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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Updated: Sep 22, 2017
Q&As: 85

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200-155 Dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate CompTIA Cisco 200-155 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 39
What refers to relatively expensive items that will be used over a long period?
A. Supplies
B. Taxes
C. Assets
D. Equipments
200-155 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 40
What is relatively costly item that allow the organization to deliver service over time?
A. Equipment
B. Supplies
C. Noncurrent asset
D. Current asset
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 41
Noncurrent assets require special management attention because of their liquidity and transportability,
current assets require special attention because of their cost and extensive time horizon it takes to plan,
acquire and manage them.
A. True
B. False
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
Assets limited to use, long-term investments, property and equipment are all categories of:
A. Current assets
B. Account investments
C. Noncurrent assets
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 43
is a measure of how much a tangible asset (such as plant or equipment) has been used up or consumed.
A. Depreciation
B. Equity
C. Retail cost
D. None of the above
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
The total amount of depreciation taken on as asset since it was put into use is called:
A. Approved Depreciation
B. Accumulated Depreciation
C. Accounted Depreciation

D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
What are the financial obligations that, due to their contractual terms, will be paid within one year?
A. Current assets
B. Current liabilities
C. Current financial reviews
D. Current payors
200-155 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
Estimated third party payor settlements are the category of?
A. Current assets
B. Current Equity
C. Current Expenses
D. Current liabilities
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 47
Which are the obligations to pay suppliers who have sold the health care organization goods or services
on credit?
A. Account suppliers
B. Account payable
C. Account receivable
D. Accrued Account
200-155 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 48
Accrued expenses are the liabilities and are reflected in the balance sheet.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 49
For not-for-profit health care providers, the net assets section of the balance sheet is analogous to the
owner’s equity section of a for-profit organization’s statement of cash flow.
A. True
B. False
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 50
Stockholders equity for investors-owned organizations represents:
A. Stock and retained earnings
B. Stock and accrual earnings
C. Stock and sales

D. Stock and purchase
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 51
Which of the following in NOT the body of the income statement for investors-owned health care
organizations?
A. Operating income
B. Non-operating income
C. Income for taxes
D. Excess of revenues
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
Which of the following in NOT the body of the statement of operations for non-for-profit health care
organizations?
A. Operating income
B. Non-operating income
C. Net income
D. Excess of revenues
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 53
uses the accrual basis of accounting, which summarizes how much the organization earned and the
resources it used to generate that income during a period of time.
A. Balance sheet
B. Non-operating income
C. Statement of operations
D. Accounting system for income
200-155 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 54
Revenues represent amounts earned by the organization would, not the amount of it received during the
period.
A. Cash
B. Credit
C. Revenue
D. Expense
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 55
Premium revenues are the revenues earned from capitated contracts which are not earned solely through
the delivery of service but rather through a passage of time.
A. True
B. False
200-155 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 56
Which are a measure of the amount of resources used or consumed in providing a service, not cash-out
flows?
A. Operating income
B. Credit
C. Revenue
D. Expense
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
Income derived from the organization’s main line of business is called:
A. Depreciated income
B. Operative income
C. Net income
D. None of the above
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 58
The allocation of the acquisition cost of debt to the period which it benefits refers to:
A. Depreciated income
B. Accrual expense
C. Net income
D. Amortization
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 59
Bad debt expense is:
A. the estimate of patient accounts payables that will not be collected.
B. the estimate of patient accounts receivables that will be collected.
C. the estimate of patient accounts receivables that will not be collected.
D. the estimate of patient accounts payables that will be collected.
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 60
Working capital is:
A. Current assets and current liabilities
B. Current expenses and current revenues
C. Expected assets and expected liabilities
D. Expected expenses and expected revenues
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 61
The difference between current assets and current liabilities is called:
A. Net accounting gain
B. Net expenditure
C. Net working capital
D. Net profit

