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QUESTION 50
The corporate LAN shown in the Certkiller network uses IP network 172.28.4.0/22 for all departments. All workstations use 172.28.4.1 as a default gateway address.

In this network, administrators have recently become concerned that excessive broadcasts are slowing network performance. Which change is most likely to reduce broadcast traffic on the corporate LAN?
A. Configure an access control list on the router to prevent broadcast forwarding.
B. Configure each NIC and switch port to operate at full duplex.
C. Change the router-to-switch connection from Fast Ethernet to Gigabit Ethernet.
D. Implement VLANs after creating IP subnets for each department.
E. Increase the number of switches in the network closet of each department.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
The Certkiller LAN is displayed below:

A technician is investigating a problem with the exhibited network. These symptoms have been observed:
1.
None of the user hosts can access the Internet.

2.
None of the user hosts can access the server in VLAN 9.

3.
Host A can ping Host B.

4.
Host A CANNOT ping Host C or Host D.

5.
Host C can ping Host D. What could cause these symptoms?
A. Interface S0/0 on the router is down.
B. Interface Fa1/0 on the router is down.
C. Interface Fa0/5 on Certkiller 3 is down.
D. Certkiller 1 is turned off.
E. Certkiller 3 is turned off.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 52
Which of the following steps are necessary in order to add a new VLAN to the Certkiller switched network? (Select all that apply)
A. Create the VLAN.
B. Name the VLAN.
C. Configure an IP address for the VLAN.
D. Add the desired ports to the new VLAN.
E. Add the VLAN to the VTP domain.
Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 53
You need to create a new VLAN on your Catalyst switch. This VLAN is to be named Certkiller . Which of the following need to be completed for the creation of this new VLAN? (Select all that apply)
A. The Certkiller VLAN must be created.
B. The desired ports must be added to the new Certkiller VLAN.
C. The Certkiller VLAN must be added to all of the domains.
D. The Certkiller VLAN must be named.
E. An IP address must be configured for the Certkiller VLAN.
F. None of the above. VLAN creations are automatic.

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 54
What must the Certkiller network administrator do in order to successfully configure a VLAN trunk between two switches named CK1 and CK2 ? (Select two answer choices)
A. Set each end of the trunk line to IEEE 802.1Q encapsulation.
B. Set the same VTP management domain name on both switches.
C. Set all ports on the two switched as access ports.
D. Configure one of the two switches as a VTP server.
E. Connect the two switches using a rollover cable.
F. Use a router to forward VTP traffic between the VLANs.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 55
After connecting a PC to an available port on a switch, you find that the PC can not access any of the resources on the LAN. No other PC’s connected to the switch appear to be having any issues. What is the most likely cause for this problem?
A. The router lacks a routing table entry for the new host
B. The host switch port is assigned to the incorrect VLAN
C. The host MAC address is incorrectly configured
D. A STP instance for the new host has not been initialized
E. The switch does not have the MAC address hard coded in the CAM table.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 56
The Certkiller network administrator needs to verify that switch interface 0/5 has been assigned to the Marketing VLA.N. Which command will accomplish this task?
A. Show vlan
B. Show mac-address-table
C. Show vtp status
D. show spanning-tree root
E. show ip interface brief
F. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 57
Exhibit: Please study the exhibit shown above carefully. The Certkiller switch that generated this output has 24 ports. Why are some of the ports missing from VLAN1?

A. The missing ports are in VLAN 86.
B. The missing ports are administratively disabled.
C. The missing ports are not participating in spanning tree.
D. The missing ports are configured as trunk ports.
E. The missing ports have a status problem such as a speed or duplex mismatch.
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
You need to configure VLANs on some new Cisco switches in the Certkiller network. Which two statements describe the Cisco implementation of VLANs? (Select two)
A. VLANs 1002 through 1005 are automatically created and cannot be deleted.
B. VLAN 1 is the default Ethernet VLAN.
C. By default, the switch IP address is in VLAN 1005.
D. CDP advertisments are only sent on VLAN 1002.
E. VLAN 100 is the default Ethernet VLAN.

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 59
Exhibit:

You configure a new Certkiller switch as shown. Which two statements about the configuration of this switch interface are correct? (Select two)
A. A network host can be connected to this interface.
B. The switchport belongs only to VLAN 2.
C. The exhibit shows interface fa0/0 to be dynamically mapped to VLAN 2.
D. Interface fa0/0 will be in both VLAN 1 (by default) and VLAN 2.
E. This command is invalid as all access ports must reside in VLAN1.

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 60
A new trunk has been configured on a switch in the Certkiller LAN. By default, which VLANs are allowed over this trunk link?
A. No VLANs
B. Only the VLANs that are specified when creating the trunk
C. Only VLANs 1-64
D. All VLANs
E. All VLAN’s except VLAN 1
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 61
The Certkiller network administrator has just issued the “switchport trunk native vlan 998” command on switch CK2 . What is the function of this command?
A. It designates VLAN 998 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic
B. It designates VLAN 998 for untagged traffic
C. It blocks VLAN 998 traffic from passing on the trunk
D. It creates a VLAN 998 interface
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 62
Part of the Certkiller switched LAN is shown in the following exhibit:

As a network associate for Certkiller , you need to configure the switches and router in the graphic shown above so that the hosts in VLAN3 and VLAN4 can communicate with the enterprise server ( Certkiller E) in VLAN2. To accomplish this, which two Ethernet segments would need to be configured as trunk links? (Choose two)
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
F. F
Correct Answer: CF
QUESTION 63
You are bringing up a new Certkiller switch, and wish to connect it via a trunk to another switch from a different vendor, which uses the IEEE standard for the trunking method. When setting the encapsulation type on the trunk, what should you configure on the Cisco switch?
A. Switch(config)# switchport trunk encapsulation isl
B. Switch(config)# switchport trunk encapsulation ietf
C. Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation isl
D. Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation ietf
E. Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 64
A new switch is being installed in the Certkiller network and you have been assigned the task of connecting it to an existing switch. In doing this, you want to set up the VLAN Trunking Protocol so that VLAN information can be passed between the switches. Which of the following must you do to accomplish this? (Choose all that apply).
A. You must set each end of the trunk line to IEEE 802.1e encapsulation.
B. You must set the same VTP management domain name on both switches.
C. You must set all ports on the two switches as access ports.
D. You must configure one of the switches as a VTP server.
E. You must use a rollover cable to connect the two switches.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 65
A new Certkiller switch is installed into an existing LAN and a new VTP trunk is set up with an existing switch. Which VLANs will be allowed on this new trunk?
A. All defined VLANs are allowed on the trunk by default.
B. Each VLAN, or VLAN range, that is specified with the switchport mode command.
C. Each VLAN, or VLAN range, that is specified with the vtp domain command.
D. Each VLAN, or VLAN range, that is specified with the vlan database command.
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 66
You need to decide on which trunking method to implement in the Certkiller network. What is a characteristic of ISL and 802.1q frame tagging in a switched LAN environment?
A. They are used to find the best path through a network.
B. They allow the exchange of filtering tables.
C. They specify different implementations of the Spanning-Tree Protocol.
D. They allow the exchange of routing tables
E. They provide inter-switch VLAN communication.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 67
Which one of the following protocols allows the information about the configuration of a new VLAN to be distributed across entire switched network?
A. STP
B. VTP
C. EIGRP
D. SNMP
E. CDP
F. None of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 68
Which encapsulation types are configurable on a Cisco switch for a trunk? (Select two answer choices)
A. VTP
B. ISL
C. CDP
D. 802.1Q
E. 802.1p

F. LLC
G. IETF
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 69
You need to configure an 802.1Q link on a Certkiller switch. Which commands, when used together, would do this? (Select two answer choices)
A. Switch(vlan)# mode trunk
B. Switch(config)# switchport access mode trunk
C. Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
D. Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
E. Switch(config)# switchport access mode 1
F. Switch(vlan)# trunk encapsulation dot1q

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 70
Which of the following are VLAN frame encapsulation types that may be configured on a Catalyst switch? (Choose two.)
A. VTP
B. ISL
C. CDP
D. 802.1Q
E. 802.1p

F. LLC
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 71
There are 2 switches in the Certkiller LAN, with no routers. Ports 1, 2 & 3 are assigned to VLAN 1 in switch 1 and 2 and ports 4, 5 & 6 are assigned to VLAN 2 in both switches. These two switches are connected together via a trunked link. Which of the conditions below would verify trunk and VLAN operation? (Select all valid answers)
A. Host 1 on VLAN 1 can ping Host 2 on VLAN 1
B. Host 1 on VLAN 1 can ping Host 4 on VLAN 2
C. Host 1 on VLAN 1 can not ping Host 2 on VLAN 1
D. Host 4 on VLAN 2 can not ping Host 1 on VLAN 1
E. Host 4 on VLAN 2 can ping Host 2 on VLAN 2

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 72
Two Certkiller switches are connected as shown below:

Please study the exhibit carefully. Configuration of both switches has been completed. During testing, the network administrator notices that users on SwitchA can not connect with users in the same VLAN on SwitchB. What should be done to solve this problem?
A. Ensure that the IP address of SwitchA is on the same network as the IP address of SwitchB.
B. Ensure that the same interface number is used to connect both switches.
C. Ensure that the ports connecting the two switches are configured to trunk.
D. Ensure that SwitchA and SwitchB are connected with a straight-through cable.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 73
The Certkiller network is displayed in the diagram below:

A network associate is trying to understand the operation of the Certkiller network by studying the graphic.
All hosts are able to reach the enterprise server on VLAN4. The associate needs to determine which
interfaces are functioning as a trunk ports.
Which of the interfaces are trunks? (Choose two)

A. Switch1 – Fa0/2
B. Switch1 – Fa0/9
C. Switch2 – Fa0/3
D. Switch2 – Fa0/4
E. Switch2 – Fa0/6
F. Router – Fa1/0

Correct Answer: BF QUESTION 74
Network topology exhibit:

Certkiller 3 configuration exhibit:

Certkiller 4 configuration exhibit:

You work as a network administrator at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibits carefully. Certkiller connects two different office segments, supporting two VLANs through the two switches shown in the exhibit. Inter-VLAn communications is not required. The network is working properly and there is full connectivity. Certkiller needs to add additional VLANs, so it has been decided to implement VTP. Both switches are configured as VTP servers in the same VTP domain. VLANs added to Certkiller 3 are not learned by Certkiller 4. Based on this information and the partial configurations in the exhibit, what is the problem?
A. STP has blocked one of the links between the switches, limiting connectivity.
B. Certkiller 4 should be configured as a VTP client.
C. The links between the switches are access links.
D. VTP is Cisco proprietary and requires a different trunking encapsulation.
E. A router is required to route VTP advertisements between the switches.
F. None of the above.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 75
Two Certkiller hosts reside in different VLANs as shown below:

The Certkiller network shown in the diagram above is experiencing connectivity problems. Which of the following will correct the problems? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the gateway on Host Certkiller A as 10.1.1.1
B. Configure the IP Address of Host Certkiller B as 10.1.2.2
C. Configure the IP Address of Host Certkiller A as 10.1.2.2
D. Configure the gateway on host Certkiller B as 10.1.2.254

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 76
A Certkiller network is shown below:

