized segment (MSS) is accumulated.
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Silly_window_syndrome
Which statement is true regarding the UDP checksum?
A. It is used for congestion control.
B. It cannot be all zeros.
C. It is used by some Internet worms to hide their propagation.
D. It is computed based on the IP pseudo-header.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
The method used to compute the checksum is defined in RFC 768:
“Checksum is the 16-bit one’s complement of the one’s complement sum of a pseudo header of information from the IP header, the UDP header, and the data,
padded with zero octets at the end (if necessary) to make a multiple of two octets.”
In other words, all 16-bit words are summed using one’s complement arithmetic. Add the 16-bit values up. Each time a carry-out (17th bit) is produced, swing that
bit around and add it back into the least significant bit. The sum is then one’s complemented to yield the value of the UDP checksum field. If the checksum
calculation results in the value zero (all 16 bits 0) it should be sent as the one’s complement (all 1s).

Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/User_Datagram_Protocol

Which statement describes the purpose of the Payload Type field in the RTP header?
A. It identifies the signaling protocol.
B. It identifies the codec.
C. It identifies the port numbers for RTP.
D. It identifies the port numbers for RTCP.

Correct Answer: B Explanation
PT, Payload Type. 7 bits: Identifies the format of the RTP payload and determines its interpretation by the application. A profile specifies a default static mapping of payload type codes to payload formats. Additional payload type codes may be defined dynamically through non-RTP means. An RTP sender emits a single RTP payload type at any given time; this field is not intended for multiplexing separate media streams. A full list of codecs and their payload type values can be found at the link below:
Reference: http://www.networksorcery.com/enp/protocol/rtp.htm
Which Cisco IOS XE process administers routing and forwarding?
A. Forwarding manager
B. Interface manager
C. Cisco IOS
D. Host manager

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Some of the processes are listed in the table below:

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/asr1000/configuration/guide/chassis/asrswcfg/Software_Packaging_Architecture.html
Which circumstance can cause packet loss due to a microburst?
A. slow convergence
B. a blocked spanning-tree port
C. process switching
D. insufficient buffers

Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Micro-bursting is a phenomenon where rapid bursts of data packets are sent in quick succession, leading to periods of full line-rate transmission that can overflow packet buffers of the network stack, both in network endpoints and routers and switches inside the network. Symptoms of micro bursts will manifest in the form of ignores and/ or overruns (also shown as accumulated in “input error” counter within show interface output). This is indicative of receive ring and corresponding packet buffer being overwhelmed due to data bursts coming in over extremely short period of time (microseconds).
Reference: http://ccieordie.com/?tag=micro-burst
Which two statements about proxy ARP are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is supported on networks without ARP.
B. It allows machines to spoof packets.
C. It must be used on a network with the host on a different subnet.
D. It requires larger ARP tables.
E. It reduces the amount of ARP traffic.

Correct Answer: BD Explanation
Disadvantages of Proxy ARP
Hosts have no idea of the physical details of their network and assume it to be a flat network in which they can reach any destination simply by sending an ARP
request. But using ARP for everything has disadvantages. These are some of the disadvantages:
It increases the amount of ARP traffic on your segment.
Hosts need larger ARP tables in order to handle IP-to-MAC address mappings.

Security can be undermined. A machine can claim to be another in order to intercept packets, an act called “spoofing.”

It does not work for networks that do not use ARP for address resolution.

It does not generalize to all network topologies. For example, more than one router that connects two physical networks.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/dynamic-address-allocation-resolution/13718-5.html
Refer to the exhibit.

Routers R1 and R2 are configured as shown, and traffic from R1 fails to reach host Which action can you take to correct the problem?
A. Ensure that R2 has a default route in its routing table.
B. Change the OSPF area type on R1 and R2.
C. Edit the router configurations so that address is a routable address.
D. Remove the default-information originate command from the OSPF configuration of R2. Correct Answer: A

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Not sure that any of these answers are correct, it appears that this configuration is valid for reaching that one specific host IP. Answer A does have a route to that host so it would not need a default route to get to it. Choice B is incorrect as the area types have nothing to do with this. C is incorrect as that IP address is routable, and D is needed so that R1 will have a default route advertised to it from R2 so that it can reach this destination.
Which service is disabled by the no service tcp-small-servers command?
A. the finger service
B. the Telnet service
C. the Maintenance Operation Protocol service
D. the chargen service

Correct Answer: D Explanation
The TCP small servers are:
Echo: Echoes back whatever you type through the telnet x.x.x.x echo command.
Chargen: Generates a stream of ASCII data. Use the telnet x.x.x.x chargen command.

DiscarD. Throws away whatever you type. Use the telnet x.x.x.x discard command.

DaytimE. Returns system date and time, if it is correct. It is correct if you run Network Time Protocol (NTP), or have set the date and time manually from the

exec level. Use the telnet x.x.x.x daytime command.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ios-nx-os-software/ios-software-releases-110/12815-23.html
Which two Cisco Express Forwarding tables are located in the data plane? (Choose two.)
A. the forwarding information base
B. the label forwarding information base
C. the IP routing table
D. the label information table
E. the adjacency table

Correct Answer: AB Explanation
The control plane runs protocols such as OSPF, BGP, STP, LDP. These protocols are needed so that routers and switches know how to forward packets and
The data plane is where the actual forwarding takes place. The data plane is populated based on the protocols running in the control plane. The Forwarding
Information Base (FIB) is used for IP traffic and the Label FIB is used for MPLS.