200-155 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 62
Which of the following is NOT the phase of the working capital cycle?
A. Obtaining cash
B. Turning cash into resources
C. Resources are restricted to be used seldom
D. Billing patients for the services and collecting revenues
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
How much extra working capital an organization determines it must keep as a cushion is called its:
A. Obtaining cash strategy
B. Working capital strategy
C. Financing mix strategy
D. Billing strategy
200-155 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 64
A strategy that refers to how an organization chooses to finance its working capital needs is called:
A. Asset mix
B. Aggressive mix
C. Conservative mix
D. Financing mix
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 65
A health care organization that utilizes an aggressive asset mix strategy seeks to minimize its returns by
investing in non-liquid assets but faces the risk of lower liquidity.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 29
Which option is an example of a distance vector routing protocol?
A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. ARP

D. IS-IS
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
Which option is an example of an advanced distance vector routing protocol?
A. EIGRP
B. RIP
C. OSPF
D. ARP
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
Which option is an example of a link-state routing protocol?
A. EIGRP
B. RIP
C. OSPF
D. ARP
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
What is the maximum allowable hop count for RIPv1?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 15
E. 16
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
What is the default periodic interval at which RIPv1 sends routing updates?
A. 15 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 45 seconds
D. 60 seconds
E. 90 seconds
F. RIPv1 only sends routing updates when the topology changes.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
What does RIPv1 send to its neighbors?
A. Information about changed routes
B. Information about new routes
C. The entire routing table
D. Information about deleted routes
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 35
What are two advantages of employing an external router for inter-VLAN routing over an IEEE 802.1Q trunk link? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 3 functionality is not required on the switch.
B. The router facilitates communication between VLANs.
C. The single traffic path is optimized.
D. Latency is reduced as packets leave the switch.
E. Equal-Cost Multipath is supported.

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 36
Which statement correctly describes an SVI?
A. An SVI is a Layer 2 interface and uses a dynamic MAC address.
B. An SVI cannot have an IP address assigned to it.
C. An SVI provides Layer 3 routing between VLANs.
D. Each switch port requires an SVI assignment.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37
What is the Cisco Nexus Operating System command to define a port as a Layer 3 port?
A. Port routed
B. No switchport
C. l3 switchport
D. Port switching off

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 38
Which statement is correct regarding a routed port on a multilayer switch?
A. A routed port requires an SVI definition.
B. Routed ports cannot be configured on a multilayer switch that uses SVIs.
C. A maximum of 32 routed ports can be provisioned on a given multilayer switch.
D. A routed port is a physical port that supports Layer 3 routing.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 39
On a new Cisco Nexus switch, you receive an error message when you attempt to create an SVI. What is the first command you must use to create the SVI?
A. Interface vlan (vlan_id)
B. Vlan (vlan_id)
C. Feature svi
D. Interface routed

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 40
Which command should you use to configure a Cisco Nexus switch port for Layer 2 operation?
A. nexus(config-if)#switchport
B. nexus(config-if)#layer-2
C. nexus(config-if)#routed
D. nexus(config)#interface vlan 10 nexus(config-if)#switchport

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
Which version of Cisco Nexus Operating System became a common operating system for Cisco Nexus switches and Cisco MDS storage switches?
A. 2.7
B. 3.3
C. 3.9
D. 4.1
E. 5.01GD
F. 6.2
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
What are two core features of Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose two.)
A. SNMPv3
B. RMON
C. System Manager

D. PSS
E. VRF
F. TRILL
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 43
What is the acronym expansion of the UDLD feature of Cisco Nexus Operating System?
A. UniDirectional Link Detection
B. Unified Data Link Distribution
C. Unified Data Loss Detection
D. Unified Directional Link Distribution
E. Unidirectional Data Loss Detection
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
What are four security features that are included in Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco TrustSec
B. IEEE 802.1Qau
C. CoPP
D. port security
E. PIM
F. SSL VPN
G. IPsec VPN
H. ACLs
Correct Answer: ACDH QUESTION 45
What are three modular Layer 2 processes in Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose three.)
A. UDLD
B. PIM
C. HSRP
D. STP
E. Cisco Discovery Protocol

F. OSPF
Correct Answer: ADE

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