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2018 New Pass4isture Microsoft 70-341 Dumps Version: Candidates for this exam are senior administrators who act as the technical lead over a team of administrators. Candidates serve as a third level of support between the Exchange Recipient Administrator and the Exchange Server Administrator. Candidates should have a minimum of three years of experience managing Exchange servers and Exchange messaging in an enterprise environment.
QUESTION 1
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization named adatum.com. The organization contains five Mailbox servers and two Client Access servers. You need to ensure that an administrator named user1 receives a daily email message that contains a log of all the Exchange Server administrative actions. Which cmdlet should you use in a scheduled task?
A. Search-AdminAuditLog
B. Set-Mailbox
C. New-AdminAuditLogSearch
D. Set-ExchangeServer
E. Set-AdminAuditLogConfig
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 270-341 dumps
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization named Contoso. The organization contains a server named Server1 that has Exchange Server 2013 installed. Server1 has the Mailbox server role and the Client Access server role installed. Server1 has a Send connector for a partner company. The Send connector is configured for Domain Security with a domain named adatum.com.
The only certificate installed on Server1 expires. You discover that all email messages sent to adatum.com remain in the queue on Server1. On Server1, you install a new certificate from a trusted third-party. You need to ensure that the email messages are delivered to adatum.com. What should you do?
A. Assign the new certificate to the IIS service.
B. Send the new certificate to the administrator at adatum.com.
C. Assign the new certificate to the SMTP service.
D. Create a new send connector that contains an address space to adatum.com.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A user fails to connect to his mailbox by using Outlook Anywhere. The user successfully connects to the mailbox by using an Exchange ActiveSync-enabled mobile device and Outlook Web App. You need to identify what prevents the users from connecting to the mailbox by using Outlook Anywhere. Which tool should you use?
A. Microsoft Outlook
B. Microsoft Exchange Server Deployment Assistant
C. Microsoft Exchange RPC Extractor
D. Microsoft Exchange Server Profile Analyzer
E. Microsoft Exchange Server User Monitor
F. Microsoft Exchange Load Generator
G. Exchange Remote Connectivity Analyzer
H. Exchange Server MAPI Editor
Correct Answer: G

2018 New Pass4isture Microsoft 70-410 Dumps Version: This exam is part one of a series of three exams that test the skills and knowledge necessary to implement a core Windows Server 2012 infrastructure in an existing enterprise environment. Passing this exam validates a candidate’s ability to implement and configure Windows Server 2012 core services, such as Active Directory and the networking services. Passing this exam along with the other two exams confirms that a candidate has the skills and knowledge necessary for implementing, managing, maintaining, and provisioning services and infrastructure in a Windows Server 2012 environment.
QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All client computer accounts are in an organizational unit (OU) named AllComputers. Client computers run either windows 7 or Windows 8.
You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1.
You link GP1 to the AllComputers OU.
You need to ensure that GP1 applies only to computers that have more than 8 GB of memory. What should you configure?
A. The Security settings of GP1
B. The Block Inheritance option for AllComputers
C. The Security settings of AllComputers
D. The WMI filter for GP1
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI) filters allow you to dynamically determine the scope of Group Policy objects (GPOs) based on attributes of the target computer. When a GPO that is linked to a WMI filter is applied on the target computer, the filter is evaluated on the target computer. If the WMI filter evaluates to false, the GPO is not applied (except if the client computer is running Windows Server, in which case the filter is ignored and the GPO is always applied).If the WMI filter evaluates to true, the GPO is applied.
References: Training Guide: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012 R2: Chapter 10: Implementing Group Policy, p.470, 482

QUESTION 270-410 dumps
Your network contains multiple subnets. On one of the subnets, you deploy a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You install the DNS Server server role on Server1, and then you create a standard primary zone named contoso.com.
You need to ensure that client computers can resolve single-label names to IP addresses. What should you do first?
A. Create a reverse lookup zone.
B. Convert the contoso.com zone to an Active Directory-integrated zone.
C. Create a GlobalNames zone.
D. Configure dynamic updates for contoso.com.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You should use GlobalNames zone to take advantage of single-label names. This will also ensure that the zone remains valid.
References:

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The DNS zone for contoso.com is Active-Directory integrated. The domain contains 500 client computers. There are an additional 20 computers in a workgroup. You discover that every client computer on the network can add its record to the contoso.com zone. You need to ensure that only the client computers in the Active Directory domain can register records in the contoso.com zone. What should you do?
A. Sign the contoso.com zone by using DNSSEC.
B. Configure the Dynamic updates settings of the contoso.com zone.
C. Configure the Security settings of the contoso.com zone.
D. Move the contoso.com zone to a domain controller that is configured as a DNS server.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
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Latest and Most Accurate Pass4itsure 70-742 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-16)

