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QUESTION 168
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 68 For the following items, which component of the CiscoWorks product allows a network administrator to define and manage service levels?
A. Service assurance agent (SAA)
B. Service level manager (SLM)
C. Collection Manager (CM)
D. Service level agreement (SLA)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 169
Which codec does Cisco recommend for WAN links?
A. G.711
B. G.723
C. G.728
D. G.729

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 170
NAT-PT is an IPv6-IPv4 translation mechanism. What is NAT-PT?
A. Network address translation?§Cport translation; translates RFC 1918 addresses to public IPv4 addresses
B. Network address translation-protocol translation; translates between IPv4 and IPv6 addresses
C. Next address translation?§Cport translation
D. Network addressable transparent-port translation; translates network addresses to ports

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 171
What Cisco router configuration component does an implementer use to create a floating static route?
A. Primary interface
B. Administrative distance
C. Loopback “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 69
D. Description

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 172
Which Cisco proprietary protocol will be used in LAN switches to control multicast traffic at the data link layer within a LAN switch?
A. MAC filters
B. Cisco Group Management Protocol (CGMP)
C. Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP)
D. IGMP

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 173
A common response to an attack by this device can be either to send an alert or to take corrective action. What is this device?
A. Vulnerability assessment
B. Firewall
C. Intrusion-detection system (IDS)
D. Router

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 174
How many more bits does IPv6 use for addresses than IPv4?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 96
D. 128

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 175
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 70
Which protocol will be used to exchange IP routes between autonomous systems?

A. eBGP
B. IGMP
C. IGRP
D. OSPF

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 176
What does the Cisco security architecture called SAFE stand for?
A. Security Architecture for Enterprise
B. Standard Assessment for Enterprise
C. Security Analysis for Enterprise
D. Standard Architecture for Enterprise

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 177
You are a network technician, can you tell me how many IP addresses are available for hosts in the subnet 198.10.100.64/27?
A. 62
B. 30
C. 126
D. 14
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 178
Which two encryption transforms will be used by both ESP and AH for authentication?
A. HMAC-MD5 or Hash Message Authentication Code-Secure Hash Algorithm-1(HMAC-SHA-1)
B. DES or 3DES
C. DES or Hash Message Authentication Code-Message Digest 5 (HMAC-MD5)
D. 3DES or MD5

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 179
For the following options, which emerging WAN technology uses DSL coding and digital modulation techniques with Ethernet?
A. Cable
B. Wireless
C. SMDS
D. Long-Reach Ethernet (LRE)

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 180
What is SLC?
A. Standard level contracts
B. Standard level configuration
C. Service level contracts
D. Service level configuration

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 181
What does ODR stand for?
A. Open default routing
B. Optical demand routing
C. Open dedicated routing
D. On-demand routing

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 182
Observe the following options, in which section of the network document does Cisco recommend a discussion of performance, scalability, capacity, security, and traffic needs?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 72
A. Design summary
B. Design solution
C. Executive summary
D. Design requirements

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 183
In telephony, the local loop is the physical link or circuit. Where is the local loop located?
A. Between the loopback interfaces of two VoIP routers
B. Between phones and the central office (CO) switch
C. Between two PBXs
D. Between two PSTN switches

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 184
Which advantage is of security systems that are part of the Cisco ecosystem?
A. There is a suite of products to choose from.
B. Various partners as well as supporting products increase the effectiveness of security systems.
C. There are no advantages.
D. The Cisco ecosystem ensure that partners can implement the solution.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 185
What is ASBR short for?
A. Area Border Router
B. Auxiliary System Border Router
C. Area System Border Router
D. Autonomous System Boundary Router

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 186
Area Border Router (ABR) is defined by which protocol?
A. Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP)
B. OSPF
C. On-Demand Routing (ODR)
D. IS-IS

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 187
Which queuing mechanism establishes four interface output queues that will be used for traffic scheduling?
A. Priority queuing (PQ)
B. First-in, first-out (FIFO)
C. Weighted fair queuing (WFQ)
D. Custom queuing (CQ)

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 188
Which option is not valid for using the public Internet as a backup WAN medium?
A. IP Security (IPSec) tunnels
B. Shared PVC
C. IP routing without constraints
D. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) tunnels
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 189
For the following items, which is an SP Edge module in the Enterprise Composite Network model?
A. Core layer
B. Edge distribution
C. Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) service
D. Server farm “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 74
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 190
Which method will be used to secure a network against man-in-the-middle attack?
A. Two-factor authentication
B. Management module
C. Encryption
D. Firewall

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 191
What is important for the top-down design concept?
A. Engagement of the HR representatives during the design process
B. Engagement of the top executives during the design process
C. Engagement of the employees working on the top floors in the building during the design process
D. Engagement of the top executives once the design process is finalized

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 192
Which one of the following QoS mechanisms is recommended for VoIP networks?
A. Low-latency queuing (LLQ)
B. Switched-based queuing
C. Fast queuing
D. Custom queuing

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 193
In which layer of the OSI model does Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) operate ? “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 75
A. Network
B. Application
C. Transport
D. Session

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 194
Developing a network design according to layers such as core and distribution is an example of which type of design methodology?
A. Flat design
B. Top-down
C. Hierarchical structured design
D. PDIOO

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 195
Which parameters does the computation of the EIGRP composite metric use by default?
A. Bandwidth and reliability
B. Bandwidth and load
C. Bandwidth and maximum transmission unit (MTU)
D. Bandwidth and delay

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 196
Which statement is true about WANs?
A. Switches or concentrators often relay information through the WAN.
B. WANs typically encompass broad geographic areas.
C. In general, WAN technologies function at the middle three layers of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model.
D. Users of WANs do not typically own all transmission facilities.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 197
Which item is not a true disadvantage of the full-mesh topology?
A. Central hub router represents a single point of failure in the network.
B. High level of complexity to implement.
C. Large number of packet replications required.
D. High costs due to number of virtual circuits.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 198
Which IPv4 field are the precedence bits located in?
A. IP destination address
B. Type-of-service field
C. IP options field
D. IP protocol field

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 199
Which hierarchical layer has functions such as High availability, port security, and rate limiting?
A. Core
B. Access
C. Network
D. Distribution
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 200
With which of the following capabilities does RIPv2 improve RIPv1?
A. Multicast updates, authentication, variable-length subnet mask (VLSM)
B. Authentication, VLSM, hop count “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 77
C. Multicast updates, authentication, hop count
D. Multicast updates, hop count
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 201
Which is the maximum segment distance for Fast Ethernet over unshielded twisted-pair (UTP)?
A. 285 feet
B. 100 feet
C. 500 feet
D. 100 meters

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 202
Which term accurately describes a specific measure of delay often used to describe voice and video networks?
A. Jitter
B. Flux
C. Latency
D. Reliability

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 203

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QUESTION 101
Which two of these represent a best practice implementation of a Split MAC LWAPP deployment in a Cisco Unified Wireless Network? (Choose two.)
A. Each wireless client authentication type maps to a unique SSID which in turn maps to a unique VLAN.
B. 802.1Q trunking extends from the wired infrastructure to the access point for translation into SSID(s).
C. 802.1Q trunking extends from the wired infrastructure to a wireless LAN controller for translation into SSID(s).
D. Each wireless client authentication type maps to a shared SSID which in turn maps to a common shared VLAN.
E. Each wireless client authentication type maps to a unique SSID which in turn maps to a common shared VLAN.
F. 802.1Q trunking extends from the wired infrastructure to a wireless LAN controller. Then the 802.1Q packet is encapsulated in LWAPP and sent to the access point for transmission over the SSID(s).