Based on the information shown above, what commands must be configured on the Certkiller switch and the router to allow communication between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two)
A. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config-if)# no shut down
B. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# no shutdown Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.1 Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2 Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 20 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
C. Router(config)# router eigrp 100 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.20.0
D. Switch1(config)# vlan database Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp domain XYZ Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp server
E. Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
F. Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1 Switch1(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 77
Two Certkiller devices are connected as shown below:

The Certkiller network administrator needs to add a new VLAN, named VLAN3, to the network shown above. Unfortunately, there is not another FastEthernet interface on CK1 to connect to the new VLAN3. Which approach is the most cost effective solution for this problem?
A. Purchase a new FastEthernet module and install it on CK1 .
B. Replace CK1 with a new router that has at least three FastEthernet interfaces.
C. Configure a second switch to support VLAN3 with a VLAN trunk between SW1 and the new switch.
D. Configure a single VLAN trunk between CK1 and SW1 and configure a subinterface on the CK1 interface for each VLAN.
E. Connect another router to a serial interface of CK1 . Use a FastEthernet interface on the new router for VLAN3.
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 78
The Certkiller Network consists of a router, switch, and hub as shown below:

In accordance with the above diagram; which of the statements below correctly describe the switch port configuration and the router port configurations? (Select three answer choices)
A. The Certkiller 1 WAN port is configured as a trunking port.
B. The Certkiller 1 port connected to Switch1 is configured using subinterfaces.
C. The Certkiller 1 port connected to Switch1 is configured as 10 Mbps.
D. The Switch1 port connected to Certkiller 1 is configured as a trunking port.
E. The Switch1 port connected to Host B is configured as an access port.
F. The switch1 port connected to Hub1 is configured as full duplex.
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 79

A Certkiller router is configured as shown in the graphic above. The switch is connected to the router over
a VLAN trunk. The switch has been configured with three VLANs: VLAN1, VLAN2, and VLAN3. In addition,
the IP address of the switch is 192.168.1.2. A host is being added to the switch on VLAN 2.
What is the correct default gateway for this computer?

A. 192.168.1.1
B. 192.168.1.2
C. 192.168.2.1
D. 192.168.2.2
E. 192.168.3.1
F. 192.168.3.2
G. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 80
A portion of the Certkiller network is displayed below:

Host A in the graphic is connected to a switch port assigned to VLAN 1. Which two settings on host A are required to allow connectivity with Host B on VLAN 2? (Choose two)
A. IP address: 192.1.1.66 255.255.255.240
B. IP address: 192.1.1.130 255.255.255.192
C. IP address: 192.1.1.142 255.255.255.240
D. Default gateway: 192.1.1.129
E. Default gateway: 192.1.1.65
F. Default gateway: 192.1.1.1

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 81
Part of the Certkiller WAN is shown below:

Certkiller 2 configuration exhibit:

In this network segment, the Certkiller network administrator has created a new VLAN on Certkiller 1 and added host Certkiller C and host Certkiller D. This administrator has properly configured switch interfaces FastEthernet0/13 through FastEthernet0/24 to be members of the new VLAN. However, after the network administrator completed the configuration, host Certkiller A could communicate with host Certkiller B, but host Certkiller A could not communicate with host Certkiller C or host Certkiller D. Which commands are required to resolve this problem?
A. Certkiller 2(config)# router rip Certkiller 2(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 Certkiller 2(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 Certkiller 2(config-router)# network 192.168.3.0
B. Certkiller 2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1.3 Certkiller 2(config-if)# encapsulation dot1q 3 Certkiller 2(config-if)# ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0
C. Certkiller 1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 Certkiller 1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk Certkiller 1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation isl
D. Certkiller 1# vlan database Certkiller 1(vlan)# vtp v2-mode Certkiller 1(vlan)# vtp domain Certkiller Certkiller 1(vlan)# vtp server
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 82
Part of the Certkiller network is shown below: Based on the information provided above, which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in this Certkiller network segment? (Choose two)

A. Router Certkiller 3 and Switch Certkiller 2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
B. Host Certkiller E and host Certkiller F use the same IP gateway address.
C. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router Certkiller 3 and Switch Certkiller 2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.
D. Router Certkiller 3 will not play a role in communications between host Certkiller A and host Certkiller
D.
E. Router Certkiller 3 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router Certkiller 3 must be configured using subinterfaces.

Correct Answer: CF
QUESTION 83
The Certkiller network administrator cannot connect to Switch CK1 over a Telnet session, although the hosts attached to Switch CK1 can ping the interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given the information shown below and assuming that the router and Switch2 are configured properly, which of the following commands should be issued on Switch CK1 to correct this problem? Exhibit:

A. Switch CK1 (config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.24.1
B. Switch CK1 (config)# interface fa0/1 Switch CK1 (config-if)# ip address 192.168.24.3 255.255.255.0
C. Switch CK1 (config)# line con0 Switch CK1 (config-line)# password cisco
Switch CK1 (config-line)#login
D. Switch CK1 (config)# interface fa0/1 Switch CK1 (config-if)# duplex full Switch CK1 (config-if)# speed 100
E. Switch CK1 (config)# interface fa0/1 Switch CK1 (config-if)# switchport mode trunk
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 84
The Certkiller network administrator has issued the “VTP password Certkiller ” command on a Cisco device. What is the purpose of this command?
A. It allows two VTP servers to exists in the same domain, each configured with different passwords
B. It is the password required when promoting a switch from VTP client mode to VTP server mode
C. It is used to access the VTP server to make changes to the VTP configuration
D. It is used to validate the sources of VTP advertisements sent between switches
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 51
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is troubleshooting a connectivity problem on R2. The technician enters the show cdp neighbors command at the R2 console. If the network is composed only of Cisco devices, for which devices should entries be displayed?

A. R1
B. SW-B and R1
C. SW-B, R1, and SW-C
D. R3, SW-B, R1, and SW-C
E. SW-A, R3, SW-B, R1, and SW-C
F. Host A, SW-A, R3, SW-B, R1, and SW-C

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 52
A network administrator issues the ping 192.168.2.5 command and successfully tests connectivity to a host that has been newly connected to the network. Which protocols were used during the test? (Choose two.)
A. ARP
B. CDP
C. DHCP
D. DNS
E. ICMP

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 53
Refer to the exhibit. A technician has configured the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Sw11 as an access link in VLAN 1. Based on the output from the show vlan brief command issued on Sw12, what will be the result of making this change on Sw11?

A. Only the hosts in VLAN 1 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
B. The hosts in all VLANs on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
C. Only the hosts in VLAN 10 and VLAN 15 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
D. Hosts will not be able to communicate between the two switches.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 54
Refer to the exhibit. A technician has installed SwitchB and needs to configure it for remote access from the management workstation connected to SwitchA. Which set of commands is required to accomplish this task?

A. SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1 SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
B. SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1 SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0 witchB(config-if)# no shutdown
C. SwitchB(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1 SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
D. SwitchB(config)# ip default-network 192.168.8.254 SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

E. SwitchB(config)# ip route 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1 SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 55
The network administrator has configured NAT as shown in the graphic. Clients still cannot access the Internet. What should the network administrator do to resolve this problem?

A. Configure an IP NAT address pool.
B. Properly configure the ACL.
C. Apply the ip nat command to the S0 interface.
D. Configure the ip nat inside and ip nat outside commands on the interfaces.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
Drag Drop A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 57
Refer to the output of the two show commands in the exhibit. If an administrator tries to ping host 10.1.8.5 from host 10.1.6.100, how will the ICMP packets be processed by Router A?

A. The packets will be discarded.
B. The packets will be routed out the S0/0 interface.
C. The packets will be routed out the S0/1 interface.
D. The packets will be routed out the Fa0/0 interface.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
Drag Drop A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 59
Refer to the exhibit. How can a network administrator ensure that the STP election process would result in Switch B being elected as the root switch?

A. Clear the Switch B STP revision number.
B. Assign Switch B a low priority number.
C. Increase the Switch B priority number.
D. Change the MAC address of Switch B.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 60
A network associate is trying to understand the operation of the FLD Corporation by studying the network in the exhibit. The associate knows that the server in VLAN 4 provides the necessary resources to support the user hosts in the other VLANs. The associate needs to determine which interfaces are access ports. Which interfaces are access ports? (Choose three.)

A. Switch1 – Fa 0/2
B. Switch1 – Fa 0/9
C. Switch2 – Fa 0/3
D. Switch2 – Fa 0/4
E. Switch2 – Fa 0/8
F. Router – Fa 1/0

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 61
What is the media access method used by Gigabit Ethernet?
A. CSMA/CA
B. CSMA/CD
C. token passing
D. point-to-point
E. logical link control

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 62
Which of the following statements are true regarding the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4? (Choose two.)
A. The command is used to establish a static route.
B. The default administrative distance is used.
C. The command is used to configure the default route.
D. The subnet mask for the source address is 255.255.255.0.
E. The command is used to establish a stub network.

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 63
The company internetwork is subnetted using 29 bits. Which wildcard mask should be used to configure an extended access list to permit or deny access to an entire subnetwork?
A. 255.255.255.224
B. 255.255.255.248
C. 0.0.0.224
D. 0.0.0.8
E. 0.0.0.7
F. 0.0.0.3

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 64
Refer to the topology and partial router configurations shown in the exhibit. The network is fully operational and all routing tables are converged. Which route will appear in the output of the show ip route command issued on the Branch router?

A. S* 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 192.168.10.82
B. R 172.16.11.4/30 [120/1] via 192.168.10.82, 00:00:22, Serial0/0
C. R 192.168.10.80/30 [120/0] via 192.168.10.81, 00:00:22, Serial0/0
D. R 192.168.11.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.10.81, 00:00:22, Serial0/0
E. C 192.168.12.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 65
Which wild card mask will enable a network administrator to permit access to the Internet for only hosts that are assigned an address in the range of 192.168.8.0 through 192.168.15.255?
A. 0.0.0.0
B. 0.0.0.255
C. 0.0.255.255
D. 0.0.7.255
E. 0.0.3.255

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 66
Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct addressing for a frame and packet received by Host B from Host A?

A. Destination MAC: 0011.43da.2c98 Source MAC: 0070.0e8f.088a Destination IP: 192.168.60.5 Source IP: 192.168.24.5
B. Destination MAC: 0011.43da.2c98 Source MAC: 00b0.d0ef.5f6a Destination IP: 192.168.60.5 Source IP: 192.168.24.5
C. Destination MAC: 0011.43da.2c98 Source MAC: 0070.0e8f.088a Destination IP: 192.168.60.5 Source IP: 192.168.60.1
D. Destination MAC: 0011.43da.2c98 Source MAC: 0070.0e97.af4e Destination IP: 192.168.60.5 Source IP: 192.168.60.2

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 67
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the entire network topology is shown, what is the operational status of the interfaces of R2 as indicated by the command output shown?

A. One interface has a problem.
B. Two interfaces have problems.
C. The interfaces are functioning correctly.
D. The operational status of the interfaces cannot be determined from the output shown.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 68
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the router is configured with the default settings, what type of router interface is this?

A. Ethernet
B. FastEthernet
C. Gigabit Ethernet
D. asynchronous serial
E. synchronous serial

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 69
The show interfaces serial 0/0 command resulted in the output shown in the graphic. What are possible causes for this interface status? (Choose three.)