QUESTION 1
What is the essential difference between an `Ethical Hacker’ and a `Cracker’?
A. The ethical hacker does not use the same techniques or skills as a cracker.
B. The ethical hacker does it strictly for financial motives unlike a cracker.
C. The ethical hacker has authorization from the owner of the target.
D. The ethical hacker is just a cracker who is getting paid.
70-742 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The ethical hacker uses the same techniques and skills as a cracker and the motive is to find the security breaches before a cracker does. There is nothing that says that a cracker does not get paid for the work he does, a ethical hacker has the owners authorization and will get paid even if he does not succeed to penetrate the target.
QUESTION 2
What does the term “Ethical Hacking” mean?
A. Someone who is hacking for ethical reasons.
B. Someone who is using his/her skills for ethical reasons.
C. Someone who is using his/her skills for defensive purposes.
D. Someone who is using his/her skills for offensive purposes.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Ethical hacking is only about defending your self or your employer against malicious persons by using the same techniques and skills.
QUESTION 3
Who is an Ethical Hacker?
A. A person who hacks for ethical reasons
B. A person who hacks for an ethical cause
C. A person who hacks for defensive purposes
D. A person who hacks for offensive purposes
70-742 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Ethical hacker is a security professional who applies his hacking skills for defensive purposes.
QUESTION 4
What is “Hacktivism”?
A. Hacking for a cause
B. Hacking ruthlessly
C. An association which groups activists
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The term was coined by author/critic Jason Logan King Sack in an article about media artist Shu Lea Cheang. Acts of hacktivism are carried out in the belief that proper use of code will have leveraged effects similar to regular activism or civil disobedience.
QUESTION 5
Where should a security tester be looking for information that could be used by an attacker against an organization? (Select all that apply)
A. CHAT rooms
B. WHOIS database
C. News groups
D. Web sites
E. Search engines
F. Organization’s own web site
70-742 pdf Correct Answer: ABCDEF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A Security tester should search for information everywhere that he/she can access. You never know where you find that small piece of information that could penetrate a strong defense.
QUESTION 6
What are the two basic types of attacks?Choose two.
A. DoS
B. Passive

C. Sniffing
D. Active
E. Cracking
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Passive and active attacks are the two basic types of attacks.
QUESTION 7
The United Kingdom (UK) he passed a law that makes hacking into an unauthorized network a felony.
The law states:
Section1 of the Act refers to unauthorized access to computer material. This states that a person commits an offence if he causes a computer to perform any function with intent to secure unauthorized access to any program or data held in any computer. For a successful conviction under this part of the Act, the prosecution must prove that the access secured is unauthorized and that the suspect knew that this was the case. This section is designed to deal with common or-graden hacking. Section 2 of the deals with unauthorized access with intent to commit or facilitate the commission of further offences. An offence is committed under Section 2 if a Section 1 offence has been committed and there is the intention of committing or facilitating a further offense (any offence which attacks a custodial sentence of more than five years, not necessarily one covered but the Act). Even if it is not possible to prove the intent to commit the further offence, the Section 1 offence is still committed. Section 3 Offences cover unauthorized modification of computer material, which generally means the creation and distribution of viruses. For conviction to succeed there must have been the intent to cause the modifications and knowledge that the modification had not been authorized

What is the law called?
A. Computer Misuse Act 1990
B. Computer incident Act 2000
C. Cyber Crime Law Act 2003
D. Cyber Space Crime Act 1995
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Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Computer Misuse Act (1990) creates three criminal offences:
QUESTION 8
Which of the following best describes Vulnerability?
A. The loss potential of a threat
B. An action or event that might prejudice security
C. An agent that could take advantage of a weakness
D. A weakness or error that can lead to compromise
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A vulnerability is a flaw or weakness in system security procedures, design or implementation that could be exercised (accidentally triggered or intentionally exploited) and result in a harm to an IT system or activity.
QUESTION 9
Steven works as a security consultant and frequently performs penetration tests for Fortune 500 companies. Steven runs external and internal tests and then creates reports to show the companies where their weak areas are. Steven always signs a non-disclosure agreement before performing his tests. What would Steven be considered?
A. Whitehat Hacker
B. BlackHat Hacker
C. Grayhat Hacker
D. Bluehat Hacker
70-742 exam 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A white hat hacker, also rendered as ethical hacker, is, in the realm of information technology, a person who is ethically opposed to the abuse of computer systems. Realization that the Internet now represents human voices from around the world has made the defense of its integrity an important pastime for many. A white hat generally focuses on securing IT systems, whereas a black hat (the opposite) would like to break into them.
QUESTION 10
Which of the following act in the united states specifically criminalizes the transmission of unsolicited commercial e mail(SPAM) without an existing business relationship.
A. 2004 CANSPAM Act
B. 2003 SPAM Preventing Act
C. 2005 US-SPAM 1030 Act
D. 1990 Computer Misuse Act
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The CAN-SPAM Act of 2003 (Controlling the Assault of Non-Solicited Pornography and Marketing Act) establishes requirements for those who send commercial email, spells out penalties for spammers and companies whose products are advertised in spam if they violate the law, and gives consumers the right to ask emailers to stop spamming them. The law, which became effective January 1, 2004, covers email whose primary purpose is advertising or promoting a commercial product or service, including content on a Web site. A “transactional or relationship message” email that facilitates an agreed-upon transaction or updates a customer in an existing business relationship may not contain false or misleading routing information, but otherwise is exempt from most provisions of the CAN-SPAM Act.
QUESTION 11
ABC.com is legally liable for the content of email that is sent from its systems, regardless of whether the message was sent for private or business-related purpose. This could lead to prosecution for the sender and for the company’s directors if, for example, outgoing email was found to contain material that was pornographic, racist or likely to incite someone to commit an act of terrorism. You can always defend yourself by “ignorance of the law” clause.
A. True
B. False
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Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Ignorantia juris non excusat or Ignorantia legis neminem excusat (Latin for “ignorance of the law does not excuse” or “ignorance of the law excuses no one”) is a public policy holding that a person who is unaware of a law may not escape liability for violating that law merely because he or she was unaware of its content; that is, persons have presumed knowledge of the law. Presumed knowledge of the law is the principle in jurisprudence that one is bound by a law even if one does not know of it. It has also been defined as the “prohibition of ignorance of the law”.