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 102
Which two statements best describe intradomain route summarization? (Choose two.)
A. EIGRP and OSPF must be manually configured to summarize at non-classful boundaries.
B. EIGRP and OSPF automatically summarize at classful network boundaries.
C. OSPF and RIP automatically summarize at classful network boundaries.
D. EIGRP and RIP automatically summarize at classful network boundaries.
E. EIGRP and OSPF automatically summarize at non-classful boundaries.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 103
Which two VoIP characteristics are affected most by codec choice? (Choose two.)
A. voice quality
B. voice packet header size
C. bandwidth required for voice calls
D. silent packet handling

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 104
A network design document is being prepared for a customer. Which three network design elements must be included? (Choose three.)
A. proof of concept
B. data sources
C. design details
D. organizational policies
E. implementation plan

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 105
Which of these accurately describes dial backup routing?
A. it always uses distance vector routing protocols
B. once the backup link is activated it will remain active even after the primary link is restored “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 44
C. it always uses permanent static routes
D. it is supplied by the service provider as a secondary PVC at no additional charge
E. the router intiates the dial backup link when a failure is detected on the primary link

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 106
Which statement correctly describes queuing in environments supporting teleworkers?
A. Queuing occurs on the outbound interface.
B. Hardware queues are configured for appropriate PQ, CQ, or WFQ.
C. Priority queuing guarantees some level of service to all traffic.
D. WFQ is the Cisco IOS default on all WAN links regardless of speed.
E. CQ is for time-sensitive protocols.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 107
Which two techniques can reduce voice packet transfer delay across a link of less than 512 kbps? (Choose two.)
A. deploy LFI
B. increase link bandwidth
C. extend the trust boundary
D. deploy software compression
E. increase queue depth
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 108
DRAG DROP
Drop
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 45 A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 109
Your company uses OSPF for internal routing. The company will be connected to VendorA via a single dedicated link and to VendorB via redundant dedicated links. Both vendors also use OSPF for internal routing. Which of the following deployments describes the best intra-domain routing practice in this situation?
A. Redistribute the routes on each link between your company and the vendors to a shared EIGRP routing protocol.
B. Use IBGP to reach VendorA and EBGP to reach VendorB.
C. Use static routes to reach VendorA and EBGP to reach VendorB.
D. Use static routes to reach both VendorA and VendorB.
E. Connect your company to both VendorA and VendorB using existing OSPF.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 110
Which statement can a network designer use to describe route summarization to an IT manager?
A. It is the grouping of ISP network addresses to minimize the number of routes to the Internet.
B. It is the grouping of multiple discontiguous subnets to increase routing performance.
C. It is the grouping of multiple contiguous networks and advertising as one large network.
D. It is the grouping of multiple contiguous subnets into one Class A, B, or C IP address to minimize routing table size.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 111
Refer to the exhibit. All primary links are T1s. The customer wants to have a backup to each remote office
from the Headquarters office.
Which two types of backup links would be viable solutions? (Choose two.)
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 47
A. dial backup routing
B. shadow SVC
C. permanent secondary WAN link
D. VPDN

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 112
A Cisco SONA architecture layer is described as follows:
The layer’s IT resources are interconnected across a converged network foundation. The layer’s IT resources include servers, storage, and clients. The layer represents how resources exist across the network. The customer objective for the layer is to have anywhere/anytime connectivity.
Which Cisco SONA architecture layer is being described?
A. Application
B. Integrated Transport
C. Physical
D. Networked Infrastructure
E. Interactive Services

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 113
Which information should a network summary report identify?
A. actions needed to support the existing network
B. customer requirements
C. new network features
D. customer requirement modifications
E. actions needed to support existing network features
F. infrastructure shortcomings

Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 114
Given a VoIP network with these attributes:
Codec: G.711 WAN bandwidth: 768Kbps Packet Header: 6 bytes Payload: 160 bytes CRTP: No
How many calls can be made?
A. 7 calls
B. 13 calls
C. 8 calls
D. 9 calls
E. 11 calls

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 115
What are three valid methods of gathering information about an existing data network? (Choose three.)
A. Use organizational input.
B. Analyze the user-mapping of a running application.
C. Perform a traffic analysis.
D. Perform a packet-level audit to verify carrier service guarantees. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 49
E. Use reports that analyze the metrics of the customer’s existing network.
F. Perform a network audit to gather more detail about the network.

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 116
Which two of these are required for wireless client mobility deployment when using a Cisco Unified Wireless Network? (Choose two.)
A. matching RF power
B. matching security
C. assigned master controller
D. matching mobility group name
E. matching RF channel
F. matching RF group name
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 117
In the Cisco branch office design, what categorizes an office as large?
A. between 50 and 100 users and a single-tier design
B. between 100 and 200 users and a three-tier design
C. between 50 and 100 users and a three-tier design
D. over 200 users and a two-tier design
E. between 100 and 200 users and a two-tier design

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 118
A company is designing a worldwide IPv6 network with duplicated file servers at multiple locations. Each file server contains identical reference information. Which IPv6 address type would be used to allow each end station to send a request to the nearest file server using the same destination address, regardless of the location of that end station?
A. broadcast
B. multicast
C. anycast “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 50
D. unicast

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 119
When designing using the Cisco Enterprise Architecture, in which Enterprise Campus layer do the Enterprise Edge and Enterprise WAN modules establish their connection?
A. Building Access
B. Building Distribution
C. Campus Core
D. Enterprise Branch
E. Enterprise Data Center

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 120
Which three of these describe the best practice for Cisco wireless outdoor Mesh network deployment? (Choose three.)
A. mesh hop counts of 4 or fewer
B. RAP implemented with 20 or fewer MAP nodes
C. client access via 802.11a and backhaul with 802.11b/g
D. client access via 802.11b/g and backhaul with 802.11a
E. mesh hop counts of 8 to 4
F. RAP implemented with 20 to 32 MAP nodes
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 121
The Cisco Data Center Network Architecture comprises which two Cisco SONA layers? (Choose two.)
A. Collaboration Applications
B. WAN/Internet
C. Interactive Services
D. Network Infrastructure
E. Business Applications “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 51

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 122
Which two of these are scalability benefits of designing a network that utilizes VPNs? (Choose two.)
A. reduces dial infrastructure expenditures
B. reduces the number of physical connections
C. allows networks to be set up and restructured quickly
D. simplifies the underlying structure of a customer WAN
E. extends the network to remote users

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 123
You are designing a small branch office that requires these attributes:
support for 60 users the growth capacity to add another 15 users soon redundant access higher bandwidth between the Layer 2 switch and routing to the WAN
Which branch office topology or technology must be used?
A. EtherChannel
B. loop-free
C. three-tier
D. two-tier
E. integrated routing and switching

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 124
Western Associated News Agency recently acquired a large news organization with several sites, which will allow it to expand to worldwide markets. The new acquisition includes these connectivity technologies:
Frame Relay
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 52 ATM SONET cable DSL wireless
From a Layer 1 viewpoint, which Enterprise Edge module will be most affected?
A. Internet Connectivity
B. E-Commerce
C. PSTN
D. Edge Distribution
E. ISP
F. WAN/MAN

Correct Answer: F QUESTION 125
DRAG DROP Drop

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 126
Which two implementation plan principles best describe how to deal with potential failures? (Choose two.)
A. A table of failure points, rollback steps, and estimated rollback times.
B. A good implementation plan.
C. A test should be included at every step.
D. A detailed rollback procedure for each implementation step.
E. A successful test network test.

