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2.0 Business Goals 20%

2.1 Define the business outcome for the application
2.2 Document requirements in terms of deployment, lifecycle management, level of service
2.3 Describe application consumption models
2.3.a Understanding and describing clients for the application from the business perspective
2.3.b Understanding the multiple service level requirements
2.3.c Multitenant environment and implications on application deployment (gold or silver)
2.3.d Security considerations in different consumption models (firewall or certificates)
2.4 Describe the business benefits of making applications network
2.4.a Describe the actions that can be taken based on the information from the network
2.5 Identify challenges with making an application network aware

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Latest and Most Accurate Pass4itsure 600-509 Dumps Exam Q&As:

1. What is the best action to take when sharing a workspace?
A. Keep a log of daily activities to share with next shift.
B. Label all of your personal property.
C. Refrain from loading personal software onto computer equipment.
D. Shut down the computer equipment at the end of each shift.
600-509 exam Answer: C
2. Which statement best describes a good leader?
A. Good leaders demonstrate absolute control over their teams.
B. Good leaders do not need to offer incentives.
C. Good leaders encourage initiative.
D. Good leaders make all the decisions for their staff.
Answer: C
3. Whicht is an example of data that must be protected by security policies?
A. Department addresses.
B. General telephone numbers.
C. Head office marketing handouts.
D. Personal information.
600-509 dumps Answer: D
4. What is a best practice to use when placing a customer on hold?
A. Document your actions in the incident record.
B. Ensure that the hold music is working.
C. Provide a valid reason for putting the customer on hold.
D. Set a reminder so that you don forget the customer.
Answer: C
5. Which of the following techniques is the best one for reducing and eliminating conflict during a call?
A. Match the customer attitude.

B. Refrain from interrupting the customer.
C. Stop using the customer name.
D. Tell the customer you feel sorry for them.
600-509 pdf Answer: B
6. What is the most important reason for using customer satisfaction surveys?
A. Customer satisfaction surveys allow customers to say what they really think without offending Support Centre staff.
B. Customer satisfaction surveys help to determine if customer service expectations are being met.
C. Customer satisfaction surveys provide an accurate set of management reports on SLA performance.
D. Customer satisfaction surveys provide information that can be used to assess blame for problems.
Answer: B
7. What is the major difference between problem management and incident management?
A. Incident management and problem management are the same.
B. Incident management aims to get people back to work quickly and problem management tries to stop incidents from recurring.
C. Incident management aims to prevent problems from occurring in the first place, and problem management solves problems.
D. Incident management is used first, and problem management is used if incident management does not work.
600-509 vce Answer: B
8. What is the best reason for using proper grammar and spelling when documenting incidents?
A. Not using proper grammar and spelling is sloppy.
B. Not using proper grammar and spelling will anger the customer.
C. Using proper grammar and spelling is professional.
D. Using proper grammar and spelling will impress your supervisor.
Answer: C
9. What is a best practice for effective cross-cultural communication?

A. Ask open questions.
B. Increase the pace of the call.
C. Repeat everything that the customer says.
D. Use proper language expressions.
600-509 exam Answer: D
10. A customer calls with a problem you know they could solve using the Support Centre web site. What is a best practice for encouraging the customer to try self-help?
A. Ask if they have tried the website and give them the Answer.
B. Respectfully talk them through the self-help process.
C. Send them an e-mail with a link to the web site.
D. Tell them that the
Answer is on the web site and give them the URL.
Answer: B
11. Which metric is used to measure the average amount of time that a customer waits before a call is Answered?
A. Abandon before
Answer.
B. Availability.
C. Average speed to
Answer.
D. First contact resolution.
600-509 dumps Answer: C
12. What type of question will best encourage a customer to talk more about their incident?
A. Closed questions.
B. Open questions.
C. Technical questions.

D. Personal questions.
Answer: B
13. What is the best reason for providing status updates to your customers?
A. Providing status updates demonstrates sympathy for the customer.
B. Providing status updates ensures that you control the call.
C. Providing status updates is required by the SLA.
D. Providing status updates reduces the number of inbound calls.
600-509 pdf Answer: D
14. Which of the following is most likely to be a barrier to communication?
A. The customer ability to use self-help systems.
B. The customer previous experience with the Support Centre.
C. The customer position in the business.
D. The level of support provided by the Support Centre.
Answer: B
15. What is the best reason for using a standard greeting when Answering telephone calls?
A. Using a standard greeting complies with Support Centre standards.
B. Using a standard greeting ensures consistent service.
C. Using a standard greeting makes the customer feel humble.
D. Using a standard greeting prevents individuals developing their own greetings.
600-509 vce Answer: B
16. Why is it important for you to demonstrate confidence when dealing with others?
A. Demonstrating confidence establishes credibility with customers.
B. Demonstrating confidence increases first contact resolution.
C. Demonstrating confidence maximises talk time.

D. Demonstrating confidence minimises conflicts with customers.
Answer: A
17. What is the most important benefit of being empathetic towards your customers?
A. Your customers will know that you feel sorry for them.
B. Your customers will know that you can fix their problem for them.
C. Your customers will know that you understand how they feel.
D. Your customers will want to talk to you whenever they call.
600-509 exam Answer: C
18. Which statement best illustrates the concept of providing consistent service?
A. Answer all calls within 15 seconds or 3 rings.
B. Escalate all calls within 10 minutes if no
Answer is available.
C. Give each customer an Answer on first contact.
D. Provide all callers with the same quality of service.
Answer: D
19. What is the best description of process management?
A. Process management is accomplishing tasks that we can test, report, and improve upon.
B. Process management is a formal concept that we work with.
C. Process management is a set of rules that can never be bent or broken.
D. Process management is red tape that prevents creativity.
600-509 dumps Answer: A
20. What is a best practice to use to disengage from a customer?
A. Tell the customer the office is closing and you will call them tomorrow.
B. Tell the customer your queue is backing up.
C. Transfer the call to your supervisor.