QUESTION 12
You are footprinting Acme.com to gather competitive intelligence. You visit the acme.com websire for contact information and telephone number numbers but do not find it listed there. You know that they had the entire staff directory listed on their website 12 months ago but now it is not there. How would it be possible for you to retrieve information from the website that is outdated?
A. Visit google search engine and view the cached copy.
B. Visit Archive.org site to retrieve the Internet archive of the acme website.
C. Crawl the entire website and store them into your computer.
D. Visit the company’s partners and customers website for this information.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Internet Archive (IA) is a non-profit organization dedicated to maintaining an archive of Web and multimedia resources. Located at the Presidio in San Francisco, California, this archive includes “snapshots of the World Wide Web” (archived copies of pages, taken at various points in time), software, movies, books, and audio recordings (including recordings of live concerts from bands that allow it). This site is found at www.archive.org.
QUESTION 13
User which Federal Statutes does FBI investigate for computer crimes involving e-mail scams and mail fraud?
A. 18 U.S.C 1029 Possession of Access Devices
B. 18 U.S.C 1030 Fraud and related activity in connection with computers
C. 18 U.S.C 1343 Fraud by wire, radio or television
D. 18 U.S.C 1361 Injury to Government Property
E. 18 U.S.C 1362 Government communication systems
F. 18 U.S.C 1831 Economic Espionage Act
G. 18 U.S.C 1832 Trade Secrets Act
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Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 14
Which of the following activities will NOT be considered as passive footprinting?
A. Go through the rubbish to find out any information that might have been discarded.
B. Search on financial site such as Yahoo Financial to identify assets.
C. Scan the range of IP address found in the target DNS database.
D. Perform multiples queries using a search engine.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Passive footprinting is a method in which the attacker never makes contact with the target systems. Scanning the range of IP addresses found in the target DNS is considered making contact to the systems behind the IP addresses that is targeted by the scan.
QUESTION 15
Which one of the following is defined as the process of distributing incorrect Internet Protocol (IP) addresses/names with the intent of diverting traffic?
A. Network aliasing
B. Domain Name Server (DNS) poisoning
C. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
D. Port scanning
70-742 vce 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
This reference is close to the one listed DNS poisoning is the correct answer. This is how DNS DOS attack can occur. If the actual DNS records are unattainable to the attacker for him to alter in this fashion, which they should be, the attacker can insert this data into the cache of there server instead of replacing the actual records, which is referred to as cache poisoning.
QUESTION 16
You are footprinting an organization to gather competitive intelligence. You visit the company’s website for contact information and telephone numbers but do not find it listed there. You know that they had the entire staff directory listed on their website 12 months ago but not it is not there. How would it be possible for you to retrieve information from the website that is outdated?
A. Visit google’s search engine and view the cached copy.
B. Visit Archive.org web site to retrieve the Internet archive of the company’s website.
C. Crawl the entire website and store them into your computer.
D. Visit the company’s partners and customers website for this information.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 66
You have an existing Active Directory site named Site1. You create a new Active Directory site and name it Site2. You need to configure Active Directory replication between Site1 and Site2. You install a new domain controller. You create the site link between Site1 and Site2. What should you do next?
A. Use the Active Directory Sites and Services console to configure a new site link bridge object.
B. Use the Active Directory Sites and Services console to decrease the site link cost between Site1 and Site2.
C. Use the Active Directory Sites and Services console to assign a new IP subnet to Site2. Move the new domain controller object to Site2.
D. Use the Active Directory Sites and Services console to configure the new domain controller as a preferred bridgehead server for Site1.
70-410 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
Your company has an Active Directory forest. Not all domain controllers in the forest are configured as Global Catalog Servers. Your domain structure contains one root domain and one child domain. You modify the folder permissions on a file server that is in the child domain. You discover that some Access Control entries start with S-1-5-21 and that no account name is listed. You need to list the account names. What should you do?
A. Move the RID master role in the child domain to a domain controller that holds the Global Catalog.
B. Modify the schema to enable replication of the friendlynames attribute to the Global Catalog.
C. Move the RID master role in the child domain to a domain controller that does not hold the Global Catalog.
D. Move the infrastructure master role in the child domain to a domain controller that does not hold the Global Catalog.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 68
Your company has an Active Directory domain. You log on to the domain controller. The Active Directory Schema snap-in is not available in the Microsoft Management Console (MMC). You need to access the Active Directory Schema snap-in. What should you do?
A. Register Schmmgmt.dll.
B. Log off and log on again by using an account that is a member of the Schema Admins group.
C. Use the Ntdsutil.exe command to connect to the schema master operations master and open the schema for writing.
D. Add the Active Directory Lightweight Directory Services (AD/LDS) role to the domain controller by using Server Manager.
70-410 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 69
Your network contains a domain controller that is configured as a DNS server. The server hosts an Active Directory-integrated zone for the domain. You need to reduce how long it takes until stale records are deleted from the zone. What should you do?
A. From the configuration directory partition of the forest, modify the tombstone lifetime.
B. From the configuration directory partition of the forest, modify the garbage collection interval.
C. From the aging properties of the zone, modify the no-refresh interval and the refresh interval.
D. From the start of authority (SOA) record of the zone, modify the refresh interval and the expire interval.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 70
You have an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You have a domain controller named Server1 that is configured as a DNS server. Server1 hosts a standard primary zone for contoso.com. The DNS configuration of Server1 is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) You discover that stale resource records are not automatically removed from the contoso.com zone. You need to ensure that the stale resource records are automatically removed from the contoso.com zone.
What should you do?