Which option is the most effective action to avoid packet loss due to microbursts?
A. Implement larger buffers.
B. Install a faster CPU.
C. Install a faster network interface.
D. Configure a larger tx-ring size.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
You can’t avoid or prevent them as such without modifying the sending host’s application/network stack so it smoothes out the bursts. However, you can manage microbursts by tuning the size of receive buffers / rings to absorb occasional microbursts.
Which two statements about packet fragmentation on an IPv6 network are true? (Choose two.)
A. The fragment header is 64 bits long.
B. The identification field is 32 bits long.
C. The fragment header is 32 bits long.
D. The identification field is 64 bits long.
E. The MTU must be a minimum of 1280 bytes.
F. The fragment header is 48 bits long.
Correct Answer: AB Explanation

The fragment header is shown below, being 64 bits total with a 32 bit identification field: Reference: http://www.openwall.com/presentations/IPv6/img24.html

You are backing up a server with a 1 Gbps link and a latency of 2 ms. Which two statements about the backup are true? (Choose two.)
A. The bandwidth delay product is 2 Mb.
B. The default TCP send window size is the limiting factor.
C. The default TCP receive window size is the limiting factor.
D. The bandwidth delay product is 500 Mb.
E. The bandwidth delay product is 50 Mb.

Correct Answer: AC Explanation Explanation/Reference:
1 Gbps is the same as 1000 Mbps, and 1000Mb x .0002 = 2 Mbps. With TCP based data transfers, the receive window is always the limiting factor, as the sender is generally able to send traffic at line rate, but then must wait for the acknowledgements to send more data.
Which two pieces of information does RTCP use to inform endpoint devices about the RTP flow? (Choose two.)
A. the transmitted octet
B. the lost packet count
C. session control function provisioning information
D. the CNAME for session participants
E. the authentication method
F. MTU size changes in the path of the flow Correct Answer: AB

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
RTCP transports statistics for a media connection and information such as transmitted octet and packet counts, packet loss, packet delay variation, and round-trip delay time. An application may use this information to control quality of service parameters, perhaps by limiting flow, or using a different codec.
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/RTP_Control_Protocol
How many hash buckets does Cisco Express Forwarding use for load balancing?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32

Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference:
In order to understand how the load balance takes place, you must first see how the tables relate. The Cisco Express Forwarding table points to 16 hash buckets (load share table), which point to the adjacency table for parallel paths. Each packet to be switched is broken up into the source and destination address pair and checked against the loadshare table.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/express-forwarding-cef/18285-loadbal-cef.html
Which three features require Cisco Express Forwarding? (Choose three.)
B. AutoQoS
C. fragmentation
E. UplinkFast
F. BackboneFast

Correct Answer: ABD Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QoS Features That Require CEF These class-based QoS features are supported only on routers that run CEF. Network Based Application Recognition (NBAR) provides intelligent network classification. For more information, refer to Network Based Application

The AutoQoS -VoIP feature simplifies and speeds up the implementation and provisioning of QoS for VoIP traffic. This feature is enabled with the help of the
auto qos voip command. CEF must be enabled at the interface or ATM PVC before the auto qos command can be used. For more information about this feature and its prerequisites, refer to AutoQoS – VoIP.
From MPLS Fundamentals – Luc De Ghein Why Is CEF Needed in MPLS Networks? Concerning MPLS, CEF is special for a certain reason; otherwise, this book would not explicitly cover it. Labeled packets that enter the router are switched according to the label forwarding information base (LFIB) on the router. IP packets that enter the router are switched according to the CEF table on the router. Regardless of whether the packet is switched according to the LFIB or the CEF table, the outgoing packet can be a labeled packet or an IP packet
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/asynchronous-transfer-mode-atm/ip-to-atm-class-of-service/4800-cefreq.html
Which two options are interface requirements for turbo flooding? (Choose two.)
A. The interface is Ethernet.
B. The interface is configured for ARPA encapsulation.
C. The interface is PPP.
D. The interface is configured for GRE encapsulation.
E. The interface is configured for 802.1Q encapsulation.

Correct Answer: AB Explanation Explanation/Reference:
In the switch, the majority of packets are forwarded in hardware; most packets do not go through the switch CPU. For those packets that do go to the CPU, you can speed up spanning tree-based UDP flooding by a factor of about four to five times by using turbo-flooding. This feature is supported over Ethernet interfaces configured for ARPA encapsulation.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/metro/me3400/software/release/12-2_50_se/configuration/guide/scg/swiprout.html
Which three options are sub-subfields of the IPv4 Option Type subfield? (Choose three.)
A. Option Class
C. Copied
E. Option Number

Correct Answer: ACE Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Each IP option has its own subfield format, generally structured as shown below. For most options, all three subfields are used. Option Type, Option Length and Option Data.

Whenever Cisco candidates take a tour of sample questions of Cisco 400-101 exam they find their training to be matchless to great extent.Passing the Cisco 400-101 on your own can be a difficult task,but with Cisco 400-101 preparation products,many candidates who appeared online passed Cisco 400-101 easily.