D. Use closed questions.
Answer: D

21. A customer’s regulatory requirements require that they will have valid data at the recovery site regardless of any equipment or logical failure in the system or environment. How many DR site point-in-time copies are required if they want to be able to perform recovery testing?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
600-509 pdf Answer: B
22. What are two best practices for DR testing? (Choose two.)
A.Tests should be done at least twice a year.
B.The secondary copy of data (B) can be used as the DR test copy.
C.Testing should only be performed when new applications are added.
D.When using a point-in-time copy solution, another copy (D) should be used for DR testing purposes.
Answer: AD
23. What are two risks when extending a production SAN over distance? (Choose two.)
A. A telecommunications outage will segment the fabric.
B. RSCN storms may ensue from intermittent telecommunications issues.
C. Any differences in domain IDs on the fabric switches between the sites will keep the fabrics from merging.
D. Some Fibre Channel frames may occasionally cross the inter-site links and reach the incorrect storage array.
600-509 vce Answer: AB
24. Which formula is appropriate to use when calculating resource requirements for TrueCopy Asynchronous?
A.Bandwidth = [(peak write Mb/sec) / network compression ratio] + safety margin
B.Journal Capacity = (peak write Mb/sec) * anticipated network outage duration (minimum of 6 GB)
C.Number of RAID groups for journal volumes = (peak write Mb/sec) / (total throughput per RAID group)

D.Host delay = 2 * [(distance between MCU and RCU) / (speed of light in glass)] + losses due to network overhead
Answer: A
25. A customer is using TrueCopy Asynchronous to continuously replicate a database’s data and log volumes. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A.A database checkpoint should be forced immediately upon failover.
B.In the case of a planned outage, log volumes may not include all transactions.
C.In the case of an unplanned outage, log volumes may not include all transactions.
D.At recovery time, the database will rollback all uncommitted transactions in the logs.
600-509 exam Answer: CD
26. A customer is using TrueCopy to replicate a database’s data and log volumes. Which strategy will assist the customer with recovery from logical corruption such as a mistakenly dropped table?
A.Use ShadowImage to create point-in-time copies for recovery.
B.Use TrueCopy for data volumes only. Use log shipping to transfer individual transactions to the recovery facility.
C.Manage database checkpointing so that logs retain sufficient transactions to allow playback up to the corruption event.
D.Inflow control should be used to throttle incoming write traffic so that updates can be identified and prevented prior to their application onto the secondary volumes.
Answer: A
27. Which is required for I/O consistent recoverability?
A.Clustering software is in use at the recovery facility.
B.Recovery volumes have preserved write order fidelity.
C.Buffers on production hosts were fully de-staged to physical disk.
D.Log shipping is used to transfer transactions to the recovery facility.

600-509 dumps Answer: B
28. What are three regulatory requirements pertaining to data retention? (Choose three.)
A.Basel II
B.ISO 9000
C.SEC rule 17a
D.Email Archiving
E.Sarbanes-Oxley Act
Answer: ACE
29. Basel II is the second Basel Accord and represents recommendations by bank supervisors and central bankers from 13 countries making up the Basel Committee on banking supervision to revise the international standards for measuring the adequacy of a bank’s capital. Which three statements are true for Basel II? (Choose three.)
A.It can easily be circumvented by regulatory arbitrage.
B.It ensures that capital allocation is less risk conscious.
C.It ensures that capital allocation is more risk conscious.
D.It separates operational risk from credit risk, and quantifies both.
E.It attempts to align economic and regulatory capital more closely to reduce the scope for regulatory arbitrage.
600-509 pdf Answer: CDE
30. Which two statements are true for RPO? (Choose two.)
A.If the recovery point is within hours, no replication is necessary.
B.If the recovery point is within minutes, asynchronous (or off-line) replication may be suitable.
C.If the recovery point of an application is set to within seconds of a disaster occurring, synchronous (or live) replication (duplication) of data should be considered.
D.Global clustering, manual migration or tape restore are various options that are dependent on the acceptable time scales required to restore systems to full operations.
Answer: BC

31.What is required to access the Advanced Secure Manager features in Command View ESL?
A.the appropriate license key
B.valid user access permissions
C.a special administrator password
D.a suitable advanced user account
600-509 vce Correct:A
32.Click the Exhibit button. Which component is connected to port E1 of the cluster controller if it is in drive cluster 0?
A.cabinet controller
B.interface controller
C.lower cluster controller
D.Interface Manager card
Correct:A
33.What does the OCP display when a library hangs because there are more than one hundred unlabeled tape cartridges in the library?
A.Error 22
B.Please wait
C.Going on line
D.Inventory failure
600-509 exam Correct:C

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QUESTION 66
You have an existing Active Directory site named Site1. You create a new Active Directory site and name it Site2. You need to configure Active Directory replication between Site1 and Site2. You install a new domain controller. You create the site link between Site1 and Site2. What should you do next?
A. Use the Active Directory Sites and Services console to configure a new site link bridge object.
B. Use the Active Directory Sites and Services console to decrease the site link cost between Site1 and Site2.
C. Use the Active Directory Sites and Services console to assign a new IP subnet to Site2. Move the new domain controller object to Site2.
D. Use the Active Directory Sites and Services console to configure the new domain controller as a preferred bridgehead server for Site1.
70-410 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
Your company has an Active Directory forest. Not all domain controllers in the forest are configured as Global Catalog Servers. Your domain structure contains one root domain and one child domain. You modify the folder permissions on a file server that is in the child domain. You discover that some Access Control entries start with S-1-5-21 and that no account name is listed. You need to list the account names. What should you do?
A. Move the RID master role in the child domain to a domain controller that holds the Global Catalog.
B. Modify the schema to enable replication of the friendlynames attribute to the Global Catalog.
C. Move the RID master role in the child domain to a domain controller that does not hold the Global Catalog.
D. Move the infrastructure master role in the child domain to a domain controller that does not hold the Global Catalog.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 68
Your company has an Active Directory domain. You log on to the domain controller. The Active Directory Schema snap-in is not available in the Microsoft Management Console (MMC). You need to access the Active Directory Schema snap-in. What should you do?
A. Register Schmmgmt.dll.
B. Log off and log on again by using an account that is a member of the Schema Admins group.
C. Use the Ntdsutil.exe command to connect to the schema master operations master and open the schema for writing.
D. Add the Active Directory Lightweight Directory Services (AD/LDS) role to the domain controller by using Server Manager.
70-410 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 69
Your network contains a domain controller that is configured as a DNS server. The server hosts an Active Directory-integrated zone for the domain. You need to reduce how long it takes until stale records are deleted from the zone. What should you do?
A. From the configuration directory partition of the forest, modify the tombstone lifetime.
B. From the configuration directory partition of the forest, modify the garbage collection interval.
C. From the aging properties of the zone, modify the no-refresh interval and the refresh interval.
D. From the start of authority (SOA) record of the zone, modify the refresh interval and the expire interval.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 70
You have an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You have a domain controller named Server1 that is configured as a DNS server. Server1 hosts a standard primary zone for contoso.com. The DNS configuration of Server1 is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) You discover that stale resource records are not automatically removed from the contoso.com zone. You need to ensure that the stale resource records are automatically removed from the contoso.com zone.
What should you do?