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A. Set the scavenging period of Server1 to 0 days.
B. Modify the Server Aging/Scavenging properties.
C. Configure the aging properties for the contoso.com zone.
D. Convert the contoso.com zone to an Active Directory-integrated zone.
70-410 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION: 71
Which three BusinessObjects Enterprise XI tasks support XML exporting in Crystal Reports 2008? (Choose three.)
A. Viewing B.
Auditing C.
Publishing
D. Scheduling

Answer: A, C, D
QUESTION: 72
Which statement is true regarding the Object Linking Wizard?
A. Enables report designers to define an URL.
B. Enables report designers to define how a subreport is linked to the main report.
C. Enables report designers to specify how an Xcelsius chart is linked in a report.
D. Enables report designers to specify the order in which subreports should be processed.
70-410 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 73
Which three procedures will create a second Report Header section named “Report Header b.” (Choose three.)
A. Working in the Design window, right-click the grey area containing the section name Report Header and click Insert Line in the shortcut menu to create Report Header b.
B. Working in the Design window, right-click the grey area containing the section name Report Header and click Insert Section Below in the shortcut menu to create Report Header b.
C. On the Common tab of the Section Expert, highlight the Report Header and click the Insert button at the top of the window. Click OK to create Report Header b.
D. Working in the Design window, point to the left boundary of the Report Header until the section splitting cursor appears and drag it down to split the section into Report Header a and Report Header b.
Answer: B, C, D
QUESTION: 74
You create the following array in a new Crystal report: [“dog”, “cat”, 1.25, True] Why do you get an error when you save the formula?
A. The Boolean value must be the first array element.
B. The array elements are not in alphabetical order.
C. You cannot summarize the elements in an array.
D. You cannot have more than one data type in an array.
70-410 exam Answer: D

 

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QUESTION 98
Your network contains one Active Directory domain. The domain contains a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager. The Exchange Server connector is deployed. You need to create a collection that includes only devices that are discovered from Microsoft Exchange Server.  Which criteria should you add to the collection query rule? To answer, select the appropriate criteria in the answer area.
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QUESTION 99
You have a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager. All client computers are configured as Configuration Manager clients. You need to remediate automatically the client computers that are missing a specific registry key. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
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QUESTION 100
You create a VPN profile by using Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-696 dumps

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement.
Hot Area:
70-696 dumps

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QUESTION 101
If a Router originates a type 1 router LSA with the E bit set what types of areas can it belong to? Select all that apply.
A. Not So Stubby Area
B. Stub Area
C. Backbone Area
D. Standard Area
70-696 exam Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 102
Which of the following statements regarding OSPF routing updates on a multi-access network segment is true?
A. In multi-access networks, a DR and BDR are elected only if there are more than two routers connected to the network segment.
B. In multi-access networks, a DR and BDR are elected only if the subnet masks on the router interfaces are less than /30
C. In multi-access networks, a DR and BDR are elected. To ensure resiliency, both the DR and BDR send link-state advertisements describing the network.
D. In multi-access networks, a DR and BDR are elected. The DR sends link-state advertisements describing the network.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 103
An OSPF ASBR must have at least one interface in the backbone area (area 0)
A. True
B. False
70-696 dump Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 104
The Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR supports which two of the OSPF area types below?
A. Not So Stubby Areas
B. Level 1 Areas
C. Stub Areas
D. Partially Stubby Areas
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 105
What command will show the OSPF neighbors, and their status on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. Show ospf neighbors
B. Show router ospf neighbors
C. Show router ospf adjacency
D. Show ospf adjacency
70-696 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 106
Which of the LSA types stay within an OSPF area and are not exported outside of the area? (Choose all that apply)
A. Router LSA
B. Network LSA
C. Summary Network LSA
D. Summary Router LSA
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 107
What is the source IP address in an OSPF update?
A. 224.0.0.5
B. 224.0.0.6
C. The unicast IP address of the interface the update is being sent on.
D. The system address of the router

70-696 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 108
NSSA LSA packets are what type within an NSSA area, and are converted to what other type at the ABR?
A. They are type 7 within the area and are not modified at the ABR
B. They are type 5 within the area and converted to type 3 at the ABR
C. They are type 5 within the area and are not modified at the ABR
D. They are type 7 within the area and converted to type 5 at the ABR
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 109
What best describes the type of packets used by OSPF routers to exchange updates on a pointto- point link?
A. IP packets sent to an IP multicast address.
B. Ethernet frames sent to an Ethernet multicast address.
C. IP packets sent to an IP unicast address.
D. UDP packets sent to an IP multicast address.
70-696 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 110
Graceful Restart is supported by what IGPs?
A. RIPv1 and RIPv2
B. OSPF
C. IS-IS
D. BGP
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 111
What are some of the characteristics of Alcatel-Lucent’s implementation of non-stop routing? (Choose two)
A. No protocol extensions required
B. Only supported by OSPF and IS-IS
C. Transparent to routing neighbors
D. Uses Graceful Restart to inter-operate with other vendors
70-696 dump Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 112
Click the exhibit button.
Two neighboring OSPF routers have exchanged the packets shown. What state is the adjacency in?
A. Full; both routers are exchanging Helios to maintain the adjacency.
B. The adjacency is down.
C. The adjacency is in exstart state.
D. The adjacency is in the exchange state.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 113
When an OSPF adjacency is stuck in the “ExchStart” state, what is the most likely cause?
A. The MTU does not match on both interfaces
B. OSPF is not enabled on one of the routers
C. The Router ID is the same on both routers
D. A OSPF Hello has not been received from the neighbor
70-696 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 114
Select the answer below that correctly lists the 5 different OSPF packet types.
A. Hello, Link State Update, Link State Packet, Link State Acknowledgement, Database Descriptor
B. Link State Update, Link State Refresh, Link State Acknowledgement, Database Descriptor, Notification
C. Hello, Link State Refresh, Link State Update, Link State Acknowledgement, Link State Authentication
D. Hello, Link State Update, Link State Request, Link State Acknowledgement, Database Descriptor
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 115
What causes an adjacency to change from “Init” to “Two Way”?
A. When a Link State Update is received in response to a Link State Request
B. When a router receives a Hello packet from a neighbor that contains its router id in the neighbor list
C. When OSPF neighbors exchange Database Descriptor packets
D. When a Link State Acknowledgement is received in response to a Link State Update
70-696 vce Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 070-413
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure
Q&As: 245