A. The interface is shut down.
B. No keepalive messages are received.
C. The clockrate is not set.
D. No loopback address is set.
E. No cable is attached to the interface.
F. There is a mismatch in the encapsulation type.

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 70
Refer to the exhibit. A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the exhibit. Which subnet mask should be used to provide valid IP addresses for the number of hosts connected to router A, while wasting the fewest addresses?

A. /24
B. /25
C. /26
D. /27
E. /28
F. /29

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 71
The EIGRP configuration in the Glencoe router uses a single network statement. From the output shown in the graphic, which network statement would advertise these networks in EIGRP?

A. network 172.26.168.128 0.0.0.127
B. network 172.26.168.128 area 478
C. network 172.26.0.0
D. network 172.26.168.0 area 478

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 72
The exhibited network is stable and operating properly. Assuming that default STP configurations are running on both switches, which port will be in blocking mode?

A. Port Fa0/1 on Switch1
B. Port Fa0/2 on Switch1
C. Port Fa0/1 on Switch2
D. Port Fa0/2 on Switch2

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 56
The Wi-Fi logo is a registered mark of the Wi-Fi Alliance. When the Wi-Fi logo appears on a wireless access point or client adapter, which two of these does it signify? (Choose two.)
A. The Wi-Fi Alliance has tested this device and determined that it meets IEEE WLAN standards.
B. The access point or client adapter has been manufactured by the Wireless Fidelity company.
C. The manufacturer of the equipment has paid the Wi-Fi Alliance to market its products.
D. The Wi-Fi Alliance has verified that the device can interoperate with other devices using the same standards.

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 57
As the certways network administrator, you need to troubleshoot an interference issue with the certways wireless LAN. Which two devices can interfere with the operation of this network because they operate on similar frequencies? (choose two)
A. AM radio
B. microwave oven
C. toaster
D. cordless phone

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 58
Install and configure three access points to cover a small office. Which one of the following terms defines the wireless topology?
A. BSS
B. IBSS
C. ESS
D. SSID

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 59
You are a network technician. You have just installed a single 802.11g access point in the center of a square office. Some wireless users come across slow performance and drops when most users are operating at peak efficiency. Which three items most likely cause this problem? (Choose three.)
A. mismatched TKIP encryption
B. cordless phones
C. metal file cabinets
D. antenna type or direction

Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 60
Which encryption type will be used by WPA2?
A. AES-CCMP
B. PSK
C. TKIP/MIC
D. PPK via IV

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 61
Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the WLAN diagram? (Choose two.)

A. The area of overlap of the two cells represents a basic service set (BSS).
B. The network diagram represents an extended service set (ESS).
C. Access points in each cell must be configured to use channel 1.
D. The two APs should be configured to operate on different channels.

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 62
Assuming that you are a network technician, can you tell me which two practices help secure the configuration utilities on wireless access points from unauthorized access? (Choose two.)
A. assigning a private IP address to the AP
B. changing the default SSID value
C. configuring a new administrator password
D. changing the mixed mode setting to single mode

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 63
Which protocol will be used by a network host to resolve a destination IPv4 address to a destination MAC address?
A. ARP
B. RARP
C. DHCP
D. DNS

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 64
Topic – Identify security threats to a network and describe general methods to mitigate those threats.
Explain today’s increasing network security threats and the need to implement a comprehensive security policy to mitigate the threats
Explain general methods to mitigate common security threats to network devices, hosts, and applications Describe the functions of common security appliances and applications Describe security recommended practices including initial steps to secure network devices
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 65
As a network administrator, you would configure port security on a switch. Why?
A. in order to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
B. in order to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
C. in order to protect the IP and MAC address of the switch and associated ports
D. in order to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 66
What objective does an IDS accomplish?
A. hide the private IP addressing structure from outside attackers
B. perform stateful firewall functions
C. detect malicious traffic and send alerts to a management station
D. block suspicious network activity from entering the network

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
The certways administrator is concerned with enhancing network security. To do this, what are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from outside security threats on the network?(Choose two.)
A. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted.
B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
C. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.
D. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 68
Choose from the following the effect of using the service password-encryption command.
A. Only the enable password will be encrypted.
B. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.
C. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.
D. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 69
To protect network device configuration files from outside network security threats, what should you do? (Choose two.)
A. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.
B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
C. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
D. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted.

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 70
Match the corresponding command and configuration task. (Not all options are used.)
1.
login password certways1

2.
enable password certways2

3.
enable secret certways4

4.
service password-encryption

5.
line vty 0 4 password certways5

6.
line console 0 password certways3
A. encrypt all clear text passwords II.protect access to the user mode prompt III.set privileged mode encrypted password IV.set password to allow Telnet connections
B. set privileged mode clear text password
C. I-4,II-3,III-5,IV-2,V-6
D. I-4,II-5,III-3,IV-2,V-6
E. I-4,II-6,III-3,IV-5,V-2
F. I-4,II-6,III-5,IV-3,V-2

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 71
You need to create a security plan for the certways network. What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
A. Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end-user equipment is well known and widely reported.
B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals.
C. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of passwords being forgotten.
D. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 72
Topic – Implement and verify WAN links.
Describe different methods for connecting to a WAN Configure and verify a basic WAN serial connection
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 73
You need to create a security plan for the certways network. What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
A. 64 Kbit/sec
B. 32 Kbit/sec
C. 512 Kbit/sec
D. 128 Kbit/sec

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 74
Look at the following exhibit. You are a network administrator for certways. You are configuring P4S-R to connect to a non-Cisco network. Which two commands would be applied to the S0/0 WAN interface, but not to the Fa0/0 LAN interface? (Choose two.)

A. ip address
B. no shutdown
C. encapsulation ppp
D. authentication pap

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 75
Look at the following exhibit. You are a network administrator for certways.You want to make each connection that is identified by the numbers shown. What kind of cable should be used?

A. 1 – Ethernet crossover cable 2 – Ethernet straight-through cable 3 – fiber optic cable 4 – rollover cable
B. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – rollover cable
C. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet straight-through cable 3 – serial cable 4 – rollover cable
D. 1 – Ethernet rollover cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – null modem cable

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. Given this output for SwitchC, what should the network administrator’s next action be?

A. Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchC’s fa0/1 port.
B. Check the duplex mode for SwitchC’s fa0/1 port.
C. Check the duplex mode for SwitchA’s fa0/2 port.
D. Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchA’s fa0/2 port.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 9
How many subnets can be gained by subnetting 172.17.32.0/23 into a /27 mask, and how many usable host addresses will there be per subnet?
A. 8 subnets, 31 hosts
B. 8 subnets, 32 hosts
C. 16 subnets, 30 hosts
D. 16 subnets, 32 hosts
E. A Class B address can’t be subnetted into the fourth octet.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has been completed?

A. Only the default VLANs are configured on SwitchA
B. SwitchA does not have a VTP domain name configured.
C. VTP pruning needs to be enabled on SwitchA
D. SwitchC needs to have the VTP domain name configured.
E. SwitchB is in transparent mode.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.A router boots to the prompt shown in the exhibit. What does this signify, and how should the network administrator respond?

A. This prompt signifies that the configuration file was not found in NVRAM. The netwok administrator should follow the prompts to enter a basic configuration.
B. This prompt signifies that the configuration file was not found in flash memory. The netwok administrator should use TFTP to transfer a configuration file to the router.
C. This prompt signifies that the IOS image in flash memory is invalid or corrupt. The netwok administrator should use TFTP to transfer an IOS image to the router.
D. This prompt signifies that the router could not authenticate the user. The netwok administrator should modify the IOS image and reboot the router.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. The technician wants to upload a new IOS in the router while keeping the existing IOS. What is the maximum size of an IOS file that could be loaded if the original IOS is also kept in flash?

A. 3 MB
B. 4 MB
C. 5 MB
D. 7 MB
E. 8 MB
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
When upgrading the IOS image, the network administrator receives the exhibited error message. What could be the cause of this error?

A. The new IOS image is too large for the router flash memory.
B. The TFTP server is unreachable from the router.
C. The new IOS image is not correct for this router platform.
D. The IOS image on the TFTP server is corrupt.
E. There is not enough disk space on the TFTP server for the IOS image.
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 56
Why do SNMP counters often show different numbers than Cisco IOS CLI show commands?
A. The counter output from a CLI show command cannot be reset on interfaces.
B. SNMP counters use SNMPv3 values, whereas CLI show commands use SNMPv2 values
C. SNMP uses 64-bit counters, whereas CLI show commands use 32-bit counters.
D. The only way to reset the SNMP counters is to reload the box.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
When closing a trouble ticket, why is closure categorization very important?
A. It helps to identify the person who opened the ticket.
B. It helps to identify the name of the staff who worked on the incident
C. It clearly identifies ticket open time.
D. It helps to identify the cause of an outage.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
According to the ITIL?v3 framework, which two formulas are commonly used to calculate priority? (Choose two.)
A. priority = urgency + impact
B. priority = severity + impact
C. priority = urgency x impact
D. priority = severity x urgency

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 59
Which three protocols can you use to collect detailed configuration information on network devices for inventory purposes? (Choose three.)
A. SNMP
B. IPSLA
C. RMON
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol
E. NetFlow
F. SSH

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 60
According to the ITIL?v3 framework, what activity is required to implement reboots, repairs, or workarounds?
A. initiate connection to the device and enter privileged mode at the CLI
B. initiate a request for change
C. full documentation and closure of the incident record
D. ensure fix or workaround is compliant with existing configuration standards

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 61
After notifying the customer about an SLA issue, what should you do?
A. Notify theSLA manager so that they can issue a credit to the customer.
B. Document who you contacted about theSLA issue by opening or updating a ticket
C. Log the call and wait for a response from the customer.
D. Open a trouble ticket with the information collected from the customer.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 62
According to the ITIL?v3 framework, which of these three processes are common inputs to root cause analysis? (Choose three.)
A. event management
B. incident management
C. proactive problem management
D. change management
Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 63
Which technique is used to set up an early warning system for impending service-level violations?
A. MOS scoring
B. configuration change events
C. threshold-crossing events
D. event-based alarming

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 64
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Which three of these factors are important information in a network change document? (Choose three.)
A. detailed information about the steps required to carry out the process of network change
B. steps to verify the accuracy of the network change after the change has taken place
C. a rollback plan, in case the network change is not successful
D. a detailed inventory of all types of hardware and devices used in the network
E. a complete list of all types of software used in the network

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 65
A software upgrade is performed on some of the routers in a network. What would be your first major verification step after the upgrade?
A. check show version
B. checkconfig-register
C. check routing table
D. check logs for errors
E. check if router prompt has changed
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 66
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Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 67
According to the ITIL?v3 framework, which three statements are true with regard to effective problem management? (Choose three.)
A. The goal of problem management is similar to the goal of incident management.
B. Resources dedicated to problem management are more effective than resources dedicated solely to managing incidents.
C. A problem ticket can be opened as a result of a single incident ticket.
D. It is desirable to align incident and problem management categories.
E. Like incident management, problem management is reactive in nature.
F. All incidents ultimately require a problem ticket for final closure.