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 127
Refer to the exhibit. You are documenting the existing network of a customer with a large installed Cisco network. The routers listed are in use on the network.
Which two additional pieces of information would be the most valuable in completing your documentation of these routers? (Choose two.)
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 54 A. software revisions

B. interface options
C. power requirements
D. error statistics
E. management protocols

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 128
Which of these is the next step after the design phase in the PPDIOO process?
A. Develop a high-level migration plan.
B. Develop the implementation plan in as much detail as possible.
C. Create a pilot or a prototype network.
D. Identify which network management protocol will be used for which function.
E. Order the equipment.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 129
You are designing IPv6 into an existing IPv4 network. Which strategy can you use to allow both address schemes to coexist, thus facilitating migration?
A. redistribute between IPv6-capable and non-IPv6-capable routing protocols
B. enable anycast capability in the routing protocol
C. bridge between the two networks
D. run both the IPv6 and IPv4 stacks on devices
E. deploy stateful address assignments
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 56
The Wi-Fi logo is a registered mark of the Wi-Fi Alliance. When the Wi-Fi logo appears on a wireless access point or client adapter, which two of these does it signify? (Choose two.)
A. The Wi-Fi Alliance has tested this device and determined that it meets IEEE WLAN standards.
B. The access point or client adapter has been manufactured by the Wireless Fidelity company.
C. The manufacturer of the equipment has paid the Wi-Fi Alliance to market its products.
D. The Wi-Fi Alliance has verified that the device can interoperate with other devices using the same standards.

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 57
As the certways network administrator, you need to troubleshoot an interference issue with the certways wireless LAN. Which two devices can interfere with the operation of this network because they operate on similar frequencies? (choose two)
A. AM radio
B. microwave oven
C. toaster
D. cordless phone

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 58
Install and configure three access points to cover a small office. Which one of the following terms defines the wireless topology?
A. BSS
B. IBSS
C. ESS
D. SSID

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 59
You are a network technician. You have just installed a single 802.11g access point in the center of a square office. Some wireless users come across slow performance and drops when most users are operating at peak efficiency. Which three items most likely cause this problem? (Choose three.)
A. mismatched TKIP encryption
B. cordless phones
C. metal file cabinets
D. antenna type or direction

Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 60
Which encryption type will be used by WPA2?
A. AES-CCMP
B. PSK
C. TKIP/MIC
D. PPK via IV

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 61
Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the WLAN diagram? (Choose two.)

A. The area of overlap of the two cells represents a basic service set (BSS).
B. The network diagram represents an extended service set (ESS).
C. Access points in each cell must be configured to use channel 1.
D. The two APs should be configured to operate on different channels.

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 62
Assuming that you are a network technician, can you tell me which two practices help secure the configuration utilities on wireless access points from unauthorized access? (Choose two.)
A. assigning a private IP address to the AP
B. changing the default SSID value
C. configuring a new administrator password
D. changing the mixed mode setting to single mode

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 63
Which protocol will be used by a network host to resolve a destination IPv4 address to a destination MAC address?
A. ARP
B. RARP
C. DHCP
D. DNS

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 64
Topic – Identify security threats to a network and describe general methods to mitigate those threats.
Explain today’s increasing network security threats and the need to implement a comprehensive security policy to mitigate the threats
Explain general methods to mitigate common security threats to network devices, hosts, and applications Describe the functions of common security appliances and applications Describe security recommended practices including initial steps to secure network devices
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 65
As a network administrator, you would configure port security on a switch. Why?
A. in order to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
B. in order to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
C. in order to protect the IP and MAC address of the switch and associated ports
D. in order to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 66
What objective does an IDS accomplish?
A. hide the private IP addressing structure from outside attackers
B. perform stateful firewall functions
C. detect malicious traffic and send alerts to a management station
D. block suspicious network activity from entering the network

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
The certways administrator is concerned with enhancing network security. To do this, what are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from outside security threats on the network?(Choose two.)
A. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted.
B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
C. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.
D. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 68
Choose from the following the effect of using the service password-encryption command.
A. Only the enable password will be encrypted.
B. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.
C. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.
D. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 69
To protect network device configuration files from outside network security threats, what should you do? (Choose two.)
A. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.
B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
C. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
D. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted.

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 70
Match the corresponding command and configuration task. (Not all options are used.)
1.
login password certways1

2.
enable password certways2

3.
enable secret certways4

4.
service password-encryption

5.
line vty 0 4 password certways5

6.
line console 0 password certways3
A. encrypt all clear text passwords II.protect access to the user mode prompt III.set privileged mode encrypted password IV.set password to allow Telnet connections
B. set privileged mode clear text password
C. I-4,II-3,III-5,IV-2,V-6
D. I-4,II-5,III-3,IV-2,V-6
E. I-4,II-6,III-3,IV-5,V-2
F. I-4,II-6,III-5,IV-3,V-2

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 71
You need to create a security plan for the certways network. What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
A. Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end-user equipment is well known and widely reported.
B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals.
C. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of passwords being forgotten.
D. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 72
Topic – Implement and verify WAN links.
Describe different methods for connecting to a WAN Configure and verify a basic WAN serial connection
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 73
You need to create a security plan for the certways network. What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
A. 64 Kbit/sec
B. 32 Kbit/sec
C. 512 Kbit/sec
D. 128 Kbit/sec

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 74
Look at the following exhibit. You are a network administrator for certways. You are configuring P4S-R to connect to a non-Cisco network. Which two commands would be applied to the S0/0 WAN interface, but not to the Fa0/0 LAN interface? (Choose two.)

A. ip address
B. no shutdown
C. encapsulation ppp
D. authentication pap

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 75
Look at the following exhibit. You are a network administrator for certways.You want to make each connection that is identified by the numbers shown. What kind of cable should be used?

A. 1 – Ethernet crossover cable 2 – Ethernet straight-through cable 3 – fiber optic cable 4 – rollover cable
B. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – rollover cable
C. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet straight-through cable 3 – serial cable 4 – rollover cable
D. 1 – Ethernet rollover cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – null modem cable

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 91
On the basis of the exhibit below. After adding host A to the network, Host A is unable to communicate on
the network. A ping issued on the host to address 127.0.0.1 fails.
What is the problem?
A. The remote host at 127.0.0.1 is unreachable.
B. The default gateway is incorrect.
C. The IP address of host A is incorrect.
D. The TCP/IP protocols are not loaded.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 92
Attaching an Ethernet cable to a PC NIC and then attaching to a switch port. The PC power is turned on and the switch port link LED becomes green. Which two conditions does the link light indicate? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 2 communication has been established between the PC and switch.
B. Traffic is being sent from the switch to the PC.
C. If flashing, the green LED indicates port speed of 100 Mb/s.
D. The Layer 1 media is functioning between the PC and switch.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 93
Match the corresponding terms and OSI layer.(Not all options are used.) 1.bits 2.packets 3.UDP 4.IP addresses 5.segments 6.MAC addresses 7.windowing 8.routing 9.switching
A. Network Layer II.Transprot Layer
B. I(2,4,9),II(5,7,3)
C. I(1,4,9),II(5,3,7)
D. I(1,4,8),II(2,7,3)
E. I(2,4,8),II(5,7,3)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 94
Three of the following are types of flow control. Which are them? (Choose three.)
A. windowing
B. buffering
C. cut-through
D. congestion avoidance

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 95
The following exhibit displays every device attached to the network. How many collision domains are shown in this network?