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A. Set the scavenging period of Server1 to 0 days.
B. Modify the Server Aging/Scavenging properties.
C. Configure the aging properties for the contoso.com zone.
D. Convert the contoso.com zone to an Active Directory-integrated zone.
70-410 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION: 71
Which three BusinessObjects Enterprise XI tasks support XML exporting in Crystal Reports 2008? (Choose three.)
A. Viewing B.
Auditing C.
Publishing
D. Scheduling

Answer: A, C, D
QUESTION: 72
Which statement is true regarding the Object Linking Wizard?
A. Enables report designers to define an URL.
B. Enables report designers to define how a subreport is linked to the main report.
C. Enables report designers to specify how an Xcelsius chart is linked in a report.
D. Enables report designers to specify the order in which subreports should be processed.
70-410 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 73
Which three procedures will create a second Report Header section named “Report Header b.” (Choose three.)
A. Working in the Design window, right-click the grey area containing the section name Report Header and click Insert Line in the shortcut menu to create Report Header b.
B. Working in the Design window, right-click the grey area containing the section name Report Header and click Insert Section Below in the shortcut menu to create Report Header b.
C. On the Common tab of the Section Expert, highlight the Report Header and click the Insert button at the top of the window. Click OK to create Report Header b.
D. Working in the Design window, point to the left boundary of the Report Header until the section splitting cursor appears and drag it down to split the section into Report Header a and Report Header b.
Answer: B, C, D
QUESTION: 74
You create the following array in a new Crystal report: [“dog”, “cat”, 1.25, True] Why do you get an error when you save the formula?
A. The Boolean value must be the first array element.
B. The array elements are not in alphabetical order.
C. You cannot summarize the elements in an array.
D. You cannot have more than one data type in an array.
70-410 exam Answer: D

 

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Exam Code: 70-696
Exam Name: Administering System Center Configuration Manager and Intune
Q&As: 117

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QUESTION 98
Your network contains one Active Directory domain. The domain contains a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager. The Exchange Server connector is deployed. You need to create a collection that includes only devices that are discovered from Microsoft Exchange Server.  Which criteria should you add to the collection query rule? To answer, select the appropriate criteria in the answer area.
Hot Area:
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QUESTION 99
You have a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager. All client computers are configured as Configuration Manager clients. You need to remediate automatically the client computers that are missing a specific registry key. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
70-696 dumps

QUESTION 100
You create a VPN profile by using Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-696 dumps

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement.
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QUESTION 101
If a Router originates a type 1 router LSA with the E bit set what types of areas can it belong to? Select all that apply.
A. Not So Stubby Area
B. Stub Area
C. Backbone Area
D. Standard Area
70-696 exam Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 102
Which of the following statements regarding OSPF routing updates on a multi-access network segment is true?
A. In multi-access networks, a DR and BDR are elected only if there are more than two routers connected to the network segment.
B. In multi-access networks, a DR and BDR are elected only if the subnet masks on the router interfaces are less than /30
C. In multi-access networks, a DR and BDR are elected. To ensure resiliency, both the DR and BDR send link-state advertisements describing the network.
D. In multi-access networks, a DR and BDR are elected. The DR sends link-state advertisements describing the network.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 103
An OSPF ASBR must have at least one interface in the backbone area (area 0)
A. True
B. False
70-696 dump Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 104
The Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR supports which two of the OSPF area types below?
A. Not So Stubby Areas
B. Level 1 Areas
C. Stub Areas
D. Partially Stubby Areas
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 105
What command will show the OSPF neighbors, and their status on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. Show ospf neighbors
B. Show router ospf neighbors
C. Show router ospf adjacency
D. Show ospf adjacency
70-696 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 106
Which of the LSA types stay within an OSPF area and are not exported outside of the area? (Choose all that apply)
A. Router LSA
B. Network LSA
C. Summary Network LSA
D. Summary Router LSA
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 107
What is the source IP address in an OSPF update?
A. 224.0.0.5
B. 224.0.0.6
C. The unicast IP address of the interface the update is being sent on.
D. The system address of the router

70-696 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 108
NSSA LSA packets are what type within an NSSA area, and are converted to what other type at the ABR?
A. They are type 7 within the area and are not modified at the ABR
B. They are type 5 within the area and converted to type 3 at the ABR
C. They are type 5 within the area and are not modified at the ABR
D. They are type 7 within the area and converted to type 5 at the ABR
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 109
What best describes the type of packets used by OSPF routers to exchange updates on a pointto- point link?
A. IP packets sent to an IP multicast address.
B. Ethernet frames sent to an Ethernet multicast address.
C. IP packets sent to an IP unicast address.
D. UDP packets sent to an IP multicast address.
70-696 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 110
Graceful Restart is supported by what IGPs?
A. RIPv1 and RIPv2
B. OSPF
C. IS-IS
D. BGP
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 111
What are some of the characteristics of Alcatel-Lucent’s implementation of non-stop routing? (Choose two)
A. No protocol extensions required
B. Only supported by OSPF and IS-IS
C. Transparent to routing neighbors
D. Uses Graceful Restart to inter-operate with other vendors
70-696 dump Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 112
Click the exhibit button.
Two neighboring OSPF routers have exchanged the packets shown. What state is the adjacency in?
A. Full; both routers are exchanging Helios to maintain the adjacency.
B. The adjacency is down.
C. The adjacency is in exstart state.
D. The adjacency is in the exchange state.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 113
When an OSPF adjacency is stuck in the “ExchStart” state, what is the most likely cause?
A. The MTU does not match on both interfaces
B. OSPF is not enabled on one of the routers
C. The Router ID is the same on both routers
D. A OSPF Hello has not been received from the neighbor
70-696 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 114
Select the answer below that correctly lists the 5 different OSPF packet types.
A. Hello, Link State Update, Link State Packet, Link State Acknowledgement, Database Descriptor
B. Link State Update, Link State Refresh, Link State Acknowledgement, Database Descriptor, Notification
C. Hello, Link State Refresh, Link State Update, Link State Acknowledgement, Link State Authentication
D. Hello, Link State Update, Link State Request, Link State Acknowledgement, Database Descriptor
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 115
What causes an adjacency to change from “Init” to “Two Way”?
A. When a Link State Update is received in response to a Link State Request
B. When a router receives a Hello packet from a neighbor that contains its router id in the neighbor list
C. When OSPF neighbors exchange Database Descriptor packets
D. When a Link State Acknowledgement is received in response to a Link State Update
70-696 vce Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 200-355
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals
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QUESTION 56
Which two Cisco WLC management-access methods are available as the default setting? (Choose two.)
A. SSH
B. HTTPS
C. Telnet
D. HTTP
200-355 exam Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 57
Which two statements about the requirements to configure inter-controller roaming are true? (Choose two.)
A. The same mobility domain names are configured across controllers.
B. The same RF group names are configured across controllers.
C. The same controller hardware version is configured across controllers.
D. The same AP manager interface is configured across controllers.
E. The same virtual interface is configured across controllers.
F. The same controller software version is configured across controllers.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 58
Which Cisco AnyConnect module allows troubleshooting for core Cisco AnyConnect problems?
A. telemetry
B. web security
C. VPN
D. NAM
E. DART
F. posture
G. CSSC
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 59
200-355 dumps