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 68
Network inventory is polled once per week on Saturdays.A new router is being installed on Sunday.Which of these network managers should be synchronized with the inventory manager in order to have the most up-to-date device list as soon as possible?
A. Cisco Performance Manager
B. CMDB
C. Syslog Manager
D. Manager of Managers
E. CiscoWorks Fault Manager

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 69
Your fault management system indicates that an “interface down” event was received five minutes ago, followed by an “interface up” event three minutes later. What should you do?
A. Open a trouble ticket and begin troubleshooting the outage.
B. Verify that there were no changes made to the device recently.
C. Monitor the device for additional interface events before taking any action.
D. Escalate to a level 2 NOC engineer immediately.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 70
A customer complained about their network performance. You scheduled a change request that will reroute their traffic through a different node to improve performance. What must you
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do to verify that this change had the desired results?
A. Validate the customerSLA for performance through the network.
B. Collect baseline performance data before and after the change.
C. Contact the customer to ensure that their performance has improved
D. Document the change request so that there is an audit trail.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 71

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
You have received a trouble ticket from a user who could not leave a message for John Doe at extension 2001. The user stated that when the call was forwarded to voice-mail, the Cisco Unity opening greeting was played instead of John Doe’s greeting. Which three issues could cause this problem? (Choose three.)
A. The exchange server was down and Cisco Unity was operating in UMR mode.
B. A Cisco Unity call routing rule was added that prevented the Attempt Forward rule from being applied to the call.
C. The voice-mail port used was configured only for Message Notification and MWI Outdial.
D. Extension 2001 was not configured with the correct voice-mail profile.
E. John Doe’s mailbox does not have the correct extension configured in Cisco Unity.
F. A translation pattern modified the redirecting number.

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 2
Partition A contains four route patterns. The calling search space assigned to Device B contains only Partition A. When Device B dials 1136, which of the route patterns will be selected?
A. 1[14]XX
B. 11X!
C. 1[^2-8]XX
D. 1[1-4]XX

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 3
Which two methods can be used to correct database replication issues in a cluster running Cisco Unified CallManager 4.1? (Choose two.)
A. Enter the utils dbreplication repair command at the command-line prompt.
B. Execute the dblhelper utility on the publisher.
C. Use the SQL Server Enterprise Manager application to recreate the database subscription.
D. Run the Cisco Unified CallManager BARS utility to restore the database to the subscriber.
E. Use the Informix database utility to recreate the database subscription.

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 4
Your customer has implemented a multipoint control unit to allow conferencing between existing Cisco
Unified Video Advantage users. The multipoint control unit appears to be properly configured, but users
are complaining that when they conference they get audio but no video.
What is the most likely cause?

A. The region configuration is selecting an incorrect codec.
B. The partition or CSS configuration configuration is preventing video setup.
C. The QoS policy is placing video packets in the default queue.
D. The MRGL configuration is selecting the incorrect conference resource.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 5
You are troubleshooting why a user cannot make calls to the PSTN. You are reviewing trace files and you have found where the user’s IP phone initiates the call but you never see the call go out the gateway. What is the next step in troubleshooting this issue?
A. Look in the SDL trace file to see if there is a signal to another Cisco Unified CallManager node with the same time-stamp.
B. Look in the SDL trace file to see if there is a signal to another Cisco Unified CallManager node with the same TCP handle.
C. Look in the IP Voice Media Streaming App trace file to see if an MTP was invoked.
D. Look in the MGCP trace file to determine which MGCP gateway the call was sent to.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 6
You have two Cisco Unified CallManager clusters each using endpoint authentication. You have moved a small group of users from Cluster 1 to Cluster 2 and now their phones are failing to register with Cluster 2. Each phone displays the error message “failure to authenticate on the CTL file”.
Which step should be taken to resolve this issue?
A. Restart the Cisco CTL Provider and the Cisco Certificate Authority Proxy Function.
B. Reset each IP phone so the correct CTL file can be downloaded.
C. Perform a factory reset on each IP phone so the correct CTL file can be downloaded.
D. Press the Settings button on each IP phone, select the Security Configuration menu, and reset the trust list.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 7
Your company has recently installed a Cisco Unified CallManager cluster and a Cisco Unity voice mail platform. You have received complaints from users that the red MWI light never comes on, even when there are new voice-mail messages in the voice mailboxes. Which two steps must be taken to resolve this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Verify, using the Port Usage tool, that the ports dedicated to MWI on/off are not over-utilized. Add another dedicated port if the current port is over-utilized.
B. Verify that the MWI on/off numbers are unique within the Cisco Unified CallManager cluster dial plan. If they are not, change the MWI on/off numbers in the Cisco Unified CallManager cluster so they are unique and configure the Cisco Unity server so they match.
C. Ensure that the number of ports licensed for the Cisco Unity server is greater than or equal to the number of configured ports.
D. Verify that the calls are being sent to the correct ports on the Cisco Unity server. If they are being sent to the incorrect ones by the Cisco Unified CallManager cluster, correct the values in the cluster.
E. Verify that the same numbers are being used for MWI on/off in both the Cisco Unified CallManager cluster and Cisco Unity server. If they are different, change the Cisco Unity server to match the Cisco Unified CallManager cluster.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 8
You have developed a dial plan for a Cisco Unifed CallManager 5.0 solution. All the route patterns, partitions, calling search spaces, and translation rules have been configured. Before starting up the system you wish to test the dial plan for errors.
Which Cisco Unifed CallManager tool will simplify this testing?
A. Dial Plan Installer
B. RTMT Traces and Alarms
C. Route Plan Report
D. Dialed Number Analyzer

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 9
In order for a third-party SIP phone to register with a Cisco Unified CallManager cluster, which three configuration parameters must match between the phone and the cluster? (Choose three.)
A. device pool
B. DN 149
C. username
D. password
E. MAC address
F. SIP profile

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 10
You have configured an ISR at a branch office to register as an Enhanced IOS media resource providing transcoding services. The transcoder has not been placed into a media resource group. Which statement best describes which devices will be able to utilize this transcoder?
A. No devices will be able to utilize the transcoder until it is placed in a media resource group.
B. Only devices at the branch office will be able to utilize the transcoder.
C. Only devices configured to use G.729 will be able to utilize the transcoder.
D. Only devices that have not been assigned an MRGL will be able to utilize the transcoder.
E. All devices will be able to utilize the transcoder.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 11
You have configured the Enable Keep Alive check box under Trace Filter Settings. How does this change the trace output?
A. It adds TCP socket numbers between the endpoint and Cisco Unified CallManager for the session.
B. It maps the unique TCP handle for the endpoint to the MAC address of the endpoint in the trace output.
C. It adds the IP address of the endpoint in hex.
D. It adds the SCCP messages and all fields sent as part of that message.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Enable Keep Alive Trace Activates trace for keepalive trace information in theCisco CallManager traces.
Because each SCCP device reports keepalive messagesevery 30 seconds, and each keepalive message
creates 3 lines of trace data.

QUESTION 12
You have just obtained a list of the following options:
-All Patterns
-Unassigned DN
-Call Park
-Conference
-Directory Number
-Translation Pattern
-Call Pickup Group
-Route Pattern
-Message Waiting
-Voice Mail
-Attendant Console
What have you selected in order to produce this list?
A. Control Center > Feature Services
B. Dialed Number Analyzer
C. Route Plan > Route Plan Report
D. Route Plan > External Route Plan Wizard

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Explanation/Reference: Route Plan Report The route plan report lists all assigned and unassigned directory numbers (DN), call park numbers, call pickup numbers, conference numbers, route patterns, translation patterns, message-waiting indicators, voice mail ports, and Cisco CallManager Attendant Console pilot numbers in the system. The route plan report allows you to view either a partial or full list and to go directly to the associated configuration windows by clicking the Pattern/Directory Number, Partition, or Route Detail fields. In addition, the route plan report allows you to save report data into a .csv file that you can import into other applications. The .csv file contains more detailed information than the web pages, including directory numbers for phones, route patterns, pattern usage, device name, and device description.
Viewing Route Plan Records This section describes how to view route plan records. Because you might have several records in yournetwork, Cisco CallManager Administration lets you locate specific route plan records on the basis of specific criteria. Use the following procedure to generate customized route plan reports. Procedure Step 1Choose Route Plan > Route Plan Report. The Route Plan Report window displays. Use the three drop-down list boxes to specify a route plan report
that meets your requirements.
Step 2 From the first Find drop-down list box, choose one of the following criteria:

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/4_1_3/ccmcfg/b03rtrep.html

QUESTION 13
You have added a subscriber server to your Cisco Unified CallManager 5.0 cluster. The server is functioning properly, but regular updates from the publisher are failing. All other publisher- subscriber communications are working properly in the cluster.
What is the problem?
A. the service isn’t included in the current CTL client
B. the correct username and password are not being applied in the subscriber
C. the Cisco Unified CallManager Administrator username and password have been changed in the publisher
D. the CTL client wasn’t signed with the security token when the service was included in it
E. the MIC for the service needs to be included in the CTL client

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. A user at BR1 is on a call to the PSTN through the PRI interface on the local
A. 323 gateway. The IP WAN has just failed and the call has been dropped. 153
What is causing the call to be dropped?
B. The H.323 gateway has lost the D channel on the PRI.
C. SRST hasn’t been configured on the BR1 gateway.
D. The no h225 timeout keepalive command has not been configured on the gateway.
E. The IP phone hasn’t registered with SRST.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 15
You have received a trouble ticket stating that an executive with an account at a bank cannot retrieve account information by phone. When the executive calls the bank, the call is answered and the executive is prompted to enter the account code. However, the bank does not seem to recognize the DTMF tones and disconnects the call.
What is a possible solution to this problem?
A. Configure the voice rtp send-recv command in the gateway.
B. Set the Cisco Unified CallManager service parameter ToSendH225UserInfoMsg to True.
C. Configure the progress_ind setup enable 3 command under the gateway VoIP dial peer.
D. Configure the progress_ind alert enable 8 command under the gateway POTS dial peer.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Using thevoice rtp send-recvCommand to Establish Early Two-Way Audio The voice path is established in the backward direction as soon as the RTP stream is started. The forward audio path is not cut through until the Cisco IOS gateway receives a connect message from the remote end. In some cases it is necessary to establish a two-way audio path as soon as the RTP channel is opened, before the connect message is received. To achieve this, use thevoice rtp send-recvglobal configuration command you can have a situation where you only have a 1 way path to listen to announcements, it’s usually used to fix 1-way audio issues when they’re not supposed to happen intentionally Also helps on DTMF issues
QUESTION 16
The following is a partial configuration of an access layer switch:
mls qos map cos-dscp 0 8 12 16 28 32 40 48
mls qos
!
Voice bearer traffic will be set to use which per-hop behavior?
A. EF
B. CS4
C. AF32
D. AF12
E. BE