A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 15

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 96
What do you think is the data structure that is described in the graphic?

A. TCP segment
B. FDDI frame
C. Ethernet frame
D. Token Ring frame

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 97
For the following Layer 4 protocols, which one is used for a Telnet connection?
A. UDP
B. TCP
C. ICMP
D. DNS

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 98
Which option is correct about the relationship between the definition and the term? Not all definitions will be used.
1.a protocol that converts human-readable names into machine-readable addresses 2.used to assign IP addresses automatically and set parameters such as subnet mask and default gateway 3.a protocol for using HTTP or HTTPS to exchange XML-based messages over computer networks 4.a connectionless service that uses UDP to transfer files between systems 5.a protocol used to monitor and manage network devices
6.a reliable. Connection-oriented service that uses TCP to transfer files between systems
A. SNMP II.FTP III.TFTP IV.DNS
B. DHCP
C. I-5;II-6;III-4;IV-1;V-2
D. I-5;II-6;III-1;IV-2;V-4
E. I-6;II-5;III-4;IV-1;V-2
F. I-6;II-5;III-4;IV-2;V-1

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 99
Look at the following exhibit. To interconnect the devices, which types of cables are needed? (Choose three.)

A. rollover cable
B. V.35 cable
C. crossover cable
D. straight-through cable

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 100
Look at the following exhibit. You are a network administrator for certways. You have added Host A to the network. A certain kind of cable should be used between P4S-S2 and host A. Which is it?

A. console cable
B. crossover cable
C. rollover cable
D. straight-through cable

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 101
Look at the following exhibit. To make the following connections ,what types of cables are recommended?

A. A-crossover B-straight-through C-crossover D-straight-through E-crossover
B. A-rollover
B-straight-through
C-straight-through
D-rollover
E-crossover

C. A-straight-through B-straight-through C-rollover D-straight-through E-straight-through
D. A-crossover B-straight-through C-rollover D-straight-through E-straight-through

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 102
From which of the following does a small network get its IP network address?
A. Internet Service Provider (ISP)
B. Internet Architecture Board (IAB)
C. Internet Domain Name Registry (IDNR)
D. Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 103
You are a network administrator for certways. By using the Ethernet interfaces as shown in the graphic,
you connect PC hosts certwaysA and certwaysB directly. You ping certwaysB from
certwaysA, and fails. You are required to enable the connectivity between the two hosts. What can be
done? (Choose two.)
A. A default gateway needs to be set on each host.
B. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.0.
C. A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.
D. The hosts must be reconfigured to use private IP addresses for direct connections of this type.

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 104
Part of the certways network is shown below:
Please study the exhibit shown above carefully, how many collision domains are shown
A. three
B. two
C. four
D. one

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 105
What is a necessary to allow host A to ping host B according to the exhibit?

A. a straight-through cable connecting the switches
B. a crossover cable connecting the switches
C. a router connected to the switches with straight-through cables
D. a CSU/DSU connected to the switches with straight-through cables

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 106
You work as a network technician for the P4S company. The displayed wire scheme is terminated at each end with an RJ-45 connector. Which type of cables does the wire diagram represent?

A. a rollover cable
B. an Ethernet straight-through cable
C. a serial crossover cable
D. an Ethernet crossover cable

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 107
On the basis of the exhibit below. When packets travel from Sara to Bill, which three devices will determine a forwarding path by using the destination MAC address of the packet? (Choose three.)

A. P4S-S1
B. P4S-S2
C. P4S-R2
D. P4S-S3
Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 108
Study the exhibit carefully. P4S-Host A is forwarding a packet to P4S-Host B for the first time. Which destination MAC address will be used by P4S-Host A in the ARP request?

A. 255.255.255.255
B. 00-17-94-61-18-b0
C. 00-19-d3-2d-c3-b2
D. ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 109
Refer to the following exhibit, Host A should communicate with the email server. Which address will be put in the destination address field of the frame when it leaves Host A?

A. the MAC address of Host A
B. the MAC address of P4S-S1
C. the MAC address of E0 of P4S-R
D. the MAC address of E1 of P4S-R

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 110
The following exhibit shows a planned network. Which three descriptions are true about the areas and devices in the network plan? (Choose three.)

A. Network Device A is a switch.
B. Area 2 contains a Layer 2 device
C. Network Device B is a hub.
D. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device.

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 111
Refer to the graphic. Workstation A in the Sales location is communicating with the server in the Production location. What will be the source MAC address of the frames received by workstation A from the server?

A. the MAC address of router interface e0
B. the MAC address of the server network interface
C. the MAC address of host A
D. the MAC address of router interface e1

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 112
All devices will be connected through Ethernet according to the exhibit from labeled A to E . Which three
device-to-device configurations most likely require the use of a crossover connection?
(Choose three.)
A. exhibit A
B. exhibit B
C. exhibit C
D. exhibit D
E. exhibit E

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 113
Your company has just installed the mail server and P4S-SW2. UDP packets are not permitted outbound on the Fa0/1 router interface due to security reasons. Bob is now examining the new installation at his workstation and can’t establish SMTP communication to the mail server. Which item is the reason for lack of communication between Bob’s workstation and the mail server?

A. The crossover cable should be a straight-through cable.
B. The IP addresses are all on the same network. No router is required.
C. UDP is blocked coming out of the Fa0/1 interface on the router.
D. The server should be directly connected to the router.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 114
Which two statements best describe the interface configuration according to the exhibit? (Choose two.)

A. The encapsulation in use on this interface is PPP.
B. This interface is connected to a LAN.
C. The address mask of this interface is 255.255.255.0.
D. The default serial line encapsulation is in use on this interface.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 115
Refer to the exhibit. What could be possible causes for the “Serial0/0 is down” interface status? (Choose two.)

A. A Layer 1 problem exists.
B. A protocol mismatch exists.
C. The bandwidth is set too low.
D. An incorrect cable is being used.

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 116
Which two statements best describe ICMP packets? (Choose two.)
A. They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments.
B. They guarantee datagram delivery.
C. They can provide hosts with information about network problems.
D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.

Correct Answer: CD

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Tom works as a network administrator .Study the exhibit carefully, Tom is resolving a connectivity problem on the serial interfaces. It is known that the serial interface is up and line protocol is down based on the output from the show interfaces command on both routers. Which will be the reason of this problem according to the partial output for the show running-config in the exhibit?

A. The serial cable is bad.
B. The MTU is incorrectly configured.
C. The Layer 2 framing is misconfigured.
D. The IP addresses are not in the same subnet.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 36
Jim works as a network administrator for certways Ltd. According to the exhibit below, after configuring two interfaces on the P4S-HQ router, Jim discovers an error message. How to fix this error?

