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Exam Code: 210-451
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals
Q&As: 60

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QUESTION 1
Which option is one essential characteristic of Cloud computing?
A. It must use virtualization.
B. It must provide load balancing services.
C. It must provide on-demand self service.
D. It must run on open source software.
210-451 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Which Cloud service model is appropriate for a physical data center move to the Cloud?
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Compute as a Service
D. Software as a Service
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
What is an invalid Cloud deployment model 210-451 dumps ?
A. distributed
B. private
C. community
D. hybrid
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which two options are benefits of the Cisco InterCloud Solution? (Choose two.)
A. enforces standardization on a single hypervisor product
B. provides self service for hybrid resources
C. management of heterogeneous SAN solutions
D. secure connectivity between public and private Clouds
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 5
Which option contains server hardware identifiers, firmware, state, configuration, and connectivity
characteristics?
A. pools
B. policies
C. service profiles
D. resource groups
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
An embedded software company is considering to improve the quality of its software components to be
delivered to the integration team. After studying various experience papers that report a higher level of
quality for software components, two main alternative techniques are identified: static analysis and
dynamic analysis. In deciding which one is most applicable and how they relate to each other a detailed
study is performed. Which of the following are TWO key similarities between static analysis and dynamic
analysis? 2 credits [K4]
Number of correct answers: 2
A. Both are performed using requirements as its major input document
B. Both are usually undertaken by integration testers
C. Both are usually undertaken by development during coding and unit testing
D. Both are related to reviews
E. Both usually use a tool
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 7
Which of the following is a dynamic analysis technique related to improving application performance? 1
credit [K2]
Number of correct answers: 1
A. Code complexity analysis
B. Profiling
C. Network package sniffing
D. Spelling and grammar checking
210-451 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Definition-use pairs are identified during which of the following static analysis activities? 1 credit [K2]
Number of correct answers: 1
A. Control flow analysis
B. Data flow activities
C. Coding standards analysis
D. Cyclomatic complexity analysis
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
If we say that a set of tests has achieved 100% structural decision coverage on a particular module in a
program, what does that mean?
1 credit [K2]
Number of correct answers: 1
A. That all bugs present in that module were necessarily revealed by those tests.
B. That every control flow branch had been executed at least once by those tests.
C. That every dataflow in that module was exercised at least once by those tests.
D. That every path through that module was exercised at least once by those tests.
210-451 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
If you are flying with an economy ticket, there is a possibility that you may get upgraded to business class,
especially if you hold a gold card in the airline’s frequent flier program. If you don’t hold a gold card, there
is a possibility that you will get `bumped’ off the flight if it is full and you check in late. This is shown in the
figure hereafter. Note that each box (i.e.
statement) has been numbered.
Three tests have been run:
Test 1: Gold card holder who gets upgraded to business class
Test 2: Non-gold card holder who stays in economy
Test 3: A person who is bumped from the flight
What is the statement coverage of these three tests?2 credits [K4]
Number of correct answers: 1
A. 60%
B. 70%
C. 80%
D. 90%
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
As part of a risk analysis, technical risks are analyzed. Which TWO factors influence technical risk? 1
credit [K2]
Number of correct answers: 2
A. Complexity of technology
B. Frequency of use of the affected failure
C. Interfacing and integration issues

D. Damage to image
E. Lack of reasonable workaround
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 12
A component has been analyzed as being highly critical. Which of the following structure- based test
design techniques provides the highest level of coverage? 1 credit [K2]
Number of correct answers: 1
A. Statement testing
B. Decision testing
C. Condition determination testing
D. Multiple condition testing
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
The result of a product risk analysis performed on components I, II and III
of the airplane control system shows the following risk matrix:
The project wants to mitigate the risks by defining different types of coverage depending on the risk level of
the components. Which of the following would be a meaningful solution for setting the coverage targets?2
credits [K3]
Number of correct answers: 1
A. I: Condition determination coverage, II: Decision Coverage, III: Statement coverage
B. I: Condition determination coverage, II: Statement coverage, III: Decision coverage
C. I: Decision coverage, II: Condition determination coverage, III: Statement Coverage
D. I: Multiple condition coverage, II: Decision coverage, III: Condition determination coverage
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: 300-075
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 2 v1.0
Q&As: 377

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Question No : 34 Scenario:
There are two call control systems in this item.
The Cisco UCM is controlling the DX650, the Cisco Jabber for Windows Client, and the
7965 and 9971 Video IP Phones.
The Cisco VCS and TMS control the Cisco TelePresence Conductor, the Cisco
TelePresence MCU, and the Cisco Jabber TelePresence for Windows.
300-075 dumps

300-075 dumps

300-075 dumps

300-075 dumps

SIP Trunk:
300-075 dumps
What two tasks must be completed in order to support calls between the VCS controlled
endpoints and the Cisco Unified CM endpoints? (Choose two.)
A. Media Resource Group List.
B. Configure a SIP trunk on the Cisco Unified CM to point to the Cisco VCS.
C. Configure a neighbor zone on the Cisco Unified CM to point to the Cisco VCS.
D. Configure a SIP trunk on the Cisco VCS to point to the Cisco Unified CM.
E. Configure a neighbor zone on the Cisco VCS to point to the Cisco Unified CM.
300-075 exam 
Answer: C,D
Question No : 35 How long is the default keepalive period for SRST in Cisco 300-075 dumps IOS?
A. 45 sec
B. 30 sec
C. 60 sec
D. 120 sec
Answer: B
Question No : 36
Which three items must you configure to enable SAF Call Control Discovery? (Choose three.)
A.a calling search space
B.hosted DN patterns
C.translation patterns
D.route patterns
E.the SIP or H.323 trunk
F.hosted DN groups
300-075 pdf 
Answer: B,E,F
Reference:
Question No : 37 Which module is the minimum PVDM3 module needed to support video transcoding?
A. PVDM3-32
B. PVDM3-64
C. PVDM3-128
D. PVDM3-192
300-075  vce 
Answer: C

QUESTION: 38
Which of the following statements regarding exercise for persons with controlled
cardiovascular disease is TRUE?

A. Resistance exercise training is dangerous and should be avoided.
B. A physician-supervised exercise test is not necessary to establish exercise intensity.
C. Anginal pain is normal during exercise, and participants should be pushed through the
pain.
D. Exercise intensity should be set at an HR of 10 bpm less than the level at which
signs/symptoms were evidenced during an exercise test.
300-075 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 39
All of the following factors are important to consider when determining exercise intensity
EXCEPT
A. An individual’s level of fitness.
B. The risk of cardiovascular or orthopedic injury.
C. Any previous history participating in organized sports.
D. Individual preference and exercise objectives.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 40
When determining the intensity level, the RPE is a better indicator than percentage of
maximal HR for all of the following groups EXCEPT
A. Individuals on f3-blockers.
B. Aerobic classes that involve excessive arm movement.
C. Individuals older than 65 years.
D. Individuals involved in high-intensity exercise.
300-075 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION: 41
Using the original Borg scale, it is recommended that the exercise intensity elicit an RPE
within the range of

A. 8 to 12.
B. 12 to 16.
C. 14 to 18.
D. 6 to 10.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 42
The MINIMAL duration of exercise necessary to achieve improvements in health for
deconditioned individuals is
A. 20 minutes continuously.
B. 30 minutes continuously.
C. Multiple sessions of more than 10 minutes in duration throughout the day.
D. Two sessions of 20 minutes throughout the day.
300-075 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION: 43
Which of the following is a method of strength and power training that involves an
eccentric loading of muscles and tendons followed immediately by an explosive
concentric contraction?
A. Super sets.
B. Split routines.
C. Plyometrics.
D. Periodization.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 44
The safety of resistance exercise is dependent on all of the following except
A. Having a personal trainer.
B. Proper breathing.
C. Speed of movement.
D. Body mechanics.