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The LAN CoS maps voice to 8 classes 0 through 7, example below: cos: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 you then map values to each of these classes for dscp, below is the default values (note that there is no EF (46) equivalent): cos: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 -dscp: 0 8 16 24 32 40 48 56 So the question has mapped the class “5” (the voice bearer class) to a value of32 “0 8 12 16 283240 48”. This will give it a per hop behavior of CS4/Prec 4
QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit. A user is on a call to the PSTN through the MGCP gateway at BR1. The gateway and the IP phone lose the connection to the Cisco Unified CallManager cluster at HQ and the call is dropped. What is causing the call to be dropped?
A. The CallManager cluster has lost control of the D channel on the PRI gateway at BR1.
B. SRST has not been configured on the BR1 gateway.
C. The IP phone has not registered with SRST.
D. The no h225 timeout keepalive command has not been configured on the gateway.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 18
Which method can be used to correct database replication issues in a cluster running Cisco Unified CallManager 5.0?
A. Enter the utils dbreplication repair command at the command-line prompt.
B. Execute the dblhelper utility on the publisher.
C. Use the SQL Server Enterprise Manager application to recreate the database subscription.
D. Run the Cisco Unified CallManager BARS utility to restore the database to the subscriber.
E. Use the Informix database utility to recreate the database subscription.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 19
You have received a trouble ticket stating that users in accounting are not able to use the CFwdAll softkey to forward their calls to voice mail. Their phones continue to ring when they receive inbound calls, even after they have pressed the CFwdAll softkey and the Messages button. What is a possible cause of this issue?
A. The users have not been enabled to use CTI.
B. The users have not been associated with their phones.
C. The voice-mail ports are not registered.
D. There is a database replication issue with the subscriber the phones are registered to.
E. The phones are not configured to use the standard phone template.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Explanation/Reference: Symptom: IP Phones will not be able to set Call Forward All (CFA) and phones that are already CFA will be unable to clear the condition, even if the phone indicates that it is not forwarded. Further Problem Description: Many times you will be able to tell when the problem first started by looking in the Application Event Viewer on all nodes for an Error message from CallManager. This message should state that an SDL connection to one or more nodes went OOS (out of service). Ideally the low level networking part of CallManager should alert all other processes when the SDL link goes down. This will allow them to reestablish their connections when the CallManager process recovers or is restarted. In this case they are n ever notified that the service went down, so they do not attempt to recover.
Conditions: After a stop or crash of the CallManager service on any node the connection between the processes that monitor thedatabasefor changes and the CallManager processes on all nodes will fail to re-establish. This results in the CFA changes being written to thedatabase(and can beseen in the CCMAdmin web page) but the CallManager process on each node will not be notified that the change occured.
Workaround: Restarting theDatabaseLayer Monitor service on all nodes in the cluster should recover the connection (this is not service impacting). In extreme cases a restart of CallManager may be necessary as well, which will be service impacting. Note that after the connection is restored the forwarding information internal to CM memory may be corrupted for phones that were “stuck” forwarded during the outage. To fix this change the CallingSearchSpace for CFA under the line that is “stuck”. Update the line, then reset the devices. You can then change the CFA CSS back to its original value and the phone should display the correct CFA information and calls should be routed appropriately.
QUESTION 20
You have placed all DNs in the Phones partition. During testing you discover that you cannot place calls between IP phones, but you can place calls to the PSTN and voice mail. What is one possible cause of this issue?
A. A database replication issue is preventing calls between phones.
B. An access list is blocking RTP streams in your voice VLAN.
C. An access list is blocking SCCP packets in your voice VLAN.
D. The IP phones have not been assigned a CSS.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 21
You have received a trouble ticket stating that the MWI light is not coming on for a group of users. Further investigation reveals that the affected users are connected to the same subscriber in the cluster. Users that are connected to other subscribers in the same cluster are not experiencing this issue.
What is causing this problem?
A. The MWI numbers for this subscriber have been changed.
B. The Cisco Unity voice-mail services need to be restarted for the subscriber so all the users will receive proper MWI message indication.
C. Database replication has an error or has failed.
D. The voice-mail ports assigned to the subscriber are down.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 22
How does the echo canceller interpret a signal when the ERL value is too low?
A. The echo canceller treats the signal as echo and applies the configured values.
B. The echo canceller considers the signal returning to the gateway as comfort noise generated during periods of silence and does not act on it.
C. The echo canceller will apply the maximum echo-cancel coverage time to the signal to determine if this is echo or voice.
D. The echo signal retuning to the gateway is too loud and the echo canceller interprets it as normal voice instead of echo.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Insufficient echo return loss (ERL) to handle the echo might cause these problems: Echo canceler does not cancel, but not enough to make echo inaudible. If the ERL value is too low, the total echo return loss seen by the IP network (ACOM) might be insufficient to suppress the echo. ERL needs to be approximately 20 dB (at least 15 dB) Echo canceler does not cancel.If the ERL value is too low, the echo signal that returns to the gateway might be too loud(within 6 dB of the talker signal). This causes the echo canceler to consider it as voice (double-talk) instead of echo. As a consequence, the echo canceler does not cancel it. ERL needs to be approximately 6 dB or higher for the echo canceler to engage. In Cisco IOS Software Release 12.2.13T, you can configure this ERL level. See theEcho Canceler Enhancements in Cisco IOS Software Releases 12.2.11T and 12.2.13Tsection of this document. http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk652/tk698/ technologies_tech_note09186a0080149a1f.shtml
QUESTION 23
Three calls can successfully be made across a WAN link. When a fourth call is made, the quality of all four calls degrades. Which QoS mechanism can help avoid this problem?
A. CAC
B. FRF.12
C. LFI
D. LLQ
E. priority queuing

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 24
Cisco CallManager 5.0 has just been deployed in two locations across a wide-area link. A distributed model with an intercluster trunk has been used. When you call an IP phone at the remote site the phone rings, but as soon as the other person picks up the phone, the call is dropped.
Where should you look to diagnose the problem?
A. locations
B. system parameters
C. media resource group
D. Cisco Unified CallManager group
E. Cisco Unified CallManager CTI traces

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 25
What are the two most common causes of echo? (Choose two.)
A. impedance mismatch at the two-wire to four-wire hybrid
B. misconfigured tail circuits
C. excessive packet loss
D. signal reflection
E. incorrect IP phone software loads

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 26
Echo is always present to some extent in all voice networks. For echo to be a problem, which three conditions must exist? (Choose three.)
A. analog leakage between analog Tx and Rx paths
B. sufficient echo amplitude to be perceived as annoying
C. sufficient power from the talker’s side to cause listener echo
D. sufficient delay in echo return for echo to be perceived as annoying
E. an analog two-wire to four-wire hybrid operating below 600 ohm impedance

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Echo is perceived as annoying when all of these conditions are true: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk652/tk698/technologies_tech_note09186a0080149a1f.shtml
QUESTION 27
You have received a trouble ticket from John Doe at extension 2001, which states that he cannot call a new employee who has been assigned extension 2005. When John Doe attempts to call 2005 he hears a message that his call cannot be completed as dialed. What is one possible cause of this issue?
A. The new employee’s phone is not registered with Cisco Unified CallManager due to a physical cable or IP connectivity issue.
B. John Doe’s CSS does not contain the partition assigned to extension 2005.
C. Extension 2005 was not assigned a partition.
D. A Cisco Unity voice-mail box has not yet been created for the new employee.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 28
A company has migrated to a Cisco Unified CallManager IP Telephony system and is now replacing the existing voice-mail system with a Cisco Unity voice-mail system. A small group of users has been established to test the new voice mail system. The users were able to initialize their mailboxes and record greetings; however, during testing the callers were sometimes unable to leave voice-mail messages for Cisco Unity users.
Which two issues could cause this problem? (Choose two.)
A. There is a mismatch in the number of ports configured in Cisco Unified CallManager and Cisco Unity.
B. There is a mismatch in the MWI on/off numbers configured in Cisco Unified CallManager and Cisco Unity.
C. The call transfer call handlers are not configured correctly.
D. Cisco Unity is in a G.729 region and has not been configured to support G.729.
E. The hunt group is hunting to Cisco Unity ports that have been dedicated for message notification.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 29
Which Cisco Unity troubleshooting tool would be used to diagnose problems with skinny and MWI messages?
A. Cisco Unity Performance Information and Diagnostics
B. Unity Diagnostic Tool
C. Integration Monitor
D. SysCheck

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 30
Your company has a centralized IP Telephony system and branch offices in eight major cities. The manager of your company help desk recently published local access numbers for external customers to reduce the costs associated with your company’s toll-free 800 service. However, when customers call the new local numbers they hear a reorder tone instead of your centralized IVR.
What is the best solution to this issue?
A. Deploy transcoders at each remote location.
B. Deploy transcoders at the central location.
C. Deploy Cisco Unified IP IVRs at each remote location.
D. Increase the number of ports in the centralized IVR.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 31
You have received a trouble ticket stating that users are no longer hearing a second dial tone after pressing 9 to initiate an external call. The trouble ticket states that the second dial tone is played only after several additional digits are dialed. What is the mostly likely cause of this problem?
A. The Cisco Unified CallManager server is experiencing CPU spikes, causing a delay in playing the second dial tone.
B. A route pattern beginning with the digit “9” has been added to the route plan without the Provide Outside Dial Tone check box selected.
C. A route pattern beginning with the digit “9” has been added to the route plan with the Call Classification parameter set to OnNet.
D. The first gateway in the route group is not available, causing a delay in playing the second dial tone while Cisco Unified CallManager queries the second gateway.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 32
Which three capabilities cannot be configured if the default dial peer is matched? (Choose three.)
A. disable DID
B. invoke a Tcl application
C. enable dtmf-relay
D. disable VAD
E. set codec to G.711
F. set preference to 1

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Explanation/Reference: The Default Dial-Peer 0 peer_tag=0, pid:0 If no incoming dial peer is matched by the router or gateway, the inbound call leg is automatically routed to a default dial peer (POTS or Voice-Network). This default dial peer is referred to asdial- peer 0orpid:0. Dial-peer 0(pid:0) has a default configuration that cannot be changed. The defaultdial-peer 0fails to negotiate non-default capabilities, services, and applications such as: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk652/tk90/technologies_tech_note09186a008010fed1.shtml
QUESTION 33
Which of these is a correct definition of “Alert”?
Select the best response.
A. an event that provides the run-time status of a system, notifications when problems have occurred, and sometimes problem resolution
B. an event that can be configured to send information to multiple destinations, each of which has its own alert event level
C. an event, either a preconfigured or user-defined, that provides the current status and history of events in the Cisco Unified CallManager cluster
D. an event that provides the current view and history of SDI/SDL messages, information from which is stored by Cisco Unified CallManager in an SQL server database

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 34
Refer to the exhibit. What is the TCP handle of this device? Select the best response.
A. SEP0002FD3BAB01
B. 1.100.7.173
C. 1,60,87
D. 10.1.120.149
E. 87

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Explanation/Reference:
The Correct answer is 87 (the last number in the diagram).