A. The subnet mask of the serial interface should be changed to 255.255.255.0.
B. The serial interface must be configured first.
C. The serial interface must use the address 192.168.1.2.
D. The subnet mask of the FastEthernet interface should be changed to 255.255.255.240.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
What will happen when computers on a private network try to connect to the Internet via a Cisco router running PAT?
A. The router uses the same IP address but a different TCP source port number for each connection.
B. The router assigns a unique IP address from a pool of legally registered addresses for the duration of the connection.
C. An IP address is assigned based on the priority of the computer requesting the connection.
D. The router selects an address from a pool of one-to-one address mappings held in the lookup table.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
What source and destination information can you find in the data link layer?
A. port number
B. URL
C. IP address
D. MAC address
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39
The global configuration mode on a Cisco router is identified by which prompt?
A. router>
B. router#
C. router(config)#
D. router(config-if)#
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
How many simultaneous Telnet sessions will be supported by a Cisco router by default?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 41
You are a network technician at P4S, study the exhibit carefully. Host P4S-A has created a communication session with host P4S-B for the first time. What enabled P4S-R1 to transmit this traffic in the correct direction to reach the network to which host P4S-B is attached?

A. TCP/IP
B. a Layer 4 protocol
C. DHCP
D. a routing protocol

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
Which description is correct about the operational state of the FastEthernet 0/0 interface on the basis of the exhibit below?

A. The interface is generating protocol errors.
B. The interface has failed because of a media error.
C. The interface is operational and currently handling traffic.
D. The interface requires a no shutdown command to be issued.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 43
Two certways routers are connected as shown below:
certways1 configuration exhibit:
certways2 configuration exhibit:
Two routers named certways1 and certways2 are connected by their serial interfaces as shown in the
exhibit, but there is no data connectivity between them. The certways1 router is known to have a correct
configuration. Given the partial configurations shown in the exhibit, what is the problem on the certways2
router that is causing the lack of connectivity?

A. A loopback is not set.
B. The IP address is incorrect.
C. The subnet mask is incorrect.
D. The serial line encapsulations are incompatible.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 44
According to the exhibit below. Information about P4S-RA, including platform and IP addresses, should not be accessible from the Internet due to security reasons. However, this information needs to be accessible to devices on the internal networks of P4S-RA. Which command or series of commands will achieve these goals?

A. P4S-RA(config)#no cdp enable
B. P4S-RA(config)#interface s0/0 P4S-RA(config-if)#no cdp run
C. P4S-RA(config)#no cdp run
D. P4S-RA(config)#interface s0/0 P4S-RA(config-if)#no cdp enable

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 45
Which will be the result of adding this command to a router already configured for dynamic routing? ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2
A. It configures the router to block routing updates from being sent to IP address 192.168.1.2.
B. It configures the router to drop all packets for which the destination network is unknown.
C. It configures the router as a firewall, blocking all packets from IP address 192.168.1.2.
D. It configures the router to send all packets to IP address 192.168.1.2 if the packets match no other entry in the routing table.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 46
Look at the picture: A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 47
You are a network technician for certways Ltd. Study the graphic carefully, you are tasked to connect a Cisco router to a Catalyst switch as displayed and you are also working on a computer connected to the management console of the switch. In order to configure the default gateway for the switch, you should learn the IP address of the attached router interface. Which IOS command will provide this information in the absence of Layer 3 connectivity?

A. ping switch_ip_address
B. show ip rarp
C. ping router_ip_address
D. show cdp neighbors detail

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 48
Which command would configure a default route to any destination network not found in the routing table?
A. P4S-R(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 s0
B. P4S-R(config)# ip default-route 0.0.0.0 s0
C. P4S-R(config)# ip default-route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 s0
D. P4S-R(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 49
According to the exhibit below. P4S-PC1 pings P4S-PC2. Which three things will P4S-CORE router do with the data received from P4S-PC1? (Choose three.)

A. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet0/1 of P4S-CORE router.
B. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet1/0 of P4S-CORE router
C. P4S-CORE router will place the MAC address of P4S-PC2 in the destination MAC address of the frames.
D. P4S-CORE router will put the MAC address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source MAC address.

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 50
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 20 was performed on a router. No
routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router.
Which statement
best describes this command?

A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.
B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.190 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The number 20 indicates the number of hops to the destination network.

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 46
A Certkiller network is shown in the exhibit below:

The routers in this network are running RIPv2. Which addressing scheme would satisfy the needs of this network yet waste the fewest addresses?
A. Network 1: 192.168.10.0/26Network 2: 192.168.10.64/26Network 3: 192.168.10.128/26Serial link 1: 192.168.20.0/24Serial link 2: 192.168.30.0/24
B. Network 1: 192.168.10.0/26Network 2: 192.168.10.64/28Network 3: 192.168.10.80/29Serial link 1: 192.168.10.88/30Serial link 2: 192.168.10.96/30
C. Network 1: 192.168.10.0/26Network 2: 192.168.10.64/27Network 3: 192.168.10.96/28Serial link 1: 192.168.10.112/30Serial link 2: 192.168.10.116/30
D. Network 1: 192.168.10.0/27Network 2: 192.168.10.64/28Network 3: 192.168.10.96/29Serial link 1: 192.168.10.112/30Serial link 2: 192.168.10.116/30

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
The Certkiller network is shown below:

A technician is investigating a problem with the network shown above. These symptoms have been observed:
1.
All of the user hosts can access the Internet.

2.
None of the user hosts can access the server in VLAN9

3.
All of the hosts can ping each other. What could cause the symptoms?
A. Interface S0/0 on the router is down.
B. Interface Fa0/1 on the router is down.
C. Interface Fa0/5 on Certkiller 3 is down.
D. Interface Fa0/4 on Certkiller 3 is down.
E. Certkiller 2 is turned off.
F. Trunking is not enabled on the link between Certkiller 1 and Certkiller 3.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 48
Refer to the graphic shown below: What symbol represents a type of device that is connected to interface FastEthernet 0/23 of the 2960 switch Sw1-2960?

A. Picture A
B. Picture B
C. Picture C
D. Picture D

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 49
Part of the Certkiller network topology is shown below:

Entry exhibit:

Host Certkiller A pings Host Certkiller B, which entry will be in the ARP cache of Host Certkiller A to support this transmission?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
The Certkiller network is shown in the following exhibit:

Certkiller uses EIGRP as the routing protocol. Based on the info shown above, what path will packets take from a host on the 192.168.10.192/26 network to a host on the LAN attached to router Certkiller 1?
A. The path of the packets will be Certkiller 3 to Certkiller 2 to Certkiller 1
B. The path of the packets will be Certkiller 3 to Certkiller 1 to Certkiller 2
C. The path of the packets will be both Certkiller 3 to Certkiller 2 to Certkiller 1 AND Certkiller 3 to Certkiller 1
D. The path of the packets will be Certkiller 3 to Certkiller 1
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
Refer to the following exhibit: Based on the diagram shown above, what is the correct addressing for a frame and packet received by Host Certkiller B from Host Certkiller A?

A. Destination MAC: 0011.43da.2c98 Source MAC: 0070.0e8f.088a Destination IP: 192.168.60.5 Source IP: 192.168.60.1
B. Destination MAC: 0011.43da.2c98 Source MAC: 0070.0e8f.088a Destination IP: 192.168.60.5 Source IP: 192.168.24.5
C. Destination MAC: 0011.43da.2c98 Source MAC: 00b0.d0ef.5f6a Destination IP: 192.168.60.5 Source IP: 192.168.24.5
D. Destination MAC: 0011.43da.2c98 Source MAC: 0070.0e97.af4e Destination IP: 192.168.60.5 Source IP: 192.168.60.2
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 52
Exhibit #1:

Exhibit #2:

Please study the two exhibits carefully.
The partial frame shown above displays select header information as it arrives at the destination host. Of
the following choices shown below, which one represents the correct header information in the responding
frame returned to the remote host?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 53
The Certkiller network is shown below: Based on the diagram above, which destination addresses will Host A use to send data to Host B? (Choose two.)