300-075 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 45
The recommended muscular strength and endurance training program for apparently
healthy individuals should be
A. One set of 8 to 12 reps, 8 to 10 separate exercises, 2 days per week.
B. Two sets of six to eight reps, 8 to 10 separate exercises, 2 days per week.
C. One set of 8 to 12 reps, 8 to 10 separate exercises, 4 to 5 days per week.
D. Two sets of six to eight reps, 8 to 10 separate exercises, 4 days per week, and
alternating days for legs and upper body.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 46
Which the following statements regarding intensity of resistance training is FALSE?
A. The number of repetitions to volitional fatigue will vary inversely with resistance.
B. It is necessary to determine the 1- RM to establish training intensity.
C. Exercise to volitional fatigue is not dangerous from a musculoskeletal standpoint
provided that good exercise form is maintained.
D. Exercise intensity should be similar for males and females.
300-075 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 47
The recommended cardiorespiratory endurance exercise training program for older
individuals should be
A. 40% to 60% of maximum HR, 20 to 30 minutes continuously, 3 days per week.
B. 50% to 70% of HRR, 20 to 30 minutes (multiple sessions of 5-10 min), 3 days per
week.
C. 40% to 60% of maximum HR, 20 to 30 minutes (multiple sessions of 5-10 min), 3
days per week.
D. 50% to 70% of HRR, 20 to 30 minutes continuously, 3 days per week

300-075 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 48
Osteoporosis is more prevalent in
A. Women who have never been pregnant.
B. African-American women.
C. Women who are involved in activities that place stress on the wrists, hips, or lum
bosacral region.
D. Postmenopausal women.
 Answer: D
Section 2: Sec Two (49 to 73)
Details: Nutrition and Weight Management

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Exam Code: 100-105
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Q&As: 332

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Question No : 1 – (Topic 1) Refer to the exhibit.100-105 dumps

Mary is sending an instant message to Robert. The message will be broken into a series of
packets that will traverse all network devices. What addresses will populate these packets
as they are forwarded from Router1 to Router2?
100-105 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Source and Destination IP address is not going to change. Host 1 IP address will stay
as being the source IP and the Host 2 IP address will stay the destination IP address.
Those two are not going to change.
For the MAC address it is going to change each time it goes from one hope to another.
(Except switches… they don’t change anything)
Frame leaving HOST 1 is going to have a source MAC of Host 1 and a destination MAC of
Router 1.
Router 1 is going to strip that info off and then will make the source MAC address of
Router1’s exiting interface, and making Router2’s interface as the destination MAC
address.
Then the same will happen… Router2 100-105 exam is going to change the source/destination info to the

source MAC being the Router2 interface that it is going out, and the destination will be
Host2’s MAC address.

Question No : 2 – (Topic 1) A workstation has just resolved a browser URL to the IP address of a server. What protocol will the workstation now use to determine the destination MAC address to be placed into
frames directed toward the server?
A. HTTP
B. DNS
C. DHCP
D. RARP
E. ARP
Answer: E
Explanation:
The RARP protocol is used to translate hardware interface addresses to protocol
addresses. The RARP message format is very similar to the ARP format. When the booting
computer sends the broadcast ARP request, it places its own hardware address in both the
sending and receiving fields in the encapsulated ARP data packet. The RARP server will fill
in the correct sending and receiving IP addresses in its response to the message. This way
the booting computer will know its IP address when it gets the message from the RARP
server

Question No : 3 – (Topic 1) Which protocol uses a connection-oriented service to deliver files between end systems?
A. TFTP
B. DNS
C. FTP
D. SNMP
E. RIP
Answer: C
Explanation:
TCP is an example of a connection-oriented protocol. It requires a logical connection to be
established between the two processes before data is exchanged. The connection must be
maintained during the entire time that communication is taking place, then released
afterwards. The 100-105 dumps process is much like a telephone call, where a virtual circuit is established-the caller must know the person’s telephone number and the phone must be answered–
before the message can be delivered.
TCP/IP is also a connection-oriented transport with orderly release. With orderly release,
any data remaining in the buffer is sent before the connection is terminated. The release is
accomplished in a three-way handshake between client and server processes. The
connection-oriented protocols in the OSI protocol suite, on the other hand, do not support
orderly release. Applications perform any handshake necessary for ensuring orderly
release. Examples of services that use connection-oriented transport services are telnet, rlogin, and
ftp.

Question No : 4 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
If the hubs in the graphic were replaced by switches, what would be virtually eliminated?
A. broadcast domains
B. repeater domains
C. Ethernet collisions
D. signal amplification
E. Ethernet broadcasts
Answer: C
Explanation:
Modern wired networks use a network switch to eliminate collisions. By connecting each
device directly to a port on the switch, either each port on a switch becomes its own
collision domain (in the case of half duplex links) or the possibility of collisions is eliminated
entirely in the case of full duplex links.

QUESTION 5
Adenosine triphosphate production via “anaerobic” glycolysis is associated with the significant formation of what by-product?
A. Pyruvic Acid
B. Phosphoric Acid
C. Citric Acid
D. Lactic Acid
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
The changes in muscle size associated with long-term resistance training is most likely due to increases in
_____.
A. muscle fiber cross-sectional diameter.

B. muscle fiber number.
C. connective tissue thickness.
D. hydration state of the muscle.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Downhill walking/jogging/running is characterized by eccentric activation of which of the following muscle groups?
A. Hamstrings
B. Gastrocnemius
C. Brachioradialis
D. Quadriceps femoris
100-105  vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
What is the typical resting blood pressure response to long term aerobic exercise in a hypertensive
individual?
A. Both systolic and diastolic pressures will increase.
B. Both systolic and diastolic pressures will decrease.
C. Systolic will increase, while diastolic will remain unchanged.
D. Systolic will decrease, while diastolic will remain unchanged.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
How does heart rate increase in relation to work rate and oxygen uptake during dynamic exercise?
A. Exponentially
B. Linearly
C. Curvilinearly
D. Inversely
100-105  exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which cardiovascular training approach, if repeated frequently, is most likely going to lead to overtraining?
A. One intensive day followed by three easy days.
B. One long day followed by three shorter duration days.
C. Two consecutive intensive days, followed by one easy day.
D. A medium intensive day followed by two easy days.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
What feature is unique to skeletal muscle as compared to cardiac muscle?
A. Absence of striations
B. Presence of branching
C. Requires nervous system stimulation
D. Presence of intercalated disks
100-105  dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
What is the correct path of blood flow through the chambers of the heart?
A. Left ventricle; left atrium; right atrium; right ventricle.
B. Right ventricle; right atrium; left atrium; left ventricle.
C. Left atrium; right atrium; left ventricle; right ventricle.
D. Right atrium; right ventricle; left atrium; left ventricle.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
What respiratory muscles can cause forceful expiration?
A. External intercostals
B. Pectoralis minor
C. Sternocleidomastoid
D. Internal intercostals
100-105  pdf Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Updated: Sep 22, 2017
Q&As: 85

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QUESTION 39
What refers to relatively expensive items that will be used over a long period?
A. Supplies
B. Taxes
C. Assets
D. Equipments
200-155 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 40
What is relatively costly item that allow the organization to deliver service over time?
A. Equipment
B. Supplies
C. Noncurrent asset
D. Current asset
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 41
Noncurrent assets require special management attention because of their liquidity and transportability,
current assets require special attention because of their cost and extensive time horizon it takes to plan,
acquire and manage them.
A. True
B. False
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
Assets limited to use, long-term investments, property and equipment are all categories of:
A. Current assets
B. Account investments
C. Noncurrent assets
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 43
is a measure of how much a tangible asset (such as plant or equipment) has been used up or consumed.
A. Depreciation
B. Equity
C. Retail cost
D. None of the above
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
The total amount of depreciation taken on as asset since it was put into use is called:
A. Approved Depreciation
B. Accumulated Depreciation
C. Accounted Depreciation