Because the TCP handle represents a unique value that identifies a specific IP pone registered to this CM
Server.
With The TCP handle, you can follow every message sent and received from a particular IP phone. The
TCP handle of a device can also be found by looking up the IP phone’s MAC Address until you find a keep
alive message to that phone. Example:
05/23/2005 12:47:01.874 CCM|StationInit – InboundStim – KeepAliveMessage Send KeepAlive to Device
Controller. DeviceName=SEP000F8F59D304,TCPHandle=000000004, IPAddr=192.168.1.128,
Port=52952, Device Controller=[1,92,1] <CLID::
StandAloneCluster><NID::192.168.1.140><CT::1,100,93,1.984><IP::192.168.1.128><DEV::SEP0
00F8F59D304>

QUESTION 35
Users are complaining that they hear echo when they place calls to the PSTN through the HQ_PSTN gateway. The voice port configuration for the gateway is as follows:
voice-port 1/0:23
input gain -1
output attenuation 1
echo-cancel erl worst-case 3
Why are users hearing echo?
Select the best response.
A. The echo canceller is functioning properly and some echo is to be expected on every call.
B. The actual ERL is 2dB; however, the echo canceller still does not acknowledge the input signal as echo because it is lower than the echo-cancel erl worst-case 3 command.
C. The echo canceller should be configured so that SIN and SOUT have a 2 dB difference in order to function properly.
D. InSignalLevel needs to be adjusted so that it is within the range from -20 dB to -25 dB

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 36
Which method can be used to correct database replication issues in a cluster running Cisco Unified CallManager 5.0?
Select the best response.
A. Enter the utils dbreplication repair command at the command-line prompt.
B. Execute the dblhelper utility on the publisher.
C. Use the SQL Server Enterprise Manager application to recreate the database subscription.
D. Run the Cisco Unified CallManager BARS utility to restore the database to the subscriber.
E. Use the Informix database utility to recreate the database subscription.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 37
As a network technician, you should know the VoIP network components well. Which one of the following components can provide the CAC, bandwidth control and management, and address translation?
A. Gateway
B. Gatekeeper
C. MCU
D. Call agent

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 38
CRTP can compress some specific headers. What are they? (Select three.)
A. Data link
B. IP
C. TCP
D. UDP
E. RTP
F. sRTP

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
What should you do to allow iSCSI hosts on multiple subnets to connect to a single GigE interface on an IPS module?
A. Configure QoS on the IPS module iSCSI interface
B. Configure QoS on the IPS module GigE interface
C. Configure multiple VSANs on the IPS module iSCSI interface
D. Configure VLAN subinterface on the IPS module GigE interface
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
What is the definition of fan-in ratio as it applies to SANs?
A. The ratio of storage ports to a single host port
B. The amount of aggregation port bandwidth in the path from storage port to host port
C. The amount of aggregate bandwidth of ISLs in the path from host port to storage port
D. The ratio of host ports that need to access a single storage port
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
You are implementing an FCIP solution for SAN extension between tow data centers using the CISCO MDS 9000 platform. For redundancy, there are two Metro Ethernet paths between the data centers. How can you specify the primary and secondary path for each FCIP tunnel?
A. Configure EIGRP routing on the IPS-8
B. Configure OSPF routing on the IPS-8
C. Configure QoS on the IPS-8
D. Configure static routes on the IPS-8
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which two items are necessary when implementing a highly available SAN design? (Choose two.)
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A. Nondisruptive upgrades
B. Redundant hardware
C. Real-time fabric monitoring
D. Localized data backups
E. Traffic engineering and QoS
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Select three characteristics of the Cisco Coarse wave division multiplexing (CWDM) solution. (Choose three.)
A. Supports a maximum connection length of 220 kilometers
B. Can be optically amplified to extend the distance characteristics
C. Requires OADMs (Optical add/drop multiplexers) to aggregate multiple wavelengths across the same fiber pair
D. Multiplexes up to eight wavelengths across a single fiber pair
E. Supports both linear and ring topologies
Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which of these provides fabric-based virtualization for multiple independent software vendors?
A. Multiprotocol Services module
B. Cisco MDS 9513 Supervisor 2
C. Cisco MDS 9000 32-port 1/2 -Gbps Fibre Channel Module
D. Storage Services Module (SSM)
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Which SAN extension topology is a low-latency, cost effective, high-bandwidth solution that is suitable only within a limited geographical area?
A. FCIP
B. DWDM
C. SONET/SDH Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
D. CDWM
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 8
What is the principal cost advantage of a collapsed core SAN design compared to a core-edge design if each connects the same number of host and storage ports?
A. Fewer long-wave SFPs
B. Fewer director-class switches
C. Fewer ISL connections
D. Fewer domains on the domain list
E. Fewer hops for a given exchange
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which two kinds of applications require substained throughput and are sensitive to latency? (Choose two.)
A. Synchronous replication
B. Asynchronous replication
C. Email
D. OLTP
E. Tape Backup
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which three solutions would be suitable for data replication between two data centers separated by 450 km? (Choose three.)
A. Dark Fiber
B. CWDM
C. iSCSI over SONET/SDH
D. DWDM
E. FCIP over SONET/SDH
F. FCIP Over Routed IP network
Correct Answer: DEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
QUESTION 11
How are Cisco MDS 9000 distributed devices aliases synchronized between all switches in the fabric?
A. As part of fabric merge events
B. Using the Cisco Fabric Service (CFS) feature
C. Using the Fabric Manager Import/Export Alias feature
D. Using Fabric Manager Server Only
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Certkiller .com has a number of data storage requirements: Servers are not responsible for volume management or data migration Storage is provisioned in real time Legacy and heterogeneous storage assets can be consolidated and fully utilized Data can be protected using simplified snapshot and replication techniques Data can be assigned to different classes easily Which solution would meet these requirements?
A. Fabric-based Virtualization
B. Host-based Virtualization
C. Wide-Area Application Services (WAAS)
D. VSANs
E. LUN Zoning
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
What affect does VSAN technology have on typical capacity planning for a storage network?
A. When capacity planning where VSANs will be implemented, each VSAN must be capacity planned independently of all other VSANs
B. Unused ports can easily be redeployed for other applications in other VSANs
C. VSANs are over provisioned separately to provide for capacity growth
D. Because of the complete isolation of VSANs, more ports are required in a VSAN environment than in a non-VSAN environment Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Certkiller .com has 12 hosts, each capable of a subtained I/O rate of 75 MBPS. The customer wants to connect these hosts to the fabric with a 32-port line card. For optimal performance what is the maximum number of hosts that should be connected to any four-port, host-optimized quad?
A. Four
B. Two
C. One
D. Three
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
What are three key benefits of implementing a SAN using iSCSI? (Choose three.)
A. Uses existing IP networking, monitoring and management infrastructure
B. Extends existing FC SAN to IP connected hosts
C. Is more efficient than FC since it requires fewer encapsulations
D. Significant capital cost reduction by substituting iSCSI as a transport technology
E. Maintains consistent performance over IP networks of varying distances
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Exhibit:
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Your work as network administrator at Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully. you are designed a new SAN. The existing SAN uses eight 32-port 2-Gbps Fibre Channel switches. Two of the switches are deployed as core switches and the remaining six switches are deployed as edge switches. Each edge switch has two ISLs to each of the two core switches. The disk array has twelve 2-GBPS channel ports. Each of the 84 servers has a dual-port 1-GBPS Fibre Channel HBA. Which Cisco MDS 9000 configuration would improve performance?
A. Two Cisco MDS 9216 switches, with two 48-port Fibre Channel Line cards in each switch
B. Two Cisco MDS 9506 switches, with two 32-port Fibre Channel Line cards in each switch
C. Two Cisco MDS 9513 switches with two 48-port Fibre Channel line cards in each switch
D. Two Cisco MDS 9506 switches, with one 16-port Fibre Channel card and two 48-port Fibre Channel line cards in each switch
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which technology should be used to provide transparent low latency FC transport across a metropolitan area?
A. FCIP
B. iSCSI
C. DWDM
D. iFCP
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
QUESTION 18
What is the best mechanism to use to isolate backup traffic from other mission-critical traffic?
A. Zones
B. VSANs
C. QoS
D. IVR
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Certkiller .com has deployed a number of Cisco MDS 9509 Multilayer Directors in its data center. Some of the directors were deployed with a pair of 4000W AC power supplies and some were deployed with a pair of 2500W AC power supplies, depending on their locations within the data center. The customer has a pool of spare 4000W power supplies. The power supplies to some of the directors have been configured in combined mode in order to support line card configuration/ One of the 2500W power supplies to an MDS 9509 configured in combined mode fails. The administrator has no additional 2500W power supplies as spare. The administrator replaces the failed 2500W power supply with a 4000W power supply. What will be the combined-mode power capacity of the MDS 9509 running on 220V AC power?
A. 5000
B. 2500
C. 1300
D. 6500
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Exhibit:
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Your work as network administrator at Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully. Certkiller .com has an existing SAN with eight edge switches and two core switches. In your detailed assessment, which metric will help you convince the customer to consider an alternative more highly available topology?
A. Cost of edge switch devices
B. SFP characteristics
C. Total Versus usable ports for end devices
D. Total Port count
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
Exhibit: Your work as network administrator at Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully. In this scenario, the total bandwidth requirement is 1500 MBPS but there are 100 hosts that each need 15MBPS of bandwidth. Which to statements are correct about the topologies shown in the Exhibit? (Choose two.)

Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
A. The Fibre Channel implementation would require two 32-port switching modules in the Cisco MDS switches per fabric
B. The Fibre Channel implementation si the more cost-effective solution with high fan-in ratios
C. If the iSCSI configuration has two IPS-8 Modules, it will not be oversubscribed
D. The Fibre Channel implementation will require 100 HBA ports
E. iSCSI is the more cost-effective solution with high fan-in ratios

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
A government agency data center that is used for tax processing is located in an earthquake fault zone. A backup data center, located 300 km away, is linked to the main data center over an OC-3 connection. Which of the following provides the best solution to extend the SAN for business continuance and for support of their IP Applications?
A. Dark fiber connectivity and use of synchronous replication over FC
B. iSCSI
C. FCIP and asynchronous replication
D. Synchronous replication using FCIP
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 23
DRAG DROP You work as a network administrator at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested in Cisco Value Added features. Match the features with the appropriate potential issue it would most likely solve.
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 24

What are two ways of preventing unauthorized hosts from connecting to the management interface of a Cisco MDS 9000 Family switch? (Choose two.)
A. Configure Management VSANs
B. Configure IP ACLs Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
C. Use digital Certificate
D. Implement RBAC
E. Use SNMPv3 only
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
Certkiller .com has 40 servers attached to the edge switch in a core-edge design. Each server’s average throughout is between 22 and 35 MB. How many 4 GB ISLs should be provisioned between the edge and the core and what will the ISL oversubscription ratio be?
A. 8,5:1
B. 4,20:1
C. 8,10:1
D. 4,10:1
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 26
Certkiller .com has two data centers connected by dark fiber and also has a requirement for synchronous data replication between data centers. If the data centers are 48 km apart, what is the most cost effective solution?
A. FSPF
B. IVR
C. DWDM
D. Native FC
E. CWDM
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
Certkiller .com would like to add Cisco MDS switches to an existing Brocade environment with minimal disruption. The brocade switches are using PID-0 mode. Which two features will enable the creation of a Cisco-Brocade heterogeneous fabric without restricting the feature set of either switch? (Choose two.)
A. IVR
B. Interop mode 1 Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
C. CWDM
D. PortChannels
E. Interop mode 3
F. Interop mode 2
Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
Certkiller .com is concerned about the security of its SAN. It wants to prevent unauthorized hosts and switches from connecting too the SAN fabric. Which technology should be enabled on the Cisco MDS 9000 SAN to accommodate this customer requirement?
A. Auto-Learn
B. SSH
C. Role-based Authorization
D. DH-CHAP
E. Zones
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 29
Refer to Exhibit: What port type should be used between the two switches to maximize performance?
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355

A. TE
B. F
C. E
D. NL
E. B
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 30
Which Cisco MDS 9500 Series feature addresses the customer requirement for five nines (99.999-percent) availability?
A. Virtual Output queuing (VOQ)
B. Nondisruptive software upgrades
C. Redundant fan cards
D. Active and standby FC line cards
E. SSM card is installed in the switch
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 31
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
Certkiller .com has implemented an IPS-8 for FCIP connectivity to remote sites. How can this customer prevent unauthorized hosts from connecting to the Cisco MDS 9000 fabric through the FCIP interfaces?
A. Configure fabric binding on the IPS-8
B. Configure RADIUS authentication
C. Configure IP ACLs on the IPS-8
D. Configure IPSec encryption on the IPS-8
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Cisco 642-144 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1) exam is the exam associated with the Cisco Certified Entry Network Technician (CCENT) certification and is a tangible first step in achieving an Associate-level certification Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1) course. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills required to successfully install, operate, and troubleshoot a small branch office network. The exam includes topics on the operation of IP data networks, LAN switching technologies, IPv6, IP routing technologies, IP services (DHCP, NAT, ACLs), network device security, and basic troubleshooting

Exam A
QUESTION 1
User defined locale files can be stored in which two locations? (Choose two.)
A. DRAM
B. CME flash, slot0
C. SDRAM
D. TFTP directory specified by cnf-file location command
E. CUE flash, slot0
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
What must be configured on the Cisco Unity Express host Router prior to installation of the CUE module?
A. Set up routing and IP Addressing on the service module and the interface service engine
B. Configure a session initiation protocol dial peer for connecting calls to the voice mail and auto attendant features
C. Set up the Network Time Protocol Server
D. Install the files needed to run the web-based GUI
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Exhibit: Your work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Please study the exhibit carefully. Which ephone-dn type does phone 10 represent?