A. The IP address of Certkiller 1
B. The IP address of Certkiller A Fa0/0
C. The IP address of Host B
D. The MAC address of Certkiller 1
E. The MAC address of Certkiller A Fa0/0
F. The MAC address of Host B

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 54
Which IOS user EXEC command will allow a network technician to determine which router in the path to an unreachable network host should be examined more closely for the cause of the network failure?
A. Certkiller B> telnet
B. Certkiller B > ping
C. Certkiller B > trace
D. Certkiller B > show ip route
E. Certkiller B > show interface
F. Certkiller B > show cdp neighbors
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 55
A Certkiller office’s network topology is shown in the diagram below: Host Certkiller A needs to communications with the e-mail server shown above. What address will be placed on the destination address field of the frame when it leaves host Certkiller A?

A. The MAC address of Certkiller A
B. The MAC address of switch Certkiller 1
C. The MAC address of the E0 interface of the Certkiller 3 router.
D. The MAC address of the E1 interface of the Certkiller 3 router.
E. The MAC address of switch Certkiller 2
F. The MAC address of the email server

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. Given this output for SwitchC, what should the network administrator’s next action be?

A. Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchC’s fa0/1 port.
B. Check the duplex mode for SwitchC’s fa0/1 port.
C. Check the duplex mode for SwitchA’s fa0/2 port.
D. Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchA’s fa0/2 port.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 9
How many subnets can be gained by subnetting 172.17.32.0/23 into a /27 mask, and how many usable host addresses will there be per subnet?
A. 8 subnets, 31 hosts
B. 8 subnets, 32 hosts
C. 16 subnets, 30 hosts
D. 16 subnets, 32 hosts
E. A Class B address can’t be subnetted into the fourth octet.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has been completed?

A. Only the default VLANs are configured on SwitchA
B. SwitchA does not have a VTP domain name configured.
C. VTP pruning needs to be enabled on SwitchA
D. SwitchC needs to have the VTP domain name configured.
E. SwitchB is in transparent mode.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.A router boots to the prompt shown in the exhibit. What does this signify, and how should the network administrator respond?

A. This prompt signifies that the configuration file was not found in NVRAM. The netwok administrator should follow the prompts to enter a basic configuration.
B. This prompt signifies that the configuration file was not found in flash memory. The netwok administrator should use TFTP to transfer a configuration file to the router.
C. This prompt signifies that the IOS image in flash memory is invalid or corrupt. The netwok administrator should use TFTP to transfer an IOS image to the router.
D. This prompt signifies that the router could not authenticate the user. The netwok administrator should modify the IOS image and reboot the router.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. The technician wants to upload a new IOS in the router while keeping the existing IOS. What is the maximum size of an IOS file that could be loaded if the original IOS is also kept in flash?

A. 3 MB
B. 4 MB
C. 5 MB
D. 7 MB
E. 8 MB
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
When upgrading the IOS image, the network administrator receives the exhibited error message. What could be the cause of this error?

A. The new IOS image is too large for the router flash memory.
B. The TFTP server is unreachable from the router.
C. The new IOS image is not correct for this router platform.
D. The IOS image on the TFTP server is corrupt.
E. There is not enough disk space on the TFTP server for the IOS image.
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 36
Drop A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 37
Refer to the exhibit. The two exhibited devices are the only Cisco devices on the network. The serial network between the two devices has a mask of 255.255.255.252. Given the output that is shown, what three statements are true of these devices? (Choose three.)

e
A. The Manchester serial address is 10.1.1.1.
B. The Manchester serial address is 10.1.1.2.
C. The London router is a Cisco 2610.
D. The Manchester router is a Cisco 2610.
E. The CDP information was received on port Serial0/0 of the Manchester router.
F. The CDP information was sent by port Serial0/0 of the London router.

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 38
While troubleshooting a network connectivity problem, a technician observes steady link lights on both the workstation NIC and the switch port to which the workstation is connected. However, when the ping command is issued from the workstation, the output message “Request timed out.” is displayed. At which layer of the OSI model does the problem most likely exist?
A. the session layer
B. the protocol layer
C. the data link layer
D. the access layer
E. the network layer
F. the application layer

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 39
A network administrator has configured two switches, named London and Madrid, to use VTP. However, the switches are not sharing VTP messages. Given the command output shown in the graphic, why are these switches not sharing VTP messages?

A. The VTP version is not correctly configured.
B. The VTP operating mode is not correctly configured.
C. The VTP domain name is not correctly configured.
D. VTP pruning mode is disabled.
E. VTP V2 mode is disabled.
F. VTP traps generation is disabled.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
Refer to the exhibit. After HostA pings HostB, which entry will be in the ARP cache of HostA to support this transmission?

A. D

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
In order to allow the establishment of a Telnet session with a router, which set of commands must be configured?
A. router(config)# line console 0 router(config-line)# enable password cisco
B. router(config)# line console 0 router(config-line)# enable secret cisco router(config-line)# login
C. router(config)# line console 0 router(config-line)# password cisco router(config-line)# login
D. router(config)# line vty 0 router(config-line)# enable password cisco
E. router(config)# line vty 0 router(config-line)# enable secret cisco router(config-line)# login
F. router(config)# line vty 0 router(config-line)# password cisco router(config-line)# login

Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 42
Host 1 is trying to communicate with Host 2. The e0 interface on Router C is down. Which of the following are true? (Choose two.)

A. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1 that Host 2 cannot be reached.
B. Router C will use ICMP to inform Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.
C. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1, Router A, and Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.
D. Router C will send a Destination Unreachable message type.
E. Router C will send a Router Selection message type.
F. Router C will send a Source Quench message type.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 43
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the router is configured with the default settings, what type of router interface is this?

A. Ethernet
B. FastEthernet
C. Gigabit Ethernet
D. asynchronous serial
E. synchronous serial

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 44
Which two topologies are using the correct type of twisted-pair cables? (Choose two.)
A. D E
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 45
On point-to-point networks, OSPF hello packets are addressed to which address?
A. 127.0.0.1
B. 172.16.0.1
C. 192.168.0.5
D. 223.0.0.1
E. 224.0.0.5
F. 254.255.255.255

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 46

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QUESTION 56
Why do SNMP counters often show different numbers than Cisco IOS CLI show commands?
A. The counter output from a CLI show command cannot be reset on interfaces.
B. SNMP counters use SNMPv3 values, whereas CLI show commands use SNMPv2 values
C. SNMP uses 64-bit counters, whereas CLI show commands use 32-bit counters.
D. The only way to reset the SNMP counters is to reload the box.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
When closing a trouble ticket, why is closure categorization very important?
A. It helps to identify the person who opened the ticket.
B. It helps to identify the name of the staff who worked on the incident
C. It clearly identifies ticket open time.
D. It helps to identify the cause of an outage.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
According to the ITIL?v3 framework, which two formulas are commonly used to calculate priority? (Choose two.)
A. priority = urgency + impact
B. priority = severity + impact
C. priority = urgency x impact
D. priority = severity x urgency