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QUESTION NO: 31
Adam works as a professional Penetration tester. A project has been assigned to him to employ penetration testing on the network of Umbrella Inc. He is running the test from home and had downloaded every security scanner from the Internet. Despite knowing the IP range of all of the systems, and the exact network configuration, Adam is unable to get any useful results. Which of the following is the most like cause of this problem?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Security scanners are only as smart as their database and cannot find unpublished vulnerabilities.
B. Security scanners cannot perform vulnerability linkage.
C. Security scanners are smart as their database and can find unpublished vulnerabilities.
D. Security scanners are not designed to do testing through a firewall.
070-413 exam Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 32
An organization monitors the hard disks of its employees’ computers from time to time. Which policy does this pertain to?
A. Network security policy
B. User password policy
C. Privacy policy
D. Backup policy
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 33
You work as a Network Administrator for Net World International. You have configured the hard disk drive of your computer as shown in the image below: The computer is configured to dual-boot with Windows 2000 Server and Windows 98. While working on Windows 2000 Server, you save a file on the 6GB partition. You are unable to find the file while working on Windows 98. You are not even able to access the partition on which the file is saved. What is the most likely cause?
A. The file is corrupt.
B. The 6GB partition is corrupt.
C. Windows 98 does not support the NTFS file system.
D. Files saved in Windows 98 are not supported by Windows 2000.
070-413 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 34
Peter works as a Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator. He has been called by an organization to conduct a seminar to give necessary information related to sexual harassment within the work place. Peter started with the definition and types of sexual harassment. He then wants to convey that it is important that records of the sexual harassment incidents should be maintained, which helps in further legal prosecution. Which of the following data should be recorded in this documentation?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Names of the victims
B. Date and time of incident
C. Nature of harassment
D. Location of each incident
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 35
Which of the following types of computers is used for attracting potential intruders?
A. Bastion host
B. Data pot
C. Files pot
D. Honey pot
070-413 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 36
Which of the following standard file formats is used by Apple’s iPod to store contact information?
A. HFS+
B. hCard
C. vCard
D. FAT32
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 37
Which of the following file systems cannot be used to install an operating system on the hard disk drive? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Windows NT file system (NTFS)
B. High Performance File System (HPFS)
C. Log-structured file system (LFS)
D. Compact Disc File System (CDFS)
E. Novell Storage Services (NSS)
070-413 vce Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 38
Which of the following types of evidence proves or disproves a specific act through oral testimony based on information gathered through the witness’s five senses?
A. Conclusive evidence
B. Best evidence
C. Hearsay evidence
D. Direct evidence
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 39
Which of the following two cryptography methods are used by NTFS Encrypting File System (EFS) to encrypt the data stored on a disk on a file-by-file basis?
A. Digital certificates
B. Public key
C. RSA
D. Twofish
070-413 exam Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 40
Which of the following sections of an investigative report covers the background and summary of the report including the outcome of the case and the list of allegations?
A. Section 2
B. Section 4
C. Section 3
D. Section 1
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 41
Which of the following switches of the XCOPY command copies attributes while copying files?
A. /o
B. /p
C. /k
D. /s
070-413 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 42
Which of the following directories in Linux operating system contains device files, which refers to physical devices?
A. /boot
B. /etc
C. /dev
D. /bin
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 43
Which of the following directories cannot be placed out of the root filesystem? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. /sbin
B. /etc
C. /var
D. /lib
070-413 pdf Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 44
On which of the following locations does the Windows NT/2000 operating system contain the SAM, SAM.LOG, SECURITY.LOG, APPLICATION.LOG, and EVENT.LOG files?
A. \%Systemroot%system32
B. \%Systemroot%profiles
C. \%Systemroot%system32config
D. \%Systemroot%help
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 45
You are handling technical support calls for an insurance company. A user calls you complaining that he cannot open a file, and that the file name appears in green while opening in Windows Explorer.
What does this mean?
A. The file is encrypted.
B. The file belongs to another user.
C. The file is infected with virus.
D. The file is compressed.
070-413 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 46
Which of the following is a name, symbol, or slogan with which a product is identified?
A. Trade secret
B. Patent
C. Copyright
D. Trademark
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 47
Which of the following file systems supports the hot fixing feature?
A. FAT16
B. exFAT
C. FAT32
D. NTFS
070-413 exam Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-398
Exam Name: Planning for and Managing Devices in the Enterprise
Q&As: 36