A. Two ephone-dns with one number
B. Single-line ephone-dn
C. Dual-number ephone-dn
D. Overloaid ephone-on
E. Shared ephone-dn
F. Dual-line ephone-on

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Network Topology Exhibit:

Certkiller 1 configuration exhibit:

Certkiller 2 configuration exhibit:

Certkiller A configuration exhibit:

Your work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Please study the exhibit carefully. Certkiller .com has a home-office worker, Mrs. Certkiller, who is attached to it’s voice network. Which three dial peers must be correctly reconfigured to allow those attached to Router A to be able to call Mrs. Certkiller? (Choose three.)
A. Router Certkiller 1: dialer-peer voice 1 pots
B. Router Certkiller 2: dial-peer voice 1000 pots
C. Router Certkiller A: dial-peer Voice 1000 voip
D. Router Certkiller 1: dial-peer voice 1 voip
E. Router Certkiller 2: dial-peer voice 9999 pots
F. Router Certkiller A: dial-peer Voice 1 pots

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Exhibit: Which figure shows E & M voice-port configuration? ___________

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 
QUESTION 6
Certkiller .com has received its router from Cisco and is ready to install Cisco Unified CallManager Express. Where will the company find its Cisco Unified CallManager Express software?
A. E-mail download from Cisco
B. On a CD-ROM included with installation materials
C. cisco.com
D. Embedded in Flash on the hardware
E. Only from a Cisco SE, due to special licensing considerations
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
The network administrator at Certkiller .com has downloaded the cme-gui-xxx.xx.tar file (“xxx.xx” represents the version number of the file) for Cisco Unified CallManager Express. Which file will be extracted?
A. ATA030100SCCP040211A.zip
B. music-on-hold.au
C. xml template
D. normal_user.js
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. You haves been trying to configure Cisco Unified CallManager Express without success. You have decided that there might be more success with the automated setup utility. To start this process, what command should be executed first?
A. auto assign
B. telephony-service setup
C. auto-setup
D. auto telephony-service
E. telephony-service auto
F. no telephony-service
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP You work as a network engineer at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested in compression algorithms. Match the description with the proper algorithm.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 10

What is the least secure mode of enabling an IMAP server for Cisco Unity Express?
A. SMTP
B. SSL
C. Mixed
D. VPN
E. Non-SSL
F. HTTPS
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Certkiller .com wants to create has its own locale file to accommodate a non-supported German Language among its customers from Leipzig. This is the first locale file the company has tried to create. Which tag number will it assign to this locale?
A. U1
B. It is impossible to create a locale with Cisco Unity Express
C. U0
D. 1
E. 0
F. There will be no tag number, since it is only possible to create one locale
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Where do the CUE GUI files reside when enabled?
A. Flash Memory on a CUE module
B. Router Flash
C. A Stand-alone web server
D. The TFTP server
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP You work as a network engineer at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested in Cisco AutoQos deployment. Match the description with the proper algorithm.

A.

B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
Certkiller .com is performing a backup in anticipation of a Cisco Unity Express upgrade. The system operator is taking the CUE module offline during one of the company’s busiest times. What will the result be?
A. Callers will notice no difference for the duration of their existing call
B. Subscribers will not see difference
C. Callers and subscribers will be cut off without warning
D. Subscribers will only be affected when their current “subscription” is complete
E. A warning goes out to the subscribers, who can then alert callers to the anticipated down time
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Certkiller .com is a medium-size, not-for-profit group that wants to implement centralized call processing.
The group will implement a hub-and-spoke topology with all of the remote branches utilizing Cisco Unified CallManger Express connected to the central site using Cisco Unified CallManger via an IP WAN. The remote branch will be limited to 150 IP phones so the local gateway can provide SRST feature through Cisco CallManger Express. Each time a remote branch phone places a call, the control taffic traverses the IP WAN (even if the call is local to the branch) to reach the Cisco Unified CallManager at the Central Site. All the control traffic exchanged between a Cisco CallManager at the central site and endpoints or gateways at the remote branches. Which two signaling protocols can traverse the IP WAN in this deployment model? ( Choose two.)
A. H.450.1
B. SCGP
C. H..323
D. H.450.2
E. SCCP
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Exhibit:

Your work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Please study the exhibit carefully. Certkiller .com was having difficulty hearing during conference calls. This configuration adjustment was made and now the company is experiencing sound distortion. What is the cause?
A. The distortion is unrelated to the gain functionality. Rather it is a result of the company trying to maintain too many conference calls to one time
B. This functionality can’t discriminate between a local VoIP source that requires volume gain and a CO-powered PSTN source that does not require volume gain
C. The gain functionality applies to outbound audio packets. Distortion is created when an external participant causes echo
D. This functionality can’t discriminate between a remote VoIP or foreign Exchange office source volume gain and a remote VoIP or IP phone that does not require volume gain.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A QUESTION 1
The new Troytec location is displayed below:

A new PC is installed on the LAN of the Troytec 1 router as shown above. This PC is unable to connect to the Troytec A server located on the Ethernet 1 network. What is the cause of this?
A. IP address of the Ethernet 0 router interface is wrong
B. Server is using an invalid IP address
C. Workstation default gateway is set incorrectly
D. Workstation subnet mask is incorrect
E. Workstation IP address is invalid
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
A new LAN is being implemented on the Troytec 1 network as shown below:

The local host TT 1 can’t access any of the resources on the other networks. The configuration of TT 1 is
as follows: hostaddress: … ..192.168.166.45 subnetmask: …
…255.255.255.240 defaultgateway:
..192.168.166.32 What is the underlying cause of this problem?

A. The default gateway is a network address.
B. The default gateway is on a different subnet address as the host.
C. The IP address of the host is on a different subnet.
D. The host subnet mask is incompatible to the subnet mask of the aTT ached router interface.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
While troubleshooting a connectivity issue from a PC you obtain the following information: Local PC IP address: 190.0.3.35/24 Default Gateway: 190.0.3.1 Remote Server: 190.0.5.250/24 You then conduct the following tests from the local PC: Ping 127.0.0.1 ?Unsuccessful Ping 190.0.3.35 -Successful Ping 190.0.3.1 – Unsuccessful Ping 190.0.5.250 ?Unsuccessful What is the underlying cause of this problem?
A. TCP/IP not correctly installed
B. Local physical layer problem
C. NIC not functioning
D. Remote physical layer problem
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
A Troytec network is shown below: The network shown in the exhibit above is experiencing connectivity problems. Which of the following will correct the problems? (Select two)

A. Configure the gateway on Troytec A as 10.1.1.1.
B. Configure the gateway on Troytec B as 10.1.2.254.
C. Configure the IP address of Troytec A as 10.1.2.2.
D. Configure the IP address of Troytec B as 10.1.2.2.
E. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.224.
F. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.240.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 5
Part of the Troytec network is shown below:

A junior network associate has created the network design shown above. The goal of this network design is to provide the most efficient use of IP address space in a network expansion. Each circle defines a network segment and the number of users required on that segment. An IP subnet number and default gateway address are shown for each segment. Based on the information shown above, what are three problems with the network design as shown? (Choose three)
A. The IP subnet 10.1.1.0/30 is invalid for a segment with a single server. ‘
B. Network 10.1.3.128/25 requires more user address space.
C. Network 10.1.2.0/25 requires more user address space.
D. Interface fa0/2 has an invalid IP address for the subnet on which it resides.
E. Interface fa0/1 has an invalid IP address for the subnet on which it resides.
F. Interface fa0/3 has an incorrect IP address

Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 6
Exhibit:

After the router interfaces shown in the diagram have been configured, it is discovered that hosts in the Troytec 1 LAN cannot access the Internet. Further testing reveals additional connectivity issues. What will fix this problem?
A. Change the subnet mask of the Troytec 2 router LAN interface.
B. Change the address of the Troytec 1router WAN interface.
C. Change the address of the Troytec 2 router interface to the Internet.
D. Change the address of the Troytec 1 router LAN interface.
E. Change the address of the Troytec 2 router LAN interface.
F. Change the subnet mask of the Troytec 2 router interface to the Internet.
G. None of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Exhibit: You work as a network technician at a Troytec office. After configuring two interfaces on the Troytec 3 router as shown, you notice an error message. What should be done to fix this error?

A. The subnet mask of the serial interface on Troytec 3 should be changed to 255.255.255.0.
B. The subnet mask of the FastEthernet interface on Troytec 3 should be changed to 255.255.255.240.
C. The serial interface must be configured first.
D. The serial interface must use the address 192.168.1.2.
E. The address of the FastEthernet interface should be changed to 192.168.1.66.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Exhibit:

The junior network support staff at Troytec provided the diagram as a recommended configuration for the first phase of a four-phase network expansion project. The entire network expansion will have over 1000 users on 14 network segments and has been allocated this IP address space:
192.168.1.1 through 192.168.5.255

192.168.100.1 through 198.168.100.255
There are three problems with this IP addressing design. What are they? (Choose three)

A. The broadcast domain in AREA 1 is too large for IP to function.

B. The AREA 3 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.

C. AREA 2 could use a mask of /25 to conserve IP address space.

D. The router-to-router connection is wasting address space.

E. The network address space that is provided requires a single network-wide mask.

F. The AREA 1 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.

Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 9
The following output was shown on router Troytec 3:
Exhibit Refer to the output of the two show commands in the exhibit above. If the Troytec network administrator tries to ping host 10.1.8.55 from host 10.1.6.100, how will these ICMP packets be processed by Router Troytec 3?