D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
What are the financial obligations that, due to their contractual terms, will be paid within one year?
A. Current assets
B. Current liabilities
C. Current financial reviews
D. Current payors
200-155 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
Estimated third party payor settlements are the category of?
A. Current assets
B. Current Equity
C. Current Expenses
D. Current liabilities
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 47
Which are the obligations to pay suppliers who have sold the health care organization goods or services
on credit?
A. Account suppliers
B. Account payable
C. Account receivable
D. Accrued Account
200-155 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 48
Accrued expenses are the liabilities and are reflected in the balance sheet.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 49
For not-for-profit health care providers, the net assets section of the balance sheet is analogous to the
owner’s equity section of a for-profit organization’s statement of cash flow.
A. True
B. False
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 50
Stockholders equity for investors-owned organizations represents:
A. Stock and retained earnings
B. Stock and accrual earnings
C. Stock and sales

D. Stock and purchase
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 51
Which of the following in NOT the body of the income statement for investors-owned health care
organizations?
A. Operating income
B. Non-operating income
C. Income for taxes
D. Excess of revenues
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
Which of the following in NOT the body of the statement of operations for non-for-profit health care
organizations?
A. Operating income
B. Non-operating income
C. Net income
D. Excess of revenues
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 53
uses the accrual basis of accounting, which summarizes how much the organization earned and the
resources it used to generate that income during a period of time.
A. Balance sheet
B. Non-operating income
C. Statement of operations
D. Accounting system for income
200-155 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 54
Revenues represent amounts earned by the organization would, not the amount of it received during the
period.
A. Cash
B. Credit
C. Revenue
D. Expense
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 55
Premium revenues are the revenues earned from capitated contracts which are not earned solely through
the delivery of service but rather through a passage of time.
A. True
B. False
200-155 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 56
Which are a measure of the amount of resources used or consumed in providing a service, not cash-out
flows?
A. Operating income
B. Credit
C. Revenue
D. Expense
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
Income derived from the organization’s main line of business is called:
A. Depreciated income
B. Operative income
C. Net income
D. None of the above
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 58
The allocation of the acquisition cost of debt to the period which it benefits refers to:
A. Depreciated income
B. Accrual expense
C. Net income
D. Amortization
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 59
Bad debt expense is:
A. the estimate of patient accounts payables that will not be collected.
B. the estimate of patient accounts receivables that will be collected.
C. the estimate of patient accounts receivables that will not be collected.
D. the estimate of patient accounts payables that will be collected.
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 60
Working capital is:
A. Current assets and current liabilities
B. Current expenses and current revenues
C. Expected assets and expected liabilities
D. Expected expenses and expected revenues
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 61
The difference between current assets and current liabilities is called:
A. Net accounting gain
B. Net expenditure
C. Net working capital
D. Net profit

200-155 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 62
Which of the following is NOT the phase of the working capital cycle?
A. Obtaining cash
B. Turning cash into resources
C. Resources are restricted to be used seldom
D. Billing patients for the services and collecting revenues
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
How much extra working capital an organization determines it must keep as a cushion is called its:
A. Obtaining cash strategy
B. Working capital strategy
C. Financing mix strategy
D. Billing strategy
200-155 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 64
A strategy that refers to how an organization chooses to finance its working capital needs is called:
A. Asset mix
B. Aggressive mix
C. Conservative mix
D. Financing mix
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 65
A health care organization that utilizes an aggressive asset mix strategy seeks to minimize its returns by
investing in non-liquid assets but faces the risk of lower liquidity.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: CAS-002
Exam Name: CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP)
Updated: Sep 12, 2017
Q&As: 532

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QUESTION 29
A software project manager has been provided with a requirement from the customer to place limits on the
types of transactions a given user can initiate without external interaction from another user with elevated
privileges. This requirement is BEST described as an cas-002 simulations implementation of:
A. an administrative control
B. dual control
C. separation of duties
D. least privilege
E. collusion
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 30
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is asking for ways to protect against zero-day exploits. The
CISO is concerned that an unrecognized threat could compromise corporate data and result in regulatory
fines as well as poor corporate publicity. The network is mostly flat, with split staff/guest wireless
functionality. Which of the following equipment MUST be deployed to guard against unknown threats?
A. Cloud-based antivirus solution, running as local admin, with push technology for definition updates.
B. Implementation of an offsite data center hosting all company data, as well as deployment of VDI for all
client computing needs.
C. Host based heuristic IPS, segregated on a management VLAN, with direct control of the perimeter
firewall ACLs.
D. Behavior based IPS with a communication link to a cloud based vulnerability and threat feed.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 31
An CAS-002 dumps organization is concerned with potential data loss in the event of a disaster, and created a backup datacenter as a mitigation strategy. The current storage method is a single NAS used by all servers in both datacenters. Which of the following options increases data availability in the event of a datacenter failure?
A. Replicate NAS changes to the tape backups at the other datacenter.
B. Ensure each server has two HBAs connected through two routes to the NAS.
C. Establish deduplication across diverse storage paths.
D. Establish a SAN that replicates between datacenters.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 32
A security administrator wants to prevent sensitive data residing on corporate laptops and desktops from
leaking outside of the corporate network. The company has already implemented full-disk encryption and
has disabled all peripheral devices on its desktops and laptops. Which of the following additional controls
MUST be implemented to minimize the risk of data leakage? (Select TWO).
A. A full-system backup should be implemented to a third-party provider with strong encryption for data in
transit.
B. A DLP gateway should be installed at the company border.
C. Strong authentication should be implemented via external biometric devices.
D. Full-tunnel VPN should be required for all network communication.
E. Full-drive file hashing should be implemented with hashes stored on separate storage.
F. Split-tunnel VPN should be enforced when transferring sensitive data.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
QUESTION 33
An organization would like to allow employees to use their network username and password to access a
third-party service. The company is using Active Directory Federated Services for their CAS-002 pdf directory service. Which of the following should the company ensure is supported by the third-party? (Select TWO).
A. LDAP/S
B. SAML
C. NTLM
D. OAUTH
E. Kerberos
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
QUESTION 34
A mature organization with legacy information systems has incorporated numerous new processes and
dependencies to manage security as its networks and infrastructure are modernized. The Chief
Information Office has become increasingly frustrated with frequent releases, stating that the organization
needs everything to work completely, and the vendor should already have those desires built into the
software product. The CAS-002 dumps vendor has been in constant communication with personnel and groups within the organization to understand its business process and capture new software requirements from users. Which of the following methods of software development is this organization’s configuration management
process using?
A. Agile
B. SDL
C. Waterfall
D. Joint application development
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 35
Joe, a hacker, has discovered he can specifically craft a webpage that when viewed in a browser crashes
the browser and then allows him to gain remote code execution in the context of the victim’s privilege level.
The browser crashes due to an exception error when a heap memory that is unused is accessed. Which of
the following BEST describes the application issue?
A. Integer overflow
B. Click-jacking
C. Race condition
D. SQL injection
E. Use after free
F. Input validation
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
QUESTION 36
A forensic analyst works for an e-discovery firm where several gigabytes of data are processed daily.
While the business is lucrative, they do not have the resources or the CAS-002 pdf scalability to adequately serve their clients. Since it is an e-discovery firm where chain of custody is important, which of the following scenarios should they consider?
A. Offload some data processing to a public cloud
B. Aligning their client intake with the resources available
C. Using a community cloud with adequate controls
D. Outsourcing the service to a third party cloud provider
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 37
select id, firstname, lastname from authors
User input= firstname= Hack;man
lastname=Johnson
Which of the following types of attacks is the user attempting?
A. XML injection
B. Command injection
C. Cross-site scripting
D. SQL injection
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 38
A network administrator with a company’s NSP has received a CERT alert for targeted adversarial
behavior at the company. In addition to the company’s physical security, which of the following can the
network administrator use to detect the presence of a malicious actor physically accessing the company’s
network or information systems from within? (Select TWO).
A. RAS