Refer to the exhibit. The wireless engineer has deployed the Cisco 5508 Wireless Controller. The controller is responding on the service port; however, it will not respond on the management interface. Which configuration revision will fix the management interface?
A. On the switch interface, configure switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan add 10.
B. On the WLC management interface, disable LAG on the management network.
C. On the switch interface, configure switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 10.
D. On the WLC management interface, change the VLAN ID to 20.
E. On the switch interface, configure no spanning-tree portfast trunk.
F. On WLC Controller > General, disable LAG and reboot.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 60
What does the following scatter gram suggest?
A. Sales revenue is inversely related to training costs.
B. The training program is not effective.
C. Training costs do not affect sales revenue.
D. Several data points are incorrectly plotted.
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Internal auditors may use scatter diagrams to detect misstated data, relationships among variables, and unusual operating results. A scatter diagram is a graph of data points. When the points have a systematic relationship, the independent (x) variable and dependent (y) variable are likely to be correlated; i.e.. the value of one variable is a predictor ofthevalue of the other. However, the variables in this scattergram are clearly uncorrelated because training costs do not predict sales.
QUESTION 61
To remove the effect of seasonal variation from a time series, original data should be:
A. Increased by the seasonal factor.
B. Reduced by the seasonal factor.
C. Multi plied by the seasonal factor.
D. Divided by the seasonal factor.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Seasonal variations are common in many businesses. To remove the effect of seasonal variation from a time series, the original data (with the four trends) is divided by the seasonal norm.
QUESTION 62
The moving-average method of forecasting:
A. Is a cross-sectional forecasting method.
B. Regresses the variable of interest on a related variable to develop a forecast.
C. Derives final forecasts by adjusting the initial forecast based on the smoothing constant.
D. Includes each new observation in the average as it becomes available and discards the oldest observation.
200-355 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The simple moving-average method is a smoothing technique that uses the experience of the past N periods (through time period t) to forecast a value for the next period. Thus, the average includes each new observation and discards the oldest observation. The forecast formula for the next period (for time period t+1) is the
sum of the last N observations divided by N.
QUESTION 63
A company is formulating its plans for the coming year, including the preparation of its cash budget. Historically. 30% of the company’s sales are cash sales. The
remaining 70% are credit sales with the following collection pattern:
Sales for the first 5 months of the coming year are forecast as follows:
For the month of April, the total cash receipts from sales and collections on account would be:
A. US$3,729,968
B. US$3,781,600
C. US$4,025,200
D. US$4,408,000
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The cash receipts for April equal April’s cash sales (US $4,000,000 * 30% = US $1.200,000), 40% of April’s credit sales, and 58% of March’s credit sales. Consequently, total cash receipts equal US $3,781,600 [$1,200,000 + ($4,000,000 * 40% x 70%) + ($3,600,000 x 58% x 70%)].
QUESTION 64
A learning curve of 80% assumes that the incremental unit time is reduced by 20% for each doubling of output. Also, direct labor cost is proportionate to time
worked. What is the incremental direct labor cost of the 16th unit produced as an approximate percentage of the first unit produced?

A. 41%
B. 31%
C. 51%
D. 64%
200-355 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The assumption is that the incremental unit time (time to produce the last unit) is reduced by 20% when production doubles. Thus, the labor cost of the sixteenth unit is 40.96% of that for the first unit (100% x 80% x 80% x 80% x 80%).
QUESTION 65
Management of a bookkeeping company observed that the average time spent to perform identical tasks using a new software package decreases as the number of tasks performed increases. The following information on the use of the new software was collected. If this learning effect continues, what is the average time to perform each of the first eight tasks?
A. 7.29 minutes.
B. 8.1 minutes.
C. 6.56 minutes.
D. 5.90 minutes.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Learning curves reflect the increased rate at which people perform tasks as they gain experience. The time required to perform a given task becomes progressively shorter. This technique is applicable only to the early stages of production or to any new task. One common assumption is that the cumulative average time per unit is reduced by a fixed percentage each time cumulative production is doubled. Based on the given data, this company has a 90% learning curve (90% x 10 minutes = 9 minutes, and 90% x 9 minutes = 8.1 minutes). Accordingly, the cumulative average time to perform eight tasks is 7.29 minutes (90% x 8.1 minutes).

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Exam Code: 070-413
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure
Q&As: 245