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 59
Which three protocols can you use to collect detailed configuration information on network devices for inventory purposes? (Choose three.)
A. SNMP
B. IPSLA
C. RMON
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol
E. NetFlow
F. SSH

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 60
According to the ITIL?v3 framework, what activity is required to implement reboots, repairs, or workarounds?
A. initiate connection to the device and enter privileged mode at the CLI
B. initiate a request for change
C. full documentation and closure of the incident record
D. ensure fix or workaround is compliant with existing configuration standards

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 61
After notifying the customer about an SLA issue, what should you do?
A. Notify theSLA manager so that they can issue a credit to the customer.
B. Document who you contacted about theSLA issue by opening or updating a ticket
C. Log the call and wait for a response from the customer.
D. Open a trouble ticket with the information collected from the customer.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 62
According to the ITIL?v3 framework, which of these three processes are common inputs to root cause analysis? (Choose three.)
A. event management
B. incident management
C. proactive problem management
D. change management
Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 63
Which technique is used to set up an early warning system for impending service-level violations?
A. MOS scoring
B. configuration change events
C. threshold-crossing events
D. event-based alarming

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 64
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Which three of these factors are important information in a network change document? (Choose three.)
A. detailed information about the steps required to carry out the process of network change
B. steps to verify the accuracy of the network change after the change has taken place
C. a rollback plan, in case the network change is not successful
D. a detailed inventory of all types of hardware and devices used in the network
E. a complete list of all types of software used in the network

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 65
A software upgrade is performed on some of the routers in a network. What would be your first major verification step after the upgrade?
A. check show version
B. checkconfig-register
C. check routing table
D. check logs for errors
E. check if router prompt has changed
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 66
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Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 67
According to the ITIL?v3 framework, which three statements are true with regard to effective problem management? (Choose three.)
A. The goal of problem management is similar to the goal of incident management.
B. Resources dedicated to problem management are more effective than resources dedicated solely to managing incidents.
C. A problem ticket can be opened as a result of a single incident ticket.
D. It is desirable to align incident and problem management categories.
E. Like incident management, problem management is reactive in nature.
F. All incidents ultimately require a problem ticket for final closure.

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 68
Network inventory is polled once per week on Saturdays.A new router is being installed on Sunday.Which of these network managers should be synchronized with the inventory manager in order to have the most up-to-date device list as soon as possible?
A. Cisco Performance Manager
B. CMDB
C. Syslog Manager
D. Manager of Managers
E. CiscoWorks Fault Manager

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 69
Your fault management system indicates that an “interface down” event was received five minutes ago, followed by an “interface up” event three minutes later. What should you do?
A. Open a trouble ticket and begin troubleshooting the outage.
B. Verify that there were no changes made to the device recently.
C. Monitor the device for additional interface events before taking any action.
D. Escalate to a level 2 NOC engineer immediately.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 70
A customer complained about their network performance. You scheduled a change request that will reroute their traffic through a different node to improve performance. What must you
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do to verify that this change had the desired results?
A. Validate the customerSLA for performance through the network.
B. Collect baseline performance data before and after the change.
C. Contact the customer to ensure that their performance has improved
D. Document the change request so that there is an audit trail.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 71

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Exam A QUESTION 1
When using an Inline-Power enabled Catalyst Switch, which pins are used to supply Inline-Power to an IP Phone?
A. Pins 1, 2, 3, and 6
B. Pins 1, 2, 5, and 6
C. Pins 2, 4, 6, and 8
D. Pins 3, 4, 7, and 8
E. Pins 4, 5, 7, and 8
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 2
When using a Cisco Inline-Power Patch-Panel, which pins are used to supply Inline-Power to the IP Phone?
A. Pins 1, 2, 3, and 6
B. Pins 1, 2, 5, and 6
C. Pins 2, 4, 6, and 8
D. Pins 3, 4, 7, and 8
E. Pins 4, 5, 7, and 8
Correct Answer: E QUESTION 3
You are a network administrator at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what
protocol IP Phone uses to learn the Voice VLAN ID it should use for Voice traffic.
What will your reply be?

A. Skinny Station Protocol
B. 802.1q
C. LLQ
D. VTP 350-030

E. CDP
Correct Answer: E QUESTION 4
You are the network administrator at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know
what MailStore options are supported in Unity version 2.4.6.
What will your reply be?

A. MS Mail
B. Domino
C. Exchange 2000
D. Exchange 5.5
E. None of the above Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5

You are a network administrator at Certkiller . Certkiller has a Unity3.0/ and Exchange 2000 system. Which of the following attributes will be stored in Active Directory? (Choose three.)
A. Transfer Type (Supervised, Release to switch)
B. Location ID
C. Alternate Extensions
D. Recorded Name
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 6
You are a network administrator at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what
Network Management Server (NMS) application she can use to monitor Voice quality by polling the SNMP
MIB for MQC.
What will your reply be?

A. Voice Health Monitor
B. Quality of Service Policy Manager 350-030
C. Internetwork Performance Monitor
D. Resource Manager Essentials
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 7
You are the network administrator at Certkiller . The Certkiller network and the complete MPLS router QoS configuration is shown in the following exhibit:

The LAN switches (and any other equipment in the cloud) do not mark or remark the packets.
With regard to the QoS configuration in the exhibit, when IP Phone A calls IP Phone B, how will the voice
and signalling packets be marked by the time they arrive at IP Phone B?

A. Voice: IP Precedence 5: Signaling 3
B. Voice: DSCP AF ; Signaling : DSCP EF31
C. Voice: IP Precedence 5; Signaling 3: 0
D. Voice: DSCP EF; Signaling : DSCP EF31
E. Voice: DSCP EF; Signaling : 0

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
You are a network administrator at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what
protocol an IP Phone uses to learn the IP Address of its TFTP Server.
What will your reply be?

A. CDP
350-030

B. OSPF
C. HSRP
D. EIGRP
E. DHCP
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 9
With regard to jitter, which of the following statements are true?
A. Jitter is the variation from the time that a packet is expected to be received and when it is actually received. Voice devices have to compensate for jitter by setting up a playout buffer to accept voice in a smooth fashion and avoid discontinuity in the voice stream.
B. Jitter is the actual delay from the time that a packet is expected to be transmitted and when it actually is transmitted. Voice devices have to compensate for jitter by setting up a playin buffer to play back voice in a smooth fashion and avoid discontinuity in the voice stream.
C. Jitter is the actual delay from the time that a packet is expected to be transmitted and when it actually is transmitted. Voice devices have to compensate for jitter by setting up a playout buffer to play back voice in a smooth fashion and avoid discontinuity in the voice stream.
D. Jitter is the variation from the time that a packet is expected to be received and when it is actually received. Voice devices have to compensate for jitter by setting up a playin buffer to accept voice in a smooth fashion and avoid discontinuity in the voice stream.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
You are a network administrator at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what
the differences between Type of Service (ToS) and Class of Service (CoS) are.
What will your reply be? (Choose two.)