B. Vulnerability scanner
C. HTTP intercept
D. HIDS
E. Port scanner
F. Protocol analyzer
cas-002 simulationsCorrect Answer: DF
Explanation
QUESTION 39
A software development manager is taking over an existing software development project. The team
currently suffers from poor communication due to a long delay between requirements documentation and
feature delivery. This gap is resulting in an above average number of security-related bugs making it into
production. Which of the following development methodologies is the team MOST likely using now?
A. Agile
B. Waterfall
C. Scrum
D. Spiral
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 40
Which of the following BEST constitutes the basis for protecting VMs from attacks from other VMs hosted
on the same physical platform?
A. Aggressive patch management on the host and guest OSs.
B. Host based IDS sensors on all guest OSs.
C. Different antivirus solutions between the host and guest OSs.
D. Unique Network Interface Card (NIC) assignment per guest OS.
CAS-002 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 41
The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of a company that allows telecommuting has challenged the Chief
Security Officer’s (CSO) request to harden the corporate network’s perimeter. The CEO argues that the
company cannot protect its employees at home, so the risk at work is no different. Which of the following
BEST explains why this company should proceed with protecting its corporate network boundary?
A. The corporate network is the only network that is audited by regulators and customers.
B. The aggregation of employees on a corporate network makes it a more valuable target for attackers.
C. Home networks are unknown to attackers and less likely to be targeted directly.
D. Employees are more likely to be using personal computers for general web browsing when they are at
home.
CAS-002 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT v2.0)
Updated: Sep 09, 2017
Q&As: 118

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Question Set 1
QUESTION 1
Exhibit:
300-135 dumps

A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RouterA, IP address 10.1.2.1, and RouterB, IP address 10.1.2.2. Given the debug
output on RouterA, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.
B. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
C. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.
D. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
E. RouterA will form an adjacency with RouterB.
F. RouterA will not form an adjacency with RouterB.
300-135 
Correct Answer: DF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two
routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
300-135 dumps

How would you confirm on R1 300-135 dumps that load balancing is actually occurring on the default-network (0.0.0.0)?
A. Use ping and the show ip route command to confirm the timers for each default network resets to 0.
B. Load balancing does not occur over default networks; the second route will only be used for failover.
C. Use an extended ping along with repeated show ip route commands to confirm the gateway of last resort address toggles back and forth.
D. Use the traceroute command to an address that is not explicitly in the routing table.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which IPsec mode will encrypt a GRE tunnel to provide multiprotocol support and reduced overhead?
A. 3DES
B. multipoint GRE
C. tunnel
D. transport

Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which three features are benefits of using GRE tunnels in conjunction with IPsec for building site-to-site VPNs? (Choose three.)
A. allows dynamic routing over the tunnel
B. supports multi-protocol (non-IP) traffic over the tunnel
C. reduces IPsec headers overhead since tunnel mode is used
D. simplifies the ACL used in the crypto map
E. uses Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) to simplify the IPsec VPN configuration
300-135 pdf 
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which statement is true about an IPsec/GRE tunnel?
A. The GRE tunnel source and destination addresses are specified within the IPsec transform set.
B. An IPsec/GRE tunnel must use IPsec tunnel mode.
C. GRE encapsulation occurs before the IPsec encryption process.
D. Crypto map ACL is not needed to match which traffic will be protected.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
The default hide drive behavior is set to “Hide all drives unless otherwise specified” and all other settings
are left at their default settings. Why would one of the user’s drives still be visible?
A. Because it is a USB drive
B. Because it is a home drive
C. Because it is a drive substitute
D. Because it is a DVD-ROM drive
300-135 tshoot dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
You created a new RES Workspace Manager 2012 environment and enabled the option `Cache locally
unless otherwise specified’ at Global level.
Where will the user settings be saved during the session for users that log on to a terminal server session?
A. %homedrive%\Personal Settings\UserPref.
B. %homedrive%\Pwrmenu\UserPref.
C. %localappdata%\RES\WM\UserPref.
D. %userprofile%\Local setinngs\Application Data\RES\WM\UserPref.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
The environment is using the Relay Server. How can an administrator accomplish a direct database
connection with an individual RES Workspace Manager Agent?
A. Block the Relay Server in the firewall.
B. Use the `Datastore connection’ option in the .Connections’ tab of the RES Workspace Manager Agent.
C. Change the config.xml
D. Set the option `Connect directly to the Datastore’ on the Agents node.
300-135 tshoot Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Scope Control is used to
A. Configure to which users a certain application is available.
B. Configure to which users a certain Action setting is applied.
C. Define which nodes are available to a user with access to a certain Administrative Role.
D. Define which Workspace Manager objects are available to a user with access to a certain
Administrative Role.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
An administrator has configured User Settings for a specific application to track registry and files. At
application level, the User Setting is enabled. Start tracking changes is configured to track changes
immediately.
However, no changes are being preserved for users of the application. Which of the following could be the
cause of this problem?
1. Sampling mode is disabled.
2. User Settings is disabled at global level.
3. “Preserve” and “Apply” are both checked.
4. “Allow users to restore their own settings” is disabled

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 4 only
300-135 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
What can be used to generate files for the Workspace Designer?
1. User Settings Sampling Mode
2. Desktop Sampler
3. Baseline Desktop Analyzer
4. Instant Reports
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 4
D. 3 and 4
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
The “Comments” that can be specified when assigning Application Managers to an application is displayed
to the
A. End user when the application is started.
B. End user when access to the application is requested.
C. Application Manager when users are assigned to the application
D. Application Manager when information about the application is viewed.
300-135 tshoot dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
An international Terminal Server farm centrally based in New York has users with different languages
working on it. The best way to create a language-dynamic Start Menu is to base it on
1. Zones.
2. Language Packs.
3. Keyboard mappings.
4. Environment Variables.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15 Which entry is recorded in the Audit Trail 300-135 tshoot ?
A. Granted access
B. Locked account
C. Security warning
D. Actions error
Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: 70-533
Exam Name: Implementing Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Solutions
Updated: Sep 02, 2017
Q&As: 205

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QUESTION 16
You plan to deploy a 70-533 dumps cloud service named contosoapp that has a web role named contosoweb and a worker role named contosoimagepurge.
You need to ensure the service meets the following requirements:
Contosoweb can be accessed over the Internet by using http.
Contosoimagepurge can only be accessed through tcp port 5001 from contosoweb.
Contosoimagepurge cannot be accessed directly over the Internet.
Which configuration should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate configuration setting to the correct
location in the service configuration file. Each configuration setting may be used once, more than once, or
not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
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Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 17
Your development team has created a new solution that is deployed in a virtual network named
fabDevVNet.
Your testing team wants to begin testing the solution in a second Azure subscription.
You need to create a virtual network named fabTestVNet that is identical to fabDevVNet. You want to
achieve this goal by using the least amount of administrative effort.
Which three steps should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list
of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 18
You manage an Azure subscription.
You develop a storage plan with the following requirements:
Database backup files that are generated once per year are retained for ten years.
High performance system telemetry logs are created constantly and processed for analysis every month.
In the table below, identify the storage redundancy type that must be used. Make only one selection in
each column.
Hot Area:
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QUESTION 19
You publish a multi-tenant application named MyApp to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).
You need to ensure that only directory administrators from the other organizations can access MyApp’s
web API.
How should you configure MyApp’s manifest JSON file? To answer, drag the appropriate
PowerShell command to the correct location in the application’s manifest JSON file. Each value may be
used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to
view content.
Select and Place:
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QUESTION 20
You manage an Azure Web Site for a consumer-product company.
The website runs in Standard mode on a single medium instance.
You expect increased traffic to the website due to an upcoming sale during a holiday weekend.
You need to ensure that the website performs optimally when user activity is at its highest.
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QUESTION: 21
What is the best test to help determine ejection fraction at rest and during exercise?
A. Angiography.