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QUESTION 29
Given the following information: A BayStack 460-24T-PWR switch is delivering Power over Ethernet (PoE) to a number of devices connected to it. Currently, all devices that are connected to the switch and require PoE are functioning properly. The switch is connected to both internal and external power sources. The external power source is a BayStack 10 Power Supply Unit (PSU). Currently, “DC Source Type” is set to “BayStack 10” (BayStack 10 PSU) and “DC Source Configuration” is set to “RPSU” (Redundant Power Supply Unit) on the switch. A new device that requires PoE is connected to the switch and fails to power on. The “DTE Power Source” LED for the port used to connect the device then begins to blink amber. Assume that prior to connecting the device to the switch it was tested in the lab and is known to be functioning correctly. What is the most likely cause of this issue and which action should you take to resolve it?
A. The port is administratively disabled. Administratively enable the port to correct the issue.
B. NO Data Terminating Equipment (DTE) has been detected on the port. Check the port and correct a cabling fault to resolve the issue.
C. There is a power fault or short circuit on the port. The port or the cable may be faulty. Connect the
device to a different port. If functioning normally, check the cables and correct a possible cabling fault to resolve the issue.
D. The Data Terminating Equipment (DTE) has been detected on the port, but there is insufficient power
to turn the device on. Change the “DC Source Configuration” setting to “Power Sharing” to provide more
PoE for the switch.
70-398 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 30
How do you configure VLAN port membership on a BayStack 425 10/100/1000 series switch?(Choose two.)
A. Run the QoS Wizard to create new VLAN port members.
B. Access the VLAN configuration screen of the Console Interface (CI) Menu.
C. Create an ASCII configuration file with the required VLAN membership configuration.
D. Use Java Device Manager (JDM) to make the selected ports members of the VLANs.
Answer: BD
QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the fact that the Administration interface symbol extends downward rather than leftward?
Exhibit:

A. The interface is the primary provided interface for the component.
B. The interface is not publicly visible on the component.
C. There is no significance.
D. The interface is the primary interface for the component.
E. The interface cannot be provided via a port.
F. The interface does not require a delegation connector.
70-398 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 32
To what does an internal structure of a class refer?
A. the decomposition of that class in terms of interconnected parts
B. the set of structural features of that class
C. the inheritance structure of that class
D. the set of nested classifiers of that class
E. class and associations owned by that class
Answer: A
QUESTION 33
When an object invokes a ReadSelfAction, what will it retrieve?
A. attribute values for the invoking object
B. invoking object
C. attribute values and links for the invoking object
D. class name of the invoking object
E. name of the invoking activity
70-398 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 34
What is the semantic difference between the two figures in the exhibit?
Exhibit:

A. One is a white-box view, while the other is a black-box view.
B. One is a deployment diagram, while the other is a class diagram.
C. There is no semantic difference.
D. One is a UML 2.0 diagram, while other is a UML 1.5 diagram.
Answer: C
QUESTION 35
What kind of relationship is an extension in UML 2.0?
A. generalization
B. dependency
C. association
D. reification
70-398 vce Answer: C
QUESTION 36
What is true about guards on interaction operands?
A. should not refer to any dynamic variables, i.e., to attributes of the lifelines
B. must only cover one lifeline, namely the one lifeline having the first event occurrence of the interaction operand
C. must always cover all lifelines covered by the operand
D. must cover the same lifelines on all interaction operands within one combined fragment
Answer: B
QUESTION 37
What does via foo in the exhibit designate?
Exhibit:

A. an action foo associated with the transition
B. transient pseudostate named foo
C. a transition terminating on the foo entry point
D. a Boolean guard equal to the logical value of foo
E. the sending of a foo message on the transition
70-398 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 38
Why are profiles NOT a first class extension mechanism?
A. They do not allow for modifying existing metamodels.
B. They do not permit customizing for domains, platforms, and methods.
C. They permit removing constraints that apply to existing metamodels.
D. They do not allow for modifying existing stereotypes.
70-398 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION 39
What must be true for a connector to be well formed if a delegation connector delegates to more than one target port?
A. The interfaces of the target ports must have no features in common.
B. The interface of at least one of the target ports must be signature compatible with the interface that is the type of the source port.
C. The interface of each of the target ports must be signature compatible with the interface that is the type of the source port.
D. The union of the interfaces of the target ports must be signature compatible with the interface that is the type of the source port.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-533
Exam Name: Implementing Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Solutions
Updated: Sep 02, 2017
Q&As: 205

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QUESTION 16
You plan to deploy a 70-533 dumps cloud service named contosoapp that has a web role named contosoweb and a worker role named contosoimagepurge.
You need to ensure the service meets the following requirements:
Contosoweb can be accessed over the Internet by using http.
Contosoimagepurge can only be accessed through tcp port 5001 from contosoweb.
Contosoimagepurge cannot be accessed directly over the Internet.
Which configuration should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate configuration setting to the correct
location in the service configuration file. Each configuration setting may be used once, more than once, or
not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
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Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
70-533 dumps

QUESTION 17
Your development team has created a new solution that is deployed in a virtual network named
fabDevVNet.
Your testing team wants to begin testing the solution in a second Azure subscription.
You need to create a virtual network named fabTestVNet that is identical to fabDevVNet. You want to
achieve this goal by using the least amount of administrative effort.
Which three steps should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list
of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
70-533 dumps

QUESTION 18
You manage an Azure subscription.
You develop a storage plan with the following requirements:
Database backup files that are generated once per year are retained for ten years.
High performance system telemetry logs are created constantly and processed for analysis every month.
In the table below, identify the storage redundancy type that must be used. Make only one selection in
each column.
Hot Area:
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70-533 exam Correct Answer:

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QUESTION 19
You publish a multi-tenant application named MyApp to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).
You need to ensure that only directory administrators from the other organizations can access MyApp’s
web API.
How should you configure MyApp’s manifest JSON file? To answer, drag the appropriate
PowerShell command to the correct location in the application’s manifest JSON file. Each value may be
used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to
view content.
Select and Place:
70-533 dumps

70-533 dumps

QUESTION 20
You manage an Azure Web Site for a consumer-product company.
The website runs in Standard mode on a single medium instance.
You expect increased traffic to the website due to an upcoming sale during a holiday weekend.
You need to ensure that the website performs optimally when user activity is at its highest.
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QUESTION: 21
What is the best test to help determine ejection fraction at rest and during exercise?
A. Angiography.

B. Thallium stress test.
C. Single-proton emission computer tomography.
D. MUGA (blood pool imagery) study.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 22
A “cold spot” detected in the inferior portion of the left ventricle during a stress test that
resolves 3 hours later most likely indicates
A. An old inferior MI.
B. A MI that is healing.
C. Reversible myocardial ischemia.
D. The need for multiple bypass surgery.
70-533 vce Answer: C
QUESTION: 23
What is the best test of cardiovascular function for a client who is obese, has claudication
in the legs, and has limited mobility because of neurologic damage from uncontrolled
diabetes?
A. Dipyridamole or dobutamine testing and assessment of cardiovascular variables.
B. Discontinuous treadmill exercise test.
C. Resting echocardiography.
D. Continuous submaximal cycle ergometer test.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 24
Although 12-lead testing is the optimal 70-533 dumps ECG configuration, if only one lead can be used,
which one should it be?
A. Lead II.
B. Lead AV
L.
C. Lead V5
D. Lead V1
Answer: C
QUESTION: 25
Which of the following is an indication for terminating an exercise test?
A. The client requests test termination.
B. The respiratory exchange rate exceeds 0.95.
C. The maximal heart rate exceeds 200 bpm.
D. The RPE exceeds 17 on the standard scale.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 26
Given the sensitivity of the exercise ECG, stress testing conducted on 100 cardiac
rehabilitation clients with documented CAD would be expected to produce what results?
A. All 100 clients show ECG indicators of CAD.
B. Approximately 50 clients show ECG indicators of CAD.
C. Approximately 30 clients would show ECG indicators of CAD.
D. Approximately 70 clients would show ECG indicators of CAD.
70-533 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 27
What action should you take for a 55-year-old client who has three risk factors for heart
disease and complains of fatigue on exertion?
A. Conduct a submaximal stress test without the presence of a physician.
B. Conduct a maximal diagnostic stress test in the presence of a physician.
C. Use a questionnaire to evaluate activity, and do not conduct a test.
D. Start the client exercising slowly, and test after 6 weeks.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 28
Which two public methods must be implemented in a functional custom shipping method directly
extending Mage_Shipping_Model_Carrier_Abstract and also implementing
Mage_Shipping_Model_Carrier_Interface? (Choose two)
A. collectRates()
B. getAllowedMethods()
C. isTrackingAvailable()
D. isFixed()
E. getConfigData()
F. checkAvailableShipCountries()
70-533 pdf Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 29
Which of the following is the default setup script class name?
A. Mage_Core_Model_Mysql4_Setup
B. Mage_Core_Model_Resource_Setup_Default
C. Mage_Setup_Model_Resource_Default
D. Mage Core Model Resource Setup
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 30
You need to implement private sales utilizing Website Restrictions as provided by the Enterprise
Edition of Magento, and when customers are not logged in, you want them to be redirected to a
landing page. Where in the Magento admin would you find the settings needed for this task?

A. System -> Configuration -> Enterprise -> Website Restrictions
B. System -> Configuration -> General -> Website Restrictions
C. System -> Manage Stores -> Edit Website
D. System -> Permissions -> Website Restrictions
70-533 vce Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 31
Assume that PayPal has presented a new API for online purchasing that you are going to use.
Which class should you extend for doing that?
A. Mage_Sales_Model_Quote_Payment
B. Mage_Payment_Model_lnfo
C. Mage_Payment_Model_Method_Abstract
D. Mage_Sales_Model_Order_Payment
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 32
To update your order 70-533 dumps information from a third-party system using an XmlRpc call, you should
A. Use the native sales_order.update API call with the url /api/xmlrpc/
B. Create a custom API resource which allows you to receive XmlRpc requests
C. Create a custom API adapter to receive XmlRpc requests
D. Create a custom API handler to process XmlRpc requests
Answer: A
Explanation:

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Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Advanced Solutions
Updated: Aug 10, 2017
Q&As: 97

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1. Which GVP software component is used to configure the various components of GVP including
application provisioning?
A. Element Management Provisioning System
B. IP Call Manager
C. Voice Application Reporter
D. Genesys Studio
070-489 exam Answer: A
2. Which GVP application is used to build and test voice applications?
A. Element Management Provisioning System
B. IP Call Manager
C. Voice Application Reporter
D. Genesys Studio
Answer: D
3. Which version of the VoiceXML Specification does GVP version 7.5 support?
A. VoiceXML 1.0
B. VoiceXML 1.1
C. VoiceXML 2.0
D. VoiceXML 3.0
070-489 dumps Answer: C
4. The GVP VoiceXML application logic resides on .
A. a web server
B. the VCS
C. the VPM
D. the IPCM
Answer: A
5. How are VoiceXML pages produced during a GVP call session?
A. Web application server generates VoiceXML when processing asp or jsp pages
B. VCS or IPCS produce VoiceXML when the call is initiated
C. EMPS produces VoiceXML when the request comes in
D. IPCS creates the VoiceXML when it relays SIP messages
070-489 pdf Answer: A
6. The Voice Communication Server (VCS) processes calls.
A. VoIP
B. IPCS
C. Web-based GUI
D. TDM
Answer: D
7. The Internet Protocol Communication Server (IPCS) processes calls.