A. CoS allows a class based access to the media, but ToS prioritizes this access according to the precedence bit.
B. CoS is a field in the IP header, but ToS is evaluated by the routing protocol.
C. CoS is a Layer 2 mechanism, but ToS is a Layer 3 mechanism.
Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 11

You are a network engineer at Certkiller . The Certkiller network is shown in the following exhibit:

You have just configured the Catalyst 6000 with the following commands:
set qos enable set port qos 5/1-48 vlan-based set port qos 5/1-48 trust-ext untrusted set port qos 5/1-48
trust trust-cos We assume that the IP Phone is connected to port 5/1, which of the following statements are
true? (Choose three.)

A. The IP Phone will re-write the CoS of 802.1p/Q-tagged packets form the PC to CoS=0.
B. The IP phone will not modify the DSCP of packets from the PC.
C. The Catalyst 6000 will not modify the CoS of any packets received on port 5/1.
D. The Catalyst 6000 switch port 5/1 will re-write the CoS of all packets received on VLAN 110 with CoS=5.
E. The Catalyst 6000 switch port 5/1 will re-write all packets with a Cos=0.
Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 12
You are the network administrator at Certkiller . The Certkiller network is shown in the following exhibit:

The default gateway in the Certkiller network is a 6608 blade that is running MGCP.
Call Manager runs version 3.1. Certkiller users will make calls from Phone A to Phone X. All IP streaming
is G.711. Each of the logical links in the Certkiller network carries different types of traffic.
On which link can q.921 traffic be sent?

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 3 and 4
E. 4 only
Correct Answer: E QUESTION 13
You are a network administrator at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what
the term “MGCP backhaul” means.
What will your reply be?

A. Transporting T1 CAS messaging to the MGCP Call Agent across IP.
B. Transporting ISDN Q.931 messaging to the MGCP Call Agent across IP.
C. Transporting ISDN Q.921 messaging to the MGCP Call Agent across IP.
D. Transporting ISDN Q.931 messaging into MGCP events to the MGCP Call Agent.
E. Encapsulating ISDN Q.931 CDR records to a RADIUS server.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 14
You are the network administrator at Certkiller . Certkiller has a CM network deployed with MGCP to the branch office GWs. The Certkiller network is shown in the following exhibit:

You want to protect the protect branch office telephony (IP phone to IP Phone, and IP Phone to PSTN) in
the event of a WAN failure.
Which design methods could you implement? (Choose two.)

A. SRST
B. MGCP gateway fallback
C. CM clustering
D. Primary and Secondary CMs

E. CAC
Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 15
You are the network administrator at Certkiller . The Certkiller network is shown in the following exhibit:

A Certkiller user at PhoneA has finished a call. He later notice that “CM Fallback Service Operating” is
displayed on Phone A.
What is the possible cause of this? (Choose two.)

A. The TCP connection between CallManager and PhoneA has been disrupted. 350-030
B. The FE on HQ-GW is out of service.
C. The FXO port on Remote-GW is out of service.
D. The FE on Remote-GW is out of service.
E. Remote-GW has not received any messages from CallManager within the timeout period.
Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 16
You are the network administrator at Certkiller . The Certkiller Voice network is shown in the following exhibit:

The default gateway in the Certkiller network is a 6608 blade that is running MGCP.
Call Manager runs version 3.1. Certkiller users will make calls from Phone A to Phone X. All IP streaming
is G.711. Each of the logical links in the Certkiller network carries different types of traffic.
On which link can Skinny (SCCP) traffic be seen?

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 350-030
C. 1, 3, and 4
D. 2, and 3
E. 2, 3, and 4
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 17
On which of the following does the maximum device weight capacity a Cisco MCS server depend? (Choose three.)
A. The quantity and the type of phones configured on the Cisco MCS server.
B. CCM software release version.
C. The amount of memory, CPU and I/O throughput.
D. The server model and type.
Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 18
You are the network administrator at Certkiller . The Certkiller WAN is shown in the following exhibit:

The remote Certkiller user at Analog Phone A tries to make a call to Analog Phone D. The call is rejected.
You troubleshoot the problem and discover that the ISDN Plan and Type that the PSTN was receiving was
not setup correctly. The PSTN was expecting the following:
Plan: Unknown Type: Unknown While the PSTN was receiving the following:
Plan:ISDN Type: Unknown Which methods will resolve this problem?

A. Use the isdn map command on the POST dialpeer on Remote-GW.
B. Use the isdn map command on the VOIP dialpeer on HQ-GW.
C. Use the isdn map command on the POTS dialpeer on HQ-GW.
D. Implement an outgoing translation rule on the VOIP dialpeer on HQ-GW.
E. Use the isdn map command on the VOIP dialpeer on Remote-GW.
350-030

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
Migrating form TDM voice requirements to VoIP usually does not cause migration issues for customers who expect to be:
A. Deploying in a Green-Field scenario.
B. Fully IP in 1 to 3 years.
C. Fully IP within 12 months.
D. All of the above.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 20
You are the network administrator at Certkiller . The Certkiller network is shown in the following exhibit:

You want to implement Caller ID for calls from PSTN to the IP Phones. Analog trunks are equipped to the
PSTN from both the GWs. The PSTN CO switch is capable of delivering Caller ID on the connection to the
Cisco voice GW. The Cisco voice gateway is using a VIC-2FXO-M1 card.
What would be the correct voice GW design?

A. None. Caller ID is not supported on analog FXO.
B. GW connected via SCCP to the CallManager.
C. GW must be a 2600/3600/3700 series platform.
D. GW connected via MGCP to the CallManager.
E. GW connected via H.323 to the CallManager.
350-030 Correct Answer: E QUESTION 21
You are a network administrator at Certkiller . Certkiller has recently joined a ISP that offers debit card calling from the US to other locations around the world where they only have FXO connectivity to the PSTN. The Certkiller network is shown in the following exhibit:

It is crucial to the ISP to ensure that their consumers are not charged for the call unless the call
successfully reached the called party in the PSTN.
Which of the following design requirements will achieve the ISP’s desired results?

A. Use Voice Activity Detection (VAD) to determine whether or not a person answered the call.
B. Use CDR records to determine which calls resulted in “ring no answer” and which calls were answered.
C. Configure call progress tone detection on the FXO interface to indicate disconnect supervision.
D. Avoid use of FXO for this application.
E. Configure call progress tone detection on the FXO interface to indicate answer supervision.

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 22
You are the network administrator at Certkiller . The Certkiller network is shown in the following exhibit:

You want Caller ID be displayed for all phones connected to the PBXs, as well as for calls going in both
directions across the IP network. The PBXs only have analog (FXS, FXO and E&M) capabilities to connect
to the Cisco voice GWs.
What design will satisfy this requirement?

A. All of FXS, FXO and E&M, provided that the FXO cards support Caller ID. 350-030
B. 2-wire and 4-wire E&M.
C. 4-wire E&M and FXO.
D. FXS and E&M only.
E. None with only analog capability.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 23
Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what type of signaling can provide automatic
Number Identifications (ANI) on a T1/E1 line.
What will your reply be? Select two.

A. E&M-fgd
B. Loop Start
C. PRI
D. E&M-fgb
Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 24
You are the network administrator at Certkiller . The Certkiller network is shown in the following exhibit:

The PBX does not receive the initial few digits from the IP side of the 2611 network. What should you do?
A. Configure prefix delay, in the dial-peer POTS to add the delay.
B. Configure interdigit timing 1 under the voice-port.
C. Configure prefix, in the dial-peer POTS to forward the necessary digits.
D. Configure delay-dial under the voice-port to add the delay.

Correct Answer: D
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