B. Thallium stress test.
C. Single-proton emission computer tomography.
D. MUGA (blood pool imagery) study.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 22
A “cold spot” detected in the inferior portion of the left ventricle during a stress test that
resolves 3 hours later most likely indicates
A. An old inferior MI.
B. A MI that is healing.
C. Reversible myocardial ischemia.
D. The need for multiple bypass surgery.
70-533 vce Answer: C
QUESTION: 23
What is the best test of cardiovascular function for a client who is obese, has claudication
in the legs, and has limited mobility because of neurologic damage from uncontrolled
diabetes?
A. Dipyridamole or dobutamine testing and assessment of cardiovascular variables.
B. Discontinuous treadmill exercise test.
C. Resting echocardiography.
D. Continuous submaximal cycle ergometer test.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 24
Although 12-lead testing is the optimal 70-533 dumps ECG configuration, if only one lead can be used,
which one should it be?
A. Lead II.
B. Lead AV
L.
C. Lead V5
D. Lead V1
Answer: C
QUESTION: 25
Which of the following is an indication for terminating an exercise test?
A. The client requests test termination.
B. The respiratory exchange rate exceeds 0.95.
C. The maximal heart rate exceeds 200 bpm.
D. The RPE exceeds 17 on the standard scale.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 26
Given the sensitivity of the exercise ECG, stress testing conducted on 100 cardiac
rehabilitation clients with documented CAD would be expected to produce what results?
A. All 100 clients show ECG indicators of CAD.
B. Approximately 50 clients show ECG indicators of CAD.
C. Approximately 30 clients would show ECG indicators of CAD.
D. Approximately 70 clients would show ECG indicators of CAD.
70-533 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 27
What action should you take for a 55-year-old client who has three risk factors for heart
disease and complains of fatigue on exertion?
A. Conduct a submaximal stress test without the presence of a physician.
B. Conduct a maximal diagnostic stress test in the presence of a physician.
C. Use a questionnaire to evaluate activity, and do not conduct a test.
D. Start the client exercising slowly, and test after 6 weeks.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 28
Which two public methods must be implemented in a functional custom shipping method directly
extending Mage_Shipping_Model_Carrier_Abstract and also implementing
Mage_Shipping_Model_Carrier_Interface? (Choose two)
A. collectRates()
B. getAllowedMethods()
C. isTrackingAvailable()
D. isFixed()
E. getConfigData()
F. checkAvailableShipCountries()
70-533 pdf Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 29
Which of the following is the default setup script class name?
A. Mage_Core_Model_Mysql4_Setup
B. Mage_Core_Model_Resource_Setup_Default
C. Mage_Setup_Model_Resource_Default
D. Mage Core Model Resource Setup
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 30
You need to implement private sales utilizing Website Restrictions as provided by the Enterprise
Edition of Magento, and when customers are not logged in, you want them to be redirected to a
landing page. Where in the Magento admin would you find the settings needed for this task?

A. System -> Configuration -> Enterprise -> Website Restrictions
B. System -> Configuration -> General -> Website Restrictions
C. System -> Manage Stores -> Edit Website
D. System -> Permissions -> Website Restrictions
70-533 vce Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 31
Assume that PayPal has presented a new API for online purchasing that you are going to use.
Which class should you extend for doing that?
A. Mage_Sales_Model_Quote_Payment
B. Mage_Payment_Model_lnfo
C. Mage_Payment_Model_Method_Abstract
D. Mage_Sales_Model_Order_Payment
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 32
To update your order 70-533 dumps information from a third-party system using an XmlRpc call, you should
A. Use the native sales_order.update API call with the url /api/xmlrpc/
B. Create a custom API resource which allows you to receive XmlRpc requests
C. Create a custom API adapter to receive XmlRpc requests
D. Create a custom API handler to process XmlRpc requests
Answer: A
Explanation:

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Exam Code: 070-489
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Advanced Solutions
Updated: Aug 10, 2017
Q&As: 97

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1. Which GVP software component is used to configure the various components of GVP including
application provisioning?
A. Element Management Provisioning System
B. IP Call Manager
C. Voice Application Reporter
D. Genesys Studio
070-489 exam Answer: A
2. Which GVP application is used to build and test voice applications?
A. Element Management Provisioning System
B. IP Call Manager
C. Voice Application Reporter
D. Genesys Studio
Answer: D
3. Which version of the VoiceXML Specification does GVP version 7.5 support?
A. VoiceXML 1.0
B. VoiceXML 1.1
C. VoiceXML 2.0
D. VoiceXML 3.0
070-489 dumps Answer: C
4. The GVP VoiceXML application logic resides on .
A. a web server
B. the VCS
C. the VPM
D. the IPCM
Answer: A
5. How are VoiceXML pages produced during a GVP call session?
A. Web application server generates VoiceXML when processing asp or jsp pages
B. VCS or IPCS produce VoiceXML when the call is initiated
C. EMPS produces VoiceXML when the request comes in
D. IPCS creates the VoiceXML when it relays SIP messages
070-489 pdf Answer: A
6. The Voice Communication Server (VCS) processes calls.
A. VoIP
B. IPCS
C. Web-based GUI
D. TDM
Answer: D
7. The Internet Protocol Communication Server (IPCS) processes calls.

A. SIP
B. HTML
C. TDM D.
EMPS
070-489 vce Answer: A
8. The Internet Protocol Communication Server (IPCS) processes calls.
A. SIP
B. HTML
C. TDM D.
EMPS
Answer: A
9. A Primary Voice Application URL is required when provisioning the IVR Profile. The Primary Voice
Application CANNOT include .
A. the fully qualified name of the web server that hosts the application
B. the numeric IP address of the web server that hosts the application
C. the name of the first page of the voice application
D. the path to the <Application Name>.XML file
070-489 exam Answer: D
10. Refer to the CTI Property tab in the Provisioning IVR profile section in the EMPS. The Default Route
Number is used when .
A. IVR Server is unable to contact the Solution Control Interface (SCI)
B. IVR Server is unable to contact the Universal Routing Server (URS), or when the URS is unable to
find an agent number to which it can route the call
C. IVR component, specifically Genesys Queue Adapter (GQA), cannot communicate with SCS.
D. IVR Server component cannot communicate with the Web Server
Answer: B
11.The <DNIS>.XML and <Application_Name>.xml files are generated when .
A. a call arrives at the VCS
B. an application is created and configured in EMPS
C. the WatchDog on the EMPS is restarted
D. requested by the IVR Server
070-489 dumps Answer: B
12. The <Application_Name>.xml files provides all of the .
A. VCS configuration information
B. voice application information
C. IPCS configuration information
D. web server configuration information
Answer: B
13. The DNIS.xml provides .
A. the Primary Application URL
B. all application configuration information but no process information
C. the address of the IVR Server
D. the URL path to the <Application_Name>.XML
070-489 pdf Answer: D
14. Where is the default location of the DNIS Application Mapping Files?
A. <install dir>\CN\data
B. <install dir>\CN\web\dispenser\spd_data
C. <install dir>\CN\config
D. http://EMPS:9810/spm
Answer: B
15. In the <Application_Name>.xml file, the IVRTimeout value determines .
A. how long URS waits for the response from web server before timing out and trying default routing
target.
B. how long VCS/IPCS waits for the response from web server before timing out and attempting to reach
the Backup IVR URL.
C. how long GQA waits for the connection with the IVR Server before using the Backup IVR URL.
D. how long VCS/IPCS waits for the response from web server before timing out and attempting to reach
the Primary IVR URL.
070-489 vce Answer: B
16. Which of the following features can be changed using the Element Management System (EMS) GUI
when monitoring a VCS?
A. the log level for each process
B. the default directory for logging
C. the Behind or In-Front configuration for that particular VCS
D. the speech recognition vendor for that particular VCS
Answer: A
17.When would you use the Import Server Instance CSV feature in EMPS?
A. Never. This feature is not available through the EMPS
B. Any time you want to make a change to any of the parameters in EMPS
C. You want to start the Watchdog service
D. When numerous changes are needed with servers or configuration of various components for a
server and in conjunction with Genesys Technical Support
070-489 exam Answer: D
18. Under what circumstances is a username and password required to access the EMPS?
A. Never. By default, a username and password is not required since EMPS is only used for monitoring
purposes.
B. Always. When opening EMPS Login screen, the system will require users enter their username and