A. SIP
B. HTML
C. TDM D.
EMPS
070-489 vce Answer: A
8. The Internet Protocol Communication Server (IPCS) processes calls.
A. SIP
B. HTML
C. TDM D.
EMPS
Answer: A
9. A Primary Voice Application URL is required when provisioning the IVR Profile. The Primary Voice
Application CANNOT include .
A. the fully qualified name of the web server that hosts the application
B. the numeric IP address of the web server that hosts the application
C. the name of the first page of the voice application
D. the path to the <Application Name>.XML file
070-489 exam Answer: D
10. Refer to the CTI Property tab in the Provisioning IVR profile section in the EMPS. The Default Route
Number is used when .
A. IVR Server is unable to contact the Solution Control Interface (SCI)
B. IVR Server is unable to contact the Universal Routing Server (URS), or when the URS is unable to
find an agent number to which it can route the call
C. IVR component, specifically Genesys Queue Adapter (GQA), cannot communicate with SCS.
D. IVR Server component cannot communicate with the Web Server
Answer: B
11.The <DNIS>.XML and <Application_Name>.xml files are generated when .
A. a call arrives at the VCS
B. an application is created and configured in EMPS
C. the WatchDog on the EMPS is restarted
D. requested by the IVR Server
070-489 dumps Answer: B
12. The <Application_Name>.xml files provides all of the .
A. VCS configuration information
B. voice application information
C. IPCS configuration information
D. web server configuration information
Answer: B
13. The DNIS.xml provides .
A. the Primary Application URL
B. all application configuration information but no process information
C. the address of the IVR Server
D. the URL path to the <Application_Name>.XML
070-489 pdf Answer: D
14. Where is the default location of the DNIS Application Mapping Files?
A. <install dir>\CN\data
B. <install dir>\CN\web\dispenser\spd_data
C. <install dir>\CN\config
D. http://EMPS:9810/spm
Answer: B
15. In the <Application_Name>.xml file, the IVRTimeout value determines .
A. how long URS waits for the response from web server before timing out and trying default routing
target.
B. how long VCS/IPCS waits for the response from web server before timing out and attempting to reach
the Backup IVR URL.
C. how long GQA waits for the connection with the IVR Server before using the Backup IVR URL.
D. how long VCS/IPCS waits for the response from web server before timing out and attempting to reach
the Primary IVR URL.
070-489 vce Answer: B
16. Which of the following features can be changed using the Element Management System (EMS) GUI
when monitoring a VCS?
A. the log level for each process
B. the default directory for logging
C. the Behind or In-Front configuration for that particular VCS
D. the speech recognition vendor for that particular VCS
Answer: A
17.When would you use the Import Server Instance CSV feature in EMPS?
A. Never. This feature is not available through the EMPS
B. Any time you want to make a change to any of the parameters in EMPS
C. You want to start the Watchdog service
D. When numerous changes are needed with servers or configuration of various components for a
server and in conjunction with Genesys Technical Support
070-489 exam Answer: D
18. Under what circumstances is a username and password required to access the EMPS?
A. Never. By default, a username and password is not required since EMPS is only used for monitoring
purposes.
B. Always. When opening EMPS Login screen, the system will require users enter their username and

password.
C. Only when the EMPS is being accessed from a remote workstation. You are automatically
authenticated and can log in from a local machine.
D. Only when using SunOne Directory Server because OpenLDAP has no built-in security for the EMPS
login screen.
Answer: B
19. The ability to record the caller’s speech for application analysis is configured in an IVR Profile within
the EMPS and is referred to as .
A. OA&M
B. EMS Runtime
C. Enable ASR Transcoding
D. Enable ASR Logging
070-489 dumps Answer: D
20.The process on the VCS/IPCS that starts the other component processes is the .
A. Page Collector
B. IVR Server Client C.
Call Flow Assistant D.
WatchDog
Answer: D
21.Which VCS/IPCS component controls the TDM telephony or IP Telephony interfaces?
A. PopGateway
B. Page Collector
C. MRCP Client
D. Net Management
070-489 pdf Answer: A
22. Which of the following are Windows prerequisites for VCS?
A. there are no Windows prerequisites
B. Active Directory
C. IIS and SNMP
D. SQL Server
Answer: C

23. A logical group of ports is referred to as a .
A. Telephony Manager
B. Route
C. Page Collector
D. MRCP Client
070-489 vce Answer: B

24. For most deployments with VCS configured in Behind-the-Switch mode using Genesys Framework,
DNIS is obtained through what mechanism?
A. VCS request to the T-Server via IVR Server
B. VCS requests to the Dialogic telephony board
C. a route point corresponding to the appropriate strategy
D. VCS request directly to the ACD/PBX
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 70-412
Exam Name: Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
Updated: Aug 04, 2017
Q&As: 424

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70-412 dumps

Pass4itsure  Latest and Most Accurate 70-412 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 22
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains an
enterprise certification