A. The packets will be routed out the Fa0/0 interface
B. The packets will be discarded
C. The packets will be routed out the S0/0 interface
D. The packets will be routed out the S0/1 interface E. None of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Router TT 1 receives information about network 192.168.111.0/24 from multiple sources. What will TT 1 consider the most reliable information about the path to that network?
A. An OSPF update for network 192.168.111.0/16
B. A static route to network 192168.1111.0/24
C. A Directly connected interface with an address of 192.168.1111.254/24
D. A RIP update for network 192.168.1111.0/24
E. A Default route with a next hop address of 192.168.1111.1
F. A static route to network 192.168.1111.0/24 with a local serial interface configured as the next hop
G. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Router TT 1 has just received a packet and needs to route it. What two actions must this router take in order to route incoming packets? (Choose two)
A. Inspect the routing table to select the best path to the destination network addresses.
B. Validate sources of routing information.
C. Inspect the ARP table to verify a legitimate source MAC address for each packet.
D. Identify the destination network address of each packet.
E. Verify the receipt of routed packets by the next hop router.
F. Identify the source network address of each packet.
Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 12
Part of the Troytec network is shown below: Exhibit

In this network, host Troytec A has established communications with host Troytec B for the first time. What enabled router Troytec 2 to forward this traffic in the appropriate direction to reach the network to which host Troytec B is aTT ached?
A. A default gateway
B. TCP/IP
C. A routing protocol
D. DHCP
E. A Layer 4 protocol
F. DNS
G. None of the above

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
Exhibit You work as a network technician at Troytec .com. Study the exhibit carefully. What will router Troytec A do when it starts up next time?

A. start the limited IOS in ROM
B. start in ROM monitor mode
C. retrieve configuration information from the running-config file
D. look for startup instructions in NVRAM E. load IOS from flash

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
During startup, router TT 1 displays the following error message: boot: cannot open “flash:” What will TT 1 do next?
A. It will aTT empt to locate the configuration file from a TFTP server. If this fails, it will initiate the setup dialog.
B. It will aTT empt to locate the IOS from a TFTP server. If this fails, it will load a limited IOS from ROM.
C. It will aTT empt to locate the configuration file from a TFTP server. If this fails, it will load a limited configuration from ROM.
D. Because of damaged flash memory, the router will fail the POST.
E. It will aTT empt to locate the IOS from a TFTP server. If this fails, it will initiate the setup dialog.
F. None of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
After logging into a router and typing in a few show commands, you press the up arrow key. What will this do?
A. It will recall the previous command line
B. It will move the cursor one line up
C. It will redisplay the current command line
D. It will capitalize the command line
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
After working on a router, some problems arise and you wish to view the commands that you recently entered. Which IOS command opens the history buffer and displays the most recently entered commands?
A. Show history
B. Show buffers
C. Show typed commands
D. Show terminal buffer
E. Show command
F. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
You have just purchased a brand new router and wish to have the router prompt you through the initial configuration commands. Which router mode does this describe?
A. ROM Monitor mode
B. SETUP mode
C. Autoflash mode
D. RXBOOT mode
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
After working all night and successfully configuring a Cisco router for the Troytec network you save your changes on the startup config, reboot the router, and go out for a cigareTT e. When you return, none of your changes are active and the router boots to the initial configuration mode! Which of the choices below indicates the source of your problem?
A. Hardware failure in NVRAM prevents the router from loading the config
B. Startup-config in flash is corrupt and cannot be analyzed
C. Router configuration-register set to bypass startup configuration
D. Startup-config in NVRAM is corrupt and cannot be analyzed
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
While working in setup mode, a configuration line is typed incorrectly. What should you do to exit setup mode, without executing or saving any of the mistakes you made? (Select two answer choices)
A. Type exit at the setup dialog.
B. Type close at the setup dialog.
C. Press the Ctrl-C key combination.
D. Press the Ctrl-X key combination.
E. Issue the copy startup-config command.
F. Issue the ‘write e” command.
G. Issue the “write mem” command
Correct Answer: C

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Exam A QUESTION 1
Switches CK1 and CK2 are connected as shown below:

Study the Exhibit carefully. Which ports could safely be configured with Port Fast? (Choose two)
A. Switch CK1 – port Fa1/2
B. Switch CK2 – port Fa1/2
C. Switch CK1 – port Fa1/3
D. Switch CK2 – port Fa1/3
E. Switch CK1 – port Fa1/1
F. None of the ports should use port fast

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 2
You need to configure two Certkiller switches to exchange VLAN information. Which protocol provides a method of sharing VLAN configuration information between these two switches?
A. STP
B. 802.1Q
C. VLSM
D. ISL
E. VTP
F. HSRP
G. None of the above

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 3
Certkiller has implemented the use of the Virtual Trunking Protocol (VTP). Which statement below accurately describes a benefit of doing this?
A. VTP will allow physically redundant links while preventing switching loops
B. VTP will allow switches to share VLAN configuration information
C. VTP will allow a single port to carry information to more than one VLAN
D. VTP will allow for routing between VLANs
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
Two Certkiller switches are connected together as shown in the diagram below: Exhibit: Based on the information shown above, what will be the result of issuing the following commands: Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/5 Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode access Switch1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 30

A. The VLAN will be added to the database, but the VLAN information will not be passed on to the Switch2 VLAN database.
B. The VLAN will be added to the database and VLAN 30 will be passed on as a VLAN to add to the Switch2 VLAN database.
C. The VLAN will not be added to the database, but the VLAN 30 information will be passed on as a VLAN to the Switch2 VLAN database.
D. The VLAN will not be added to the database, nor will the VLAN 30 information be passed on as a VLAN to the Switch2 VLAN database.
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
A Certkiller switch is configured with all ports assigned to VLAN 2. In addition, all ports are configured as full-duplex FastEthernet. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on this switch?
A. The additions will create more collisions domains.
B. IP address utilization will be more efficient.
C. More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously.
D. An additional broadcast domain will be created.
E. The possibility that switching loops will occur will increase dramatically.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
A new switch is installed in the Certkiller network. This switch is to be configured so that VLAN information
will be automatically distributed to all the other Cisco Catalyst switches in the network.
Which of the conditions below have to be met in order for this to occur? (Choose all that apply).

A. The switch that will share the VLAN information must be in the VTP Server mode.
B. The switches must be in the same VTP domain.
C. The switch that will share the VLAN information must be configured as the root bridge.
D. The switches must be configured to use the same VTP version.
E. The switches must be configured to use the same STP version.
F. The switches must be configured to use the same type of ID tagging.
G. The switches must be connected over VLAN trunks.
Correct Answer: ABFG
QUESTION 7
A network administrator needs to force a high-performance switch that is located in the MDF to become the root bridge for a redundant path switched network. What can be done to ensure that this switch assumes the role of the Root Bridge?
A. Configure the switch so that it has a lower priority than other switches in the network.
B. Assign the switch a higher MAC address than the other switches in the network have.
C. Configure the switch for full-duplex operation and configure the other switches for half-duplex operation.
D. Connect the switch directly to the MDF router, which will force the switch to assume the role of root bridge.
E. Establish a direct link from the switch to all other switches in the network.
F. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which of the protocols below, operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model, and is used to maintain a loop-free network?
A. RIP
B. STP
C. IGRP
D. CDP
E. VTP
F. None of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
By default, which of the following factors determines the spanning-tree path cost?
A. It is the individual link cost based on latency
B. It is the sum of the costs based on bandwidth
C. It is the total hop count
D. It is dynamically determined based on load
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What is the purpose of the spanning-tree algorithm in a switched LAN?
A. To provide a monitoring mechanism for networks in switched environments.
B. To manage VLANs across multiple switches.
C. To prevent switching loops in networks with redundant switched paths.
D. To segment a network into multiple collision domains.
E. To prevent routing loops in networks.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Which two of the following values does STP take into consideration when it elects the root bridge? (Select two answer choices)
A. The BPDU version number
B. The access layer bridge setting
C. The Bridge ID
D. The spanning-tree update number
E. The bridge priority
F. The VLAN number
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 12
Which of the following are spanning tree port states? (Select three answer choices)
A. Learning
B. Spanning
C. Listening
D. Forwarding
E. Initializing
F. Filtering
G. Permitting
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 13
What are the switch and bridge port characteristics of a layer two spanning-tree network that is fully converged?
A. All switch and bridge ports are in the forwarding state.
B. All switch and bridge ports are in the stand-by state.
C. All switch and bridge ports are assigned as either root or designated ports.
D. All switch and bridge ports are in either the forwarding or blocking state.
E. All switch and bridge are either blocking or looping.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
The Certkiller LAN consists of 6 switches connected together as shown in the diagram below: What is the name of the potential problem of this switch setup, and what protocol can prevents its occurrence. (Select only one answer choice)

A. Routing loops, hold down timers
B. Switching loops, split horizon
C. Routing loops, split horizon
D. Switching loops, VTP
E. Routing loops, STP
F. Switching loops, STP
Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 15
In a switched LAN network, what is the Spanning-Tree algorithm used for?
A. It is used to provide a mechanism for routing updates in switched environments.
B. It is used to prevent routing loops in networks with redundant routes.
C. It is used to prevent switching loops in networks with redundant switched routes.
D. It is used to manage, the addition, deletion, and naming of VLANs across multiple switches.
E. It is used to segment a network into multiple collision domains.
F. None of the above.
G. All of the above are functions of STP.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
In which Spanning-Tree states does a switch port learn MAC addresses? (Select two)
A. Blocking
B. Listening
C. Forwarding
D. Learning
E. Relaying
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 17
Three Certkiller switches are connected together as shown in the diagram below: Study the Exhibit carefully. All switches have the default STP configuration and all links are Fast Ethernet. Which port on which switch will Spanning Tree place in blocking mode?

A. Switch CK1 – Port Fa1/1
B. Switch CK1 – Port Fa1/2
C. Switch CK2 – Port Fa1/2
D. Switch CK2 – Port Fa1/1
E. Switch CK3 – Port Fa1/1
F. Switch CK3 – Port Fa1/2
Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 18
Four Certkiller switches are connected together as shown below:

The network shown in the exhibit was designed to provide reliability through redundancy. Both of the IDF switches, CK3 , and CK4 , are connected to both of the MDF switches, CK1 and CK2 . Which configuration scenario will provide a loop-free switching environment?
A. Spanning Tree Protocol should be running on all switches.
B. Spanning Tree Protocol should be running on only the MDF switches CK1 and CK2 .
C. Spanning Tree Protocol should be running on only the IDF switches CK3 and CK4 .
D. Spanning Tree Protocol should be run only on the root bridge.
E. Spanning Tree Protocol is not needed in this network.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
Four Certkiller switches are connected together as shown in the diagram below: Study the Exhibit carefully. What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol that is operating in the exhibited switch topology?

A. To elect a particular switch as backup designated switch.
B. To have one active Layer 2 path through the switches network.
C. To select the best path to a remote destination that is on a different network.
D. To learn the MAC addresses of host attached to the switches network.
E. To distribute VLAN configuration information throughout the switched network.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
When is a switched network that is running the Spanning Tree Protocol considered to be fully converged?
A. when all switches have the same BID as the root switch
B. when all switches have received the MAC address of each neighboring switch
C. when every enabled switch port has been assigned a unique identifier
D. when every operating switch port is in either the blocking or forwarding state
E. when all switches are in either client, server, or transparent mode
Correct Answer: D
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