password.
C. Only when the EMPS is being accessed from a remote workstation. You are automatically
authenticated and can log in from a local machine.
D. Only when using SunOne Directory Server because OpenLDAP has no built-in security for the EMPS
login screen.
Answer: B
19. The ability to record the caller’s speech for application analysis is configured in an IVR Profile within
the EMPS and is referred to as .
A. OA&M
B. EMS Runtime
C. Enable ASR Transcoding
D. Enable ASR Logging
070-489 dumps Answer: D
20.The process on the VCS/IPCS that starts the other component processes is the .
A. Page Collector
B. IVR Server Client C.
Call Flow Assistant D.
WatchDog
Answer: D
21.Which VCS/IPCS component controls the TDM telephony or IP Telephony interfaces?
A. PopGateway
B. Page Collector
C. MRCP Client
D. Net Management
070-489 pdf Answer: A
22. Which of the following are Windows prerequisites for VCS?
A. there are no Windows prerequisites
B. Active Directory
C. IIS and SNMP
D. SQL Server
Answer: C

23. A logical group of ports is referred to as a .
A. Telephony Manager
B. Route
C. Page Collector
D. MRCP Client
070-489 vce Answer: B

24. For most deployments with VCS configured in Behind-the-Switch mode using Genesys Framework,
DNIS is obtained through what mechanism?
A. VCS request to the T-Server via IVR Server
B. VCS requests to the Dialogic telephony board
C. a route point corresponding to the appropriate strategy
D. VCS request directly to the ACD/PBX
Answer: A

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[Ensure Pass Dumps Exam From Google Drive] Free Microsoft Tutorials for High Quality Microsoft Configuring Advanced 70-412 Dumps PDF with The Help of Exam Youtube Study

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Exam Code: 70-412
Exam Name: Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
Updated: Aug 04, 2017
Q&As: 424

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70-412 dumps

Pass4itsure  Latest and Most Accurate 70-412 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 22
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains an
enterprise certification authority (CA).
The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You install the Active
Directory Federation Services server role on Server1.
You plan to configure Server1 as an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) server.
The Federation Service name will be set to adfs1.contoso.com.
You need to identify which type of certificate template you must use to request a certificate for AD FS.
Hot Area:
70-412 dumps

70-412 exam Correct Answer:

70-412 dumps

QUESTION 23
HOTSPOT
Your network contains two application servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The application servers
have the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature installed.
You create an NLB cluster that contains the two servers.
You plan to deploy an application named App1 to the nodes in the cluster. App1 uses TCP port 8080 and
TCP port 8081.
Clients will connect to App1 by using HTTP and HTTPS via a single reverse proxy. App1 does not use
session state information.
You need to configure a port rule for Appl. The solution must ensure that connections to App1 are
distributed evenly between the nodes.
Which port rule should you use?
To answer, select the appropriate rule in the answer area.
Hot Area:
70-412 dumps

70-412 dumps

Correct Answer:
70-412 dumps

70-412 dumps

QUESTION 24
DRAG DROP
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains three
servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.

70-412 dumps

70-412 dumps  Server1 is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-412 dumps

Template1 contains custom cryptography settings that are required by the corporate security team.
On Server2, an administrator successfully installs a certificate based on Template1.
The administrator reports that Template1 is not listed in the Certificate Enrollment wizard on Server3, even
after selecting the Show all templates check box.
You need to ensure that you can install a server authentication certificate on Server3. The certificate must
comply with the cryptography requirements.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence?
To answer, move the appropriate three actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange
them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
70-412 dumps

Correct Answer:
70-412 dumps

QUESTION 25
HOTSPOT
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 and Server2 have the Hyper-V server role installed.
Server1 and Server2 have different processor models from the same manufacturer.
On Server1, you plan to create a virtual machine named VM1. Eventually, VM1 will be exported to Server2.
You need to ensure that when you import VM1 to Server2, you can start VM1 from saved snapshots.
What should you configure on VM1?
To answer, select the appropriate node in the answer area.
Hot Area:
70-412 dumps

Correct Answer:
70-412 dumps

QUESTION: 26
Explain how flowcharts can be constructed to identify and highlight the non-value added
steps in a process.

70-412 pdf Answer:

70-412 dumps

QUESTION: 27
Explain the relationship between Y = f(X) and a flowchart in respect to Six Sigma
management.

Answer:
As you can see from the following figure, CTQ1= f(X1, X2, X3, X4, X5) and CTQ
2= f(X1, X2, X3, X4, X5)

QUESTION: 28
Explain how Failure Modes and Effects Analysis (FMEA) is used to identify the Xs that
cause CTQs to be out of specification. Construct a table to illustrate your explanation.
70-412 vce Answer:
Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA) is used to identify, estimate, prioritize,
and reduce the risk of failure in CTQs through the development of countermeasures
based on Xs. There are 10 steps to conducting a FMEA. First, team members identify the
critical parameters and their potential failure modes through brainstorming or other tools,
that is, ways in which the design might fail (columns 1 and 2 of the table below). Second,
team members identify the potential effect of each failure (consequences of that failure) and
rate its severity (columns 3 and 4 of the table below). The definition of the severity scale is
shown below. Third, team members identify causes of the effects and rate their likelihood of
occurrence (columns 5 and 6 of the table below). The definition of the likelihood of
occurrence scale is shown below. Fifth, team members identify the current controls for
detecting each failure mode and rate the organization’s ability to detect each failure mode

(columns 7 and 8 of the table below). The definition of the detection scale is shown below.
Sixth, team members calculate the RPN (Risk Priority Number) for each failure mode by
multiplying the values in columns 4, 6 and 8 (column 9 of the table below). Seventh, team
members identify recommended actions and contingency plans, persons responsible, and
target completion dates for reducing or eliminating each failure mode (columns 10 and 11 of
the table below). Eight, team members identify the date the action was taken to reduce or
eliminate each failure mode (column 12 of the table below). Ninth, team members rank the
severity (column 12 of the table below), occurrence (column 13 of the table below) and
detection (column 14 of the table below) of each failure mode after the recommended action
(column 10 of the table below) has been put into motion. Tenth, team members multiple the
values in columns 13, 14 and 15 of the table below to calculate the RPN (Risk Priority
Number) for each failure mode after the recommended action (column 16 of the table below)
has been put into motion.