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QUESTION NO: 31
Adam works as a professional Penetration tester. A project has been assigned to him to employ penetration testing on the network of Umbrella Inc. He is running the test from home and had downloaded every security scanner from the Internet. Despite knowing the IP range of all of the systems, and the exact network configuration, Adam is unable to get any useful results. Which of the following is the most like cause of this problem?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Security scanners are only as smart as their database and cannot find unpublished vulnerabilities.
B. Security scanners cannot perform vulnerability linkage.
C. Security scanners are smart as their database and can find unpublished vulnerabilities.
D. Security scanners are not designed to do testing through a firewall.
070-413 exam Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 32
An organization monitors the hard disks of its employees’ computers from time to time. Which policy does this pertain to?
A. Network security policy
B. User password policy
C. Privacy policy
D. Backup policy
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 33
You work as a Network Administrator for Net World International. You have configured the hard disk drive of your computer as shown in the image below: The computer is configured to dual-boot with Windows 2000 Server and Windows 98. While working on Windows 2000 Server, you save a file on the 6GB partition. You are unable to find the file while working on Windows 98. You are not even able to access the partition on which the file is saved. What is the most likely cause?
A. The file is corrupt.
B. The 6GB partition is corrupt.
C. Windows 98 does not support the NTFS file system.
D. Files saved in Windows 98 are not supported by Windows 2000.
070-413 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 34
Peter works as a Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator. He has been called by an organization to conduct a seminar to give necessary information related to sexual harassment within the work place. Peter started with the definition and types of sexual harassment. He then wants to convey that it is important that records of the sexual harassment incidents should be maintained, which helps in further legal prosecution. Which of the following data should be recorded in this documentation?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Names of the victims
B. Date and time of incident
C. Nature of harassment
D. Location of each incident
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 35
Which of the following types of computers is used for attracting potential intruders?
A. Bastion host
B. Data pot
C. Files pot
D. Honey pot
070-413 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 36
Which of the following standard file formats is used by Apple’s iPod to store contact information?
A. HFS+
B. hCard
C. vCard
D. FAT32
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 37
Which of the following file systems cannot be used to install an operating system on the hard disk drive? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Windows NT file system (NTFS)
B. High Performance File System (HPFS)
C. Log-structured file system (LFS)
D. Compact Disc File System (CDFS)
E. Novell Storage Services (NSS)
070-413 vce Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 38
Which of the following types of evidence proves or disproves a specific act through oral testimony based on information gathered through the witness’s five senses?
A. Conclusive evidence
B. Best evidence
C. Hearsay evidence
D. Direct evidence
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 39
Which of the following two cryptography methods are used by NTFS Encrypting File System (EFS) to encrypt the data stored on a disk on a file-by-file basis?
A. Digital certificates
B. Public key
C. RSA
D. Twofish
070-413 exam Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 40
Which of the following sections of an investigative report covers the background and summary of the report including the outcome of the case and the list of allegations?
A. Section 2
B. Section 4
C. Section 3
D. Section 1
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 41
Which of the following switches of the XCOPY command copies attributes while copying files?
A. /o
B. /p
C. /k
D. /s
070-413 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 42
Which of the following directories in Linux operating system contains device files, which refers to physical devices?
A. /boot
B. /etc
C. /dev
D. /bin
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 43
Which of the following directories cannot be placed out of the root filesystem? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. /sbin
B. /etc
C. /var
D. /lib
070-413 pdf Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 44
On which of the following locations does the Windows NT/2000 operating system contain the SAM, SAM.LOG, SECURITY.LOG, APPLICATION.LOG, and EVENT.LOG files?
A. \%Systemroot%system32
B. \%Systemroot%profiles
C. \%Systemroot%system32config
D. \%Systemroot%help
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 45
You are handling technical support calls for an insurance company. A user calls you complaining that he cannot open a file, and that the file name appears in green while opening in Windows Explorer.
What does this mean?
A. The file is encrypted.
B. The file belongs to another user.
C. The file is infected with virus.
D. The file is compressed.
070-413 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 46
Which of the following is a name, symbol, or slogan with which a product is identified?
A. Trade secret
B. Patent
C. Copyright
D. Trademark
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 47
Which of the following file systems supports the hot fixing feature?
A. FAT16
B. exFAT
C. FAT32
D. NTFS
070-413 exam Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-398
Exam Name: Planning for and Managing Devices in the Enterprise
Q&As: 36

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QUESTION 29
Given the following information: A BayStack 460-24T-PWR switch is delivering Power over Ethernet (PoE) to a number of devices connected to it. Currently, all devices that are connected to the switch and require PoE are functioning properly. The switch is connected to both internal and external power sources. The external power source is a BayStack 10 Power Supply Unit (PSU). Currently, “DC Source Type” is set to “BayStack 10” (BayStack 10 PSU) and “DC Source Configuration” is set to “RPSU” (Redundant Power Supply Unit) on the switch. A new device that requires PoE is connected to the switch and fails to power on. The “DTE Power Source” LED for the port used to connect the device then begins to blink amber. Assume that prior to connecting the device to the switch it was tested in the lab and is known to be functioning correctly. What is the most likely cause of this issue and which action should you take to resolve it?
A. The port is administratively disabled. Administratively enable the port to correct the issue.
B. NO Data Terminating Equipment (DTE) has been detected on the port. Check the port and correct a cabling fault to resolve the issue.
C. There is a power fault or short circuit on the port. The port or the cable may be faulty. Connect the
device to a different port. If functioning normally, check the cables and correct a possible cabling fault to resolve the issue.
D. The Data Terminating Equipment (DTE) has been detected on the port, but there is insufficient power
to turn the device on. Change the “DC Source Configuration” setting to “Power Sharing” to provide more
PoE for the switch.
70-398 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 30
How do you configure VLAN port membership on a BayStack 425 10/100/1000 series switch?(Choose two.)
A. Run the QoS Wizard to create new VLAN port members.
B. Access the VLAN configuration screen of the Console Interface (CI) Menu.
C. Create an ASCII configuration file with the required VLAN membership configuration.
D. Use Java Device Manager (JDM) to make the selected ports members of the VLANs.
Answer: BD
QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the fact that the Administration interface symbol extends downward rather than leftward?
Exhibit:

A. The interface is the primary provided interface for the component.
B. The interface is not publicly visible on the component.
C. There is no significance.
D. The interface is the primary interface for the component.
E. The interface cannot be provided via a port.
F. The interface does not require a delegation connector.
70-398 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 32
To what does an internal structure of a class refer?
A. the decomposition of that class in terms of interconnected parts
B. the set of structural features of that class
C. the inheritance structure of that class
D. the set of nested classifiers of that class
E. class and associations owned by that class
Answer: A
QUESTION 33
When an object invokes a ReadSelfAction, what will it retrieve?
A. attribute values for the invoking object
B. invoking object
C. attribute values and links for the invoking object
D. class name of the invoking object
E. name of the invoking activity
70-398 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 34
What is the semantic difference between the two figures in the exhibit?
Exhibit:

A. One is a white-box view, while the other is a black-box view.
B. One is a deployment diagram, while the other is a class diagram.
C. There is no semantic difference.
D. One is a UML 2.0 diagram, while other is a UML 1.5 diagram.
Answer: C
QUESTION 35
What kind of relationship is an extension in UML 2.0?
A. generalization
B. dependency
C. association
D. reification
70-398 vce Answer: C
QUESTION 36
What is true about guards on interaction operands?
A. should not refer to any dynamic variables, i.e., to attributes of the lifelines
B. must only cover one lifeline, namely the one lifeline having the first event occurrence of the interaction operand
C. must always cover all lifelines covered by the operand
D. must cover the same lifelines on all interaction operands within one combined fragment
Answer: B
QUESTION 37
What does via foo in the exhibit designate?
Exhibit:

A. an action foo associated with the transition
B. transient pseudostate named foo
C. a transition terminating on the foo entry point
D. a Boolean guard equal to the logical value of foo
E. the sending of a foo message on the transition
70-398 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 38
Why are profiles NOT a first class extension mechanism?
A. They do not allow for modifying existing metamodels.
B. They do not permit customizing for domains, platforms, and methods.
C. They permit removing constraints that apply to existing metamodels.
D. They do not allow for modifying existing stereotypes.
70-398 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION 39
What must be true for a connector to be well formed if a delegation connector delegates to more than one target port?
A. The interfaces of the target ports must have no features in common.
B. The interface of at least one of the target ports must be signature compatible with the interface that is the type of the source port.
C. The interface of each of the target ports must be signature compatible with the interface that is the type of the source port.
D. The union of the interfaces of the target ports must be signature compatible with the interface that is the type of the source port.
Answer: D

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Exam Name: Magento Front End Developer Certification Exam
Q&As: 107

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QUESTION NO: 90
Which statement ALWAYS applies to both EOs and EQs?
A. The elementary process has the primary intent of presenting information to the user
B. The elementary process references a data function to retrieve data or control information
C. The elementary process includes multiple forms of processing logic
D. The elementary process may alter the behavior of the application
M70-301 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 91
The development project functional size is defined as:
A. DFP = ADD
B. DFP =ADD + CFP
C. DFP =AFP-CFP
D. DFP = AFP * CFP
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 92
Which is the correct formula for calculating an EFP?
A. EFP = AFP + CHGA + CFP + DEL
B. EFP = ADD + CHGA + CFP + DEL
C. EFP = AFPB + ADD + CHGA – CHGB – DEL
D. EFP = AFP + CHGA + CFP + DEL
M70-301 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 93
What is the purpose of a FP count?
A. To provide an answer to a software question
B. To provide an answer to a business question
C. To provide an answer to a network question
D. To provide an answer to an application question
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 94
Which of the following statements is true?
A. The development project functional size is a measure of baseline functionality only
B. The development project functional size is a measure of installed functionality
C. The enhancement project functional size is a measure of baseline functionality
D. The application functional size is a measure of the functionality that an application provides to
the user
M70-301 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 95
What is the definition of “consistent state?”
A. point at which the requirements have been determined and approved by the user
B. point at which processing has been fully executed; the Functional User Requirement has been
satisfied and there is no more to be done
C. development of all functionality is complete and the testing can begin; the Functional User
Requirement have been met
D. conversion processes have been completed and all historical data converted
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 96
Which of the following statements about an External Inquiry are true?
A. An elementary process that processes data that is sent from outside the boundary
B. Has a primary intent to alter the behavior of data or control information
C. Has a primary intent to present information to a user through retrieval of data
All of the above
M70-301 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 97
Which of the following statements regarding DET counting is (are) true?
A. Attributes referenced by the application being measured are not counted
B. Do not count a DET for attribute required by the user to establish a relationship with another
data function
C. Count a DET for each attribute required by the user to establish a relationship with another data
function
D. Both A and C
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 98
Which elementary process processes data or control information sent from outside the
application’s boundary?
A. An external interface file
B. An external inquiry
C. An external output
D. An external input
M70-301 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 99
Which GSC describes the degree to which the application and the code in the application have
been specifically designed, developed and supported to be reusable in other applications?
A. End-user efficiency
B. Reusability
C. Facilitate change
D. Distributed data processing
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 100
An EO is defined as an elementary process that:
A. includes additional processing logic beyond that of an EQ
B. processes data or control information sent from outside the boundary
C. sends data or control information outside the boundary
D. Both A and C
M70-301 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 101
The functional complexity of an EI is based on the number of:
A. Data Element Types
B. Record Element Types
C. File Types Referenced
D. Both A and C
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 102
An application’s functional size is calculated after the development project using the formula:
A. AFP = ADD
B. AFP =ADD + CFP
C. DFP =ADD + CFP
D. None of the above
M70-301 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 103
Which type of functional size (F5) measures the functions provided to the users with the first
installation of the software?
A. Application FS
B. Baseline FS
C. Enhancement project FS
D. Development project FS
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 104
Which rule applies to identifying a data function?
A. Include entities referred to as code data
B. Accepts data or control information that enters the application boundary
C. Identify all logically related and user recognizable data or control information within the counting
scope
D. Maintains logical files
M70-301 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 105
What is the purpose of the VAF?
A. Adjust the FP by +/- 35%
B. Adjust the FP by 0.65
C. Increase the reference data by 0.65
D. Increase the aFP by 35%
Answer: A
Topic 2, Implementations
QUESTION NO: 106
A Banking Deposit application (BDS) has three subsystems; each subsystem serves one
particular location. All three subsystems share the core functionalities of the application, while
each has its own unique functions. Databases are physically split and maintained separately by
locations as well. What is the application size of BDS?

A. 575
B. 215
C. 195
D. 35
M70-301 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 107
A Trading application introduces a new subsystem. The enhancement includes 6 new EIs, 3
modified EIs, 2 new EQs, 1 modified EO. 1 existing EO is eliminated from this application by this
enhancement. There are 3 conversion EIs to convert existing data. All the transactional functions
are average complexity. What is the functional size of the transactional functions for the
enhancement?
A. 54
B. 66
C. 56
D. 68
Answer: B

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Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION 30
What is an advantage of implementing a Trusted Platform Module for disk encryption?
A. It provides hardware authentication.
B. It allows the hard disk to be transferred to another device without requiring re- encryption.dis
C. It supports a more complex encryption algorithm than other disk-encryption technologies.
D. It can protect against single points of failure.
210-260 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps

While troubleshooting site-to-site VPN, you issued the show crypto isakmp sa command.
What does the given output show?
A. IPSec Phase 1 is established between 10.10.10.2 and 10.1.1.5.
B. IPSec Phase 2 is established between 10.10.10.2 and 10.1.1.5.
C. IPSec Phase 1 is down due to a QM_IDLE state

D. IPSec Phase 2 is down due to a QM_IDLE state.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
What is the purpose of the Integrity component of the CIA triad?
A. to ensure that only authorized parties can modify data
B. to determine whether data is relevant
C. to create a process for accessing data
D. to ensure that only authorized parties can view data
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
Which statements about smart tunnels on a Cisco firewall are true? (Choose two.)
A. Smart tunnels can be used by clients that do not have administrator privileges
B. Smart tunnels support all operating systems
C. Smart tunnels offer better performance than port forwarding
D. Smart tunnels require the client to have the application installed locally
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 34
What is the FirePOWER impact flag used for?
A. A value that indicates the potential severity of an attack.
B. A value that the administrator assigns to each signature.
C. A value that sets the priority of a signature.
D. A value that measures the application awareness.
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
One of the main reasons total quality management (TQM) can be used as a strategic weapon is that:
A. The cumulative improvement from a company’s TQM efforts cannot readily be copied by competitors.
B. Introducing new products can lure customers away from competitors.
C. Reduced costs associated with better quality can support higher shareholder dividends.
D. TQM provides a comprehensive planning process for a business.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
TQM is a comprehensive approach to quality. It treats the pursuit of quality as a basic organizational function that is as important as production or marketing.
Because TQM affects every aspect of the organization’s activities, it is part of the organizational culture. Thus, the cumulative effect of TQM’s continuous
improvement process can attract and hold customers and cannot be duplicated by competitors.
QUESTION 36
If a company is customer-centered, its customers are defined as:
A. Only people external to the company who have purchased something from the company.
B. Only people internal to the company who directly use its product.
C. Anyone external to the company and those internal who rely on its product to get their job done.
D. Everybody external to the company who is currently doing, or may in the future do, business with the company.
210-260 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
One of the principles of total quality management (TQM) is customer orientation, whether the customer is internal or external. An internal customer is a member of
the organization who relies on another member’s work to accomplish his/her task.
QUESTION 37
Which statement best describes the emphasis of total quality management (TQM)?
A. Reducing the cost of inspection.
B. Implementing better statistical quality control techniques.
C. Doing each job right the first time.
D. Encouraging cross-functional teamwork.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The basic principles of TQM include (1) doing each job right the first time, (2) being customer oriented, (3) committing the organizational culture to continuous
improvement, and (4) building teamwork and employee empowerment.
QUESTION 38
The use of teams in total quality management (TQM) is important because:
A. Well-managed teams can be highly creative and are able to address complex problems better than individuals can.
B. Teams are quicker to make decisions, thereby helping to reduce cycle time.
C. Employee motivation is higher for team members than for individual contributors.
D. The use of teams eliminates the need for supervision, thereby allowing a company to become leaner and more profitable.
210-260 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Teams can use the diverse knowledge and skills of all team members. Employee involvement means training and empowering employees to harness their
creativity for problem solving. Quality control circles are used to obtain input from employees and to locate the best perspective on problem solving.
QUESTION 39
Which statement best describes total quality management (TQM)?
A. TQM emphasizes reducing the cost of inspection.
B. TQM emphasizes better statistical quality control techniques.
C. TQM emphasizes doing each job right the first time.
D. TQM emphasizes encouraging cross-functional teamwork.
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
TQM establishes quality as an organizational objective and views it as a major component of the organization’s service to its customers. It emphasizes employee
training and commitment, productservice design and production, and customer service. Ordinarily, the quality of a product or service is as important to customers
as cost and timeliness. Superior product quality is not merely the result of more inspection, better statistical quality control, and cross-functional teamwork.
Manufactures must make fundamental changes in the way they produce products and do each job right the first time.
QUESTION 40
Which of the following is not true about the advantages of adopting ISO 9000 standards?
A. Adoption of ISO 9000 standards may allow an entity to sell products in foreign markets.
B. ISO registration makes customers more comfortable with the supplier’s products and services.
C. ISO 9000 allows entities to understand who internal customers and users are without sharing private information.
D. ISO registration may help entities discover internal process and quality improvements.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

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Exam Code: 210-451
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals
Q&As: 60

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QUESTION 1
Which option is one essential characteristic of Cloud computing?
A. It must use virtualization.
B. It must provide load balancing services.
C. It must provide on-demand self service.
D. It must run on open source software.
210-451 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Which Cloud service model is appropriate for a physical data center move to the Cloud?
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Compute as a Service
D. Software as a Service
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
What is an invalid Cloud deployment model 210-451 dumps ?
A. distributed
B. private
C. community
D. hybrid
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which two options are benefits of the Cisco InterCloud Solution? (Choose two.)
A. enforces standardization on a single hypervisor product
B. provides self service for hybrid resources
C. management of heterogeneous SAN solutions
D. secure connectivity between public and private Clouds
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 5
Which option contains server hardware identifiers, firmware, state, configuration, and connectivity
characteristics?
A. pools
B. policies
C. service profiles
D. resource groups
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
An embedded software company is considering to improve the quality of its software components to be
delivered to the integration team. After studying various experience papers that report a higher level of
quality for software components, two main alternative techniques are identified: static analysis and
dynamic analysis. In deciding which one is most applicable and how they relate to each other a detailed
study is performed. Which of the following are TWO key similarities between static analysis and dynamic
analysis? 2 credits [K4]
Number of correct answers: 2
A. Both are performed using requirements as its major input document
B. Both are usually undertaken by integration testers
C. Both are usually undertaken by development during coding and unit testing
D. Both are related to reviews
E. Both usually use a tool
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 7
Which of the following is a dynamic analysis technique related to improving application performance? 1
credit [K2]
Number of correct answers: 1
A. Code complexity analysis
B. Profiling
C. Network package sniffing
D. Spelling and grammar checking
210-451 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Definition-use pairs are identified during which of the following static analysis activities? 1 credit [K2]
Number of correct answers: 1
A. Control flow analysis
B. Data flow activities
C. Coding standards analysis
D. Cyclomatic complexity analysis
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
If we say that a set of tests has achieved 100% structural decision coverage on a particular module in a
program, what does that mean?
1 credit [K2]
Number of correct answers: 1
A. That all bugs present in that module were necessarily revealed by those tests.
B. That every control flow branch had been executed at least once by those tests.
C. That every dataflow in that module was exercised at least once by those tests.
D. That every path through that module was exercised at least once by those tests.
210-451 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
If you are flying with an economy ticket, there is a possibility that you may get upgraded to business class,
especially if you hold a gold card in the airline’s frequent flier program. If you don’t hold a gold card, there
is a possibility that you will get `bumped’ off the flight if it is full and you check in late. This is shown in the
figure hereafter. Note that each box (i.e.
statement) has been numbered.
Three tests have been run:
Test 1: Gold card holder who gets upgraded to business class
Test 2: Non-gold card holder who stays in economy
Test 3: A person who is bumped from the flight
What is the statement coverage of these three tests?2 credits [K4]
Number of correct answers: 1
A. 60%
B. 70%
C. 80%
D. 90%
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
As part of a risk analysis, technical risks are analyzed. Which TWO factors influence technical risk? 1
credit [K2]
Number of correct answers: 2
A. Complexity of technology
B. Frequency of use of the affected failure
C. Interfacing and integration issues

D. Damage to image
E. Lack of reasonable workaround
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 12
A component has been analyzed as being highly critical. Which of the following structure- based test
design techniques provides the highest level of coverage? 1 credit [K2]
Number of correct answers: 1
A. Statement testing
B. Decision testing
C. Condition determination testing
D. Multiple condition testing
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
The result of a product risk analysis performed on components I, II and III
of the airplane control system shows the following risk matrix:
The project wants to mitigate the risks by defining different types of coverage depending on the risk level of
the components. Which of the following would be a meaningful solution for setting the coverage targets?2
credits [K3]
Number of correct answers: 1
A. I: Condition determination coverage, II: Decision Coverage, III: Statement coverage
B. I: Condition determination coverage, II: Statement coverage, III: Decision coverage
C. I: Decision coverage, II: Condition determination coverage, III: Statement Coverage
D. I: Multiple condition coverage, II: Decision coverage, III: Condition determination coverage
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: 300-075
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 2 v1.0
Q&As: 377

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Question No : 34 Scenario:
There are two call control systems in this item.
The Cisco UCM is controlling the DX650, the Cisco Jabber for Windows Client, and the
7965 and 9971 Video IP Phones.
The Cisco VCS and TMS control the Cisco TelePresence Conductor, the Cisco
TelePresence MCU, and the Cisco Jabber TelePresence for Windows.
300-075 dumps

300-075 dumps

300-075 dumps

300-075 dumps

SIP Trunk:
300-075 dumps
What two tasks must be completed in order to support calls between the VCS controlled
endpoints and the Cisco Unified CM endpoints? (Choose two.)
A. Media Resource Group List.
B. Configure a SIP trunk on the Cisco Unified CM to point to the Cisco VCS.
C. Configure a neighbor zone on the Cisco Unified CM to point to the Cisco VCS.
D. Configure a SIP trunk on the Cisco VCS to point to the Cisco Unified CM.
E. Configure a neighbor zone on the Cisco VCS to point to the Cisco Unified CM.
300-075 exam 
Answer: C,D
Question No : 35 How long is the default keepalive period for SRST in Cisco 300-075 dumps IOS?
A. 45 sec
B. 30 sec
C. 60 sec
D. 120 sec
Answer: B
Question No : 36
Which three items must you configure to enable SAF Call Control Discovery? (Choose three.)
A.a calling search space
B.hosted DN patterns
C.translation patterns
D.route patterns
E.the SIP or H.323 trunk
F.hosted DN groups
300-075 pdf 
Answer: B,E,F
Reference:
Question No : 37 Which module is the minimum PVDM3 module needed to support video transcoding?
A. PVDM3-32
B. PVDM3-64
C. PVDM3-128
D. PVDM3-192
300-075  vce 
Answer: C

QUESTION: 38
Which of the following statements regarding exercise for persons with controlled
cardiovascular disease is TRUE?

A. Resistance exercise training is dangerous and should be avoided.
B. A physician-supervised exercise test is not necessary to establish exercise intensity.
C. Anginal pain is normal during exercise, and participants should be pushed through the
pain.
D. Exercise intensity should be set at an HR of 10 bpm less than the level at which
signs/symptoms were evidenced during an exercise test.
300-075 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 39
All of the following factors are important to consider when determining exercise intensity
EXCEPT
A. An individual’s level of fitness.
B. The risk of cardiovascular or orthopedic injury.
C. Any previous history participating in organized sports.
D. Individual preference and exercise objectives.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 40
When determining the intensity level, the RPE is a better indicator than percentage of
maximal HR for all of the following groups EXCEPT
A. Individuals on f3-blockers.
B. Aerobic classes that involve excessive arm movement.
C. Individuals older than 65 years.
D. Individuals involved in high-intensity exercise.
300-075 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION: 41
Using the original Borg scale, it is recommended that the exercise intensity elicit an RPE
within the range of

A. 8 to 12.
B. 12 to 16.
C. 14 to 18.
D. 6 to 10.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 42
The MINIMAL duration of exercise necessary to achieve improvements in health for
deconditioned individuals is
A. 20 minutes continuously.
B. 30 minutes continuously.
C. Multiple sessions of more than 10 minutes in duration throughout the day.
D. Two sessions of 20 minutes throughout the day.
300-075 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION: 43
Which of the following is a method of strength and power training that involves an
eccentric loading of muscles and tendons followed immediately by an explosive
concentric contraction?
A. Super sets.
B. Split routines.
C. Plyometrics.
D. Periodization.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 44
The safety of resistance exercise is dependent on all of the following except
A. Having a personal trainer.
B. Proper breathing.
C. Speed of movement.
D. Body mechanics.

300-075 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 45
The recommended muscular strength and endurance training program for apparently
healthy individuals should be
A. One set of 8 to 12 reps, 8 to 10 separate exercises, 2 days per week.
B. Two sets of six to eight reps, 8 to 10 separate exercises, 2 days per week.
C. One set of 8 to 12 reps, 8 to 10 separate exercises, 4 to 5 days per week.
D. Two sets of six to eight reps, 8 to 10 separate exercises, 4 days per week, and
alternating days for legs and upper body.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 46
Which the following statements regarding intensity of resistance training is FALSE?
A. The number of repetitions to volitional fatigue will vary inversely with resistance.
B. It is necessary to determine the 1- RM to establish training intensity.
C. Exercise to volitional fatigue is not dangerous from a musculoskeletal standpoint
provided that good exercise form is maintained.
D. Exercise intensity should be similar for males and females.
300-075 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 47
The recommended cardiorespiratory endurance exercise training program for older
individuals should be
A. 40% to 60% of maximum HR, 20 to 30 minutes continuously, 3 days per week.
B. 50% to 70% of HRR, 20 to 30 minutes (multiple sessions of 5-10 min), 3 days per
week.
C. 40% to 60% of maximum HR, 20 to 30 minutes (multiple sessions of 5-10 min), 3
days per week.
D. 50% to 70% of HRR, 20 to 30 minutes continuously, 3 days per week

300-075 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 48
Osteoporosis is more prevalent in
A. Women who have never been pregnant.
B. African-American women.
C. Women who are involved in activities that place stress on the wrists, hips, or lum
bosacral region.
D. Postmenopausal women.
 Answer: D
Section 2: Sec Two (49 to 73)
Details: Nutrition and Weight Management

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