QUESTION: 29
Define “capability of the process” in statistical terms.
Answer:
Capability is a measure of the relative relationship between the “Voice of the Process” and
the “Voice of the Customer.” This relationship considers the differential between the mean

and nominal of the process. The capability of a stable and normally distributed process is
defined as 99.73% of its output will be in the interval between LNL(mean + 3[ R /d2]) and
UNL (mean – 3[ R /d2]), given measurement data and a subgroup size between 2 and 10
inclusive.
QUESTION: 30
Construct a dot plot for the CTQ. Construct dot plots to study the CTQ for the different levels
of X1 and X2. Construct main effects plots and interaction plots for the following data set.

There is a significant interaction between X1 and X2 that will affect the CTQ. The
70-412 exam interaction is seen in the crossed lines.
QUESTION: 31

Explain the purpose of a 2k full factorial design.
Answer:
The purpose of a 2k full factorial design is to understand the relationships between a set of
Xs each with only two levels, and the interactions of the X’s, on the CTQ’s.

QUESTION NO: 32
Which of the following directories contain the information that is found on a Windows 98 Desktop?
A. C:\Program files\Programs\Desktop
B. C:\Startup\Desktop\Items
C. C:\Windows\Desktop
D. C:\Desktop
70-412 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 33
You are investigating a case of child pornography on a hard drive containing Windows XP. In the
:\Documents and Settings\Bad You are investigating a case of child pornography on a hard drive
containing Windows XP. In the ?:\Documents and Settings\Bad Guy\Local Settings\Temporary
Internet Files?folder you find three images of child pornography. You find no other copies of the
images on the suspect hard drive, and you find no other copies of the filenames. What can be
deduced from your findings? images on the suspect? hard drive, and you find no other copies of
the filenames. What can be deduced from your findings?
A. The presence and location of the images is strong evidence of possession.
B. The presence and location of the images proves the images were intentionally downloaded.
C. Both a and c
D. The presence and location of the images is not strong evidence of possession.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 34
To later verify the contents of an evidence file?
7RODWHUYHULI\WKHFRQWHQWVRIDQHYLGHQFHILOH
A. EnCase writes a CRC value for every 64 sectors copied.
B. EnCase writes an MD5 hash value for every 32 sectors copied.
C. EnCase writes an MD5 hash value every 64 sectors copied.
D. EnCase writes a CRC value for every 128 sectors copied.
70-412 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 35
When undeleting a file in the FAT file system, EnCase will check the to see if it
has already been overwritten.
A. directory entry
B. data on the hard drive
C. deletion table
D. FAT
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 36
Select the appropriate name for the highlighted area of the binary numbers.
A. Bit
B. Nibble
C. Word
D. Byte
E. Dword
70-412 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 37
A SCSI host adapter would most likely perform which of the following tasks?
A. Set up the connection of IDE hard drives.
B. None of the above.
C. Configure the motherboard settings to the BIOS.
D. Make SCSI hard drives and other SCSI devices accessible to the operating system.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 38
Assume that MyNote.txt has been deleted. The FAT file system directory entry for that file has
been overwritten. The data for MyNote.txt is now:
A. Allocated
B. Cross-linked
C. Unallocated
D. Overwritten
70-412 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 39
During the power-up sequence, which of the following happens first?
A. The BIOS on an add-in card is executed.
B. The boot sector is located on the hard drive.
C. The ower On Self-Test.? 7KH ? RZHU2Q6HOI7HVW
D. The floppy drive is checked for a diskette.
Answer: C

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[Ensure Pass PDF Exam From Google Drive] Preparing for Latest Updated 070-461 PDF Microsoft SQL Server 2012 070-461 Practice Test Online on Yumpu

Today I passed the exam in 1st attempt.
I have a Data-warehouse and BI experience of over 3 years, which obviously helped.
Questions where you actually have to implement things you learn would be easy you have database experience.
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Exam Code: 070-461
Exam Name: Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Jul 21, 2017
Q&As: 164

Choosing Microsoft 070-461 pdf study material means you choose an effective, smart, and fast way to succeed in your 070-461 pdf exam certification. You will find explanations along with the answers where is necessary in the 070-461 pdf actual test files.

070-461

Pass4itsure  Latest and Most Accurate 070-461 PDF Dumps Exam Q&As:

Question No : 26 You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a table named Products.
The Products table has the following definition:070-461

You need to create an audit record only when either the RetailPrice or WholeSalePrice
column is updated.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF CCLUMNS_CHANGED(RetailPrice, WholesalePrice)
– – Create Audit Records
B. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF EXISTS(SELECT RetailPrice from inserted) OR
EXISTS (SELECT WholeSalePnce FROM inserted)
– – Create Audit Records
C. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF COLUMNS_UPDATED(RetailPrice, WholesalePrice)

– – Create Audit Records
D. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF UPDATE(RetailPrice) OR UPDATE(WholeSalePrice)
– – Create Audit Records
070-461 pdf Answer: D

Question No : 27 A table named Profits stores the total profit made each year within a territory. The Profits
table has columns named Territory, Year, and Profit.
You need to create a report that displays the profits made by each territory for each year
and its previous year.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
B. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
C. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
D. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
Answer: C

Question No : 28 You use Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database to develop a shopping cart application.
You need to rotate the unique values of the ProductName field of a table-valued expression
into multiple columns in the output.
Which Transact-SQL operator should you use?
A. CROSS JOIN
B. CROSS APPLY
C. PIVOT
D. UNPIVOT
070-461 exam 
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 29  You administer a Microsoft SQL Server database that supports a shopping application.
You need to retrieve a list of customers who live in territories that do not have a sales
person.Which Transact- SQL query or queries should you use? (Each correct answer presents a
complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer
WHERE TerritoryID <> SOME(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson)
B. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer
WHERE TerritoryID <> ALL(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson)
C. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer
WHERE TerritoryID <> ANY(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson)
D. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer
WHERE TerritoryID NOT IN(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson) Answer: B,D
You support a database structure shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
Question No : 30
070-461

Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total
FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson
ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID
GROUP BY GROUPING SETS((SalesPerson.Name, Country, City, DatePart(yyyy,
SaleDate)), (Country, City), (Country), ())
B. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total
FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson
ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID
GROUP BY CUBE(SalesPerson.Name, Country, City, DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate))
C. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total
FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson
ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID
GROUP BY CUBE(SalesPerson.Name, DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate), City, Country)
D. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total
FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson
ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID

GROUP BY ROLLUP(SalesPerson.Name, DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate), City, Country)
070-461 dumps 
Answer: A
Explanation:
Be careful with this question,because on exam can be different options for answer.
And none of them is correct : D You should report this question.

You are developing a database that will contain price information. You need to store the
prices that include a fixed precision and a scale of six digits. Which data type should you
use?
A. Float
B. Money
C. Smallmoney
D. Numeric
Answer: D
Explanation:
Numeric is the only one in the list that can give a fixed precision and scale.
Question No : 31
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server database that supports a banking transaction
management application.
You need to retrieve a list of account holders who live in cities that do not have a branch
location.
Which Transact-SQL query or queries should you use? (Each correct answer presents a
Question No : 32
complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. SELECT AccountHolderID
FROM AccountHolder
WHERE CityID NOT IN (SELECT CityID FROM BranchMaster)
B. SELECT AccountHolderID
FROM AccountHolder
WHERE CityID <> ALL (SELECT CityID FROM BranchMaster)
C. SELECT AccountHolderlD
FROM AccountHolder
WHERE CityID <> SOME (SELECT CityID FROM BranchMaster)
D. SELECT AccountHolderID
FROM AccountHolder
WHERE CityID <> ANY (SELECT CityID FROM BranchMaster)
070-461 vce 
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Verified the answers as correct.
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The database contains a table
named Employee. Part of the Employee table is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit
button.)
Question No : 33
070-461

Confidential information about the employees is stored in a separate table named
EmployeeData. One record exists within EmployeeData for each record in the Employee

table. You need to assign the appropriate constraints and table properties to ensure data
integrity and visibility. On which column in the Employee table should you a create a unique
constraint?
A. DateHired
B. DepartmentID
C. EmployeelD
D. EmployeeNum
E. FirstName
F. JobTitle
G. LastName
H. MiddleName
I. ReportsToID
Answer: D
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The database contains a table
named Employee. Part of the Employee table is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit
button.)
Question No : 34
070-461

✑ ✑
Confidential information about the employees is stored in a separate table named
EmployeeData. One record exists within EmployeeData for each record in the Employee
table.
You need to assign the appropriate constraints and table properties to ensure data integrity
and visibility.
On which column in the Employee table should you use an identity specification to include
a seed of 1,000 and an increment of 1?
A. DateHired
B. DepartmentID
C. EmployeeID
D. EmployeeNum
E. FirstName
F. JobTitle
G. LastName
H. MiddleName
I. ReportsToID
070-461 pdf 
Answer: C
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that includes a table named
Products. The Products table has columns named Productld, ProductName, and
CreatedDateTime.
The table contains a unique constraint on the combination of ProductName and
CreatedDateTime.
You need to modify the Products table to meet the following requirements:
Remove all duplicates of the Products table based on the ProductName column.
Retain only the newest Products row.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. WITH CTEDupRecords
AS
Question No : 35
SELECT MAX(CreatedDateTime) AS CreatedDateTime, ProductName
FROM Products
GROUP BY ProductName
HAVING COUNT(*) > 1
)
DELETE p
FROM Products p
JOIN CTEDupRecords cte ON
B. ProductName = cte.ProductName
AND p.CreatedDateTime > cte.CreatedDateTime
C. WITH CTEDupRecords
AS
(
SELECT MAX(CreatedDateTime) AS CreatedDateTime, ProductName
FROM Products
GROUP BY ProductName
HAVING COUNT(*) > 1
)
DELETE p
FROM Products p
JOIN CTEDupRecords cte ON
cte.ProductName = p.ProductName
AND cte.CreatedDateTime > p.CreatedDateTime
D. WITH CTEDupRecords
AS
(
SELECT MIN(CreatedDateTime) AS CreatedDateTime, ProductName
FROM Products
GROUP BY ProductName
)
DELETE p
FROM Products p
JOIN CTEDupRecords cte ON
E. ProductName = cte.ProductName
F. WITH CTEDupRecords
AS
(
SELECT MAX(CreatedDateTime) AS CreatedDateTime, ProductName
FROM Products
GROUP BY ProductName
HAVING COUNT(*) > 1
)
DELETE p
FROM Products p
JOIN CTEDupRecords cte ON
G. ProductName = cte.ProductName
Answer: B
Question No : 36You develop three Microsoft SQL Server 2012 databases named Database1, Database2,
and Database3.
You have permissions on both Database1 and Database2. You plan to write and deploy a
stored procedure named dbo.usp_InsertEvent in Database3. dbo.usp_InsertEvent must
execute other stored procedures in the other databases.
You need to ensure that callers that do not have permissions on Database1 or Database2
can execute the stored procedure.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. USE Database2
B. EXECUTE AS OWNER
C. USE Database1
D. EXECUTE AS CALLER
070-461 dumps 
Answer: B
Question No : 37  You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that has multiple tables in the Sales
schema. Some users must be prevented from deleting records in any of the tables in the
Sales schema. You need to manage users who are prevented from deleting records in the
Sales schema.
You need to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. What
should you do? A. Create a custom database role that includes the users. Deny Delete permissions on the
Sales schema for the custom database role.
B. Include the Sales schema as an owned schema for the db_denydatawriter role. Add the
users to the
db_denydatawriter role.
C. Deny Delete permissions on each table in the Sales schema for each user.
D. Create a custom database role that includes the users. Deny Delete permissions on
each table in the Sales schema for the custom database role.
Answer: A
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The database contains a Product
table created by using the following definition:
Question No : 38
070-461

You need to ensure that the minimum amount of disk space is used to store the data in the
Product table.
What should you do?
A. Convert all indexes to Column Store indexes.
B. Implement Unicode Compression.
C. Implement row-level compression.
D. Implement page-level compression.
070-461 vce 
Answer: D
You generate a daily report according to the following query:
Question No : 39
070-461

You need to improve the performance of the query.
What should you do?
A. Drop the UDF and rewrite the report query as follows:
WITH cte(CustomerID, LastOrderDate) AS (
SELECT CustomerID, MAX(OrderDate) AS [LastOrderDate]
FROM Sales.SalesOrder
GROUP BY CustomerID
)
SELECT c.CustomerName
FROM cte
INNER JOIN Sales.Customer c
ON cte.CustomerID = c.CustomerID
WHERE cte.LastOrderDate < DATEADD(DAY, -90, GETDATE())
B. Drop the UDF and rewrite the report query as follows:
SELECT c.CustomerName
FROM Sales.Customer c
WHERE NOT EXISTS (

SELECT s.OrderDate
FROM Sales.SalesOrder
WHERE s.OrderDate > DATEADD(DAY, -90, GETDATE())
AND s.CustomerID = c.CustomerID)
C. Drop the UDF and rewrite the report query as follows:
SELECT DISTINCT c.CustomerName
FROM Sales.Customer c
INNER JOIN Sales.SalesOrder s
ON c.CustomerID = s.CustomerID
WHERE s.OrderDate < DATEADD(DAY, -90, GETDATE())
D. Rewrite the report query as follows:
SELECT c.CustomerName
FROM Sales.Customer c
WHERE NOT EXISTS (SELECT OrderDate FROM
Sales.ufnGetRecentOrders(c.CustomerID,
90))
Rewrite the UDF as follows:
CREATE FUNCTION Sales.ufnGetRecentOrders(@CustomerID int, @MaxAge datetime)
RETURNS TABLE AS RETURN (
SELECT OrderDate
FROM Sales.SalesOrder
WHERE s.CustomerID = @CustomerID
AND s.OrderDate > DATEADD(DAY, [email protected], GETDATE())
070-461 exam 
Answer: A
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database named ContosoDb. Tables are
defined as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
Question No : 40
070-461

You need to display rows from the Orders table for the Customers row having the
CustomerId value set to 1 in the following XML format:

<row OrderId=”1″ OrderDate=”2000-01-01T00:00:00″ Amount=”3400.00″
Name=”Customer
A” Country=”Australia” />
<row OrderId=”2″ OrderDate=”2001-01-01T00:00:00″ Amount=”4300.00″
Name=”Customer
A” Country=”Australia” />
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1
FOR XML RAW
B. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1
FOR XML RAW, ELEMENTS
C. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1
FOR XML AUTO
D. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId – Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId= 1
FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS
E. SELECT Name, Country, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId- 1
FOR XML AUTO
F. SELECT Name, Country, Orderld, OrderDate, Amount
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId= 1
FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS
G. SELECT Name AS ‘@Name’, Country AS ‘@Country’, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId= 1
FOR XML PATH (‘Customers’)
H. SELECT Name AS ‘Customers/Name’, Country AS ‘Customers/Country’, OrderId,
OrderDate, Amount
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId= 1
FOR XML PATH (‘Customers’)

Answer: A
You have a database that contains the tables as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit
button.)
Question No : 41 CORRECT TEXT
070-461

You have the following query:
070-461

✑ ✑ ✑ ✑
You need to recreate the query to meet the following requirements:
Reference columns by using one-part names only.
Sort aggregates by SalesTerritoryID, and then by ProductID.
Order the results in descending order from SalesTerritoryID to Produc
The solution must use the existing SELECT clause and FROM clause
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer
Answer:
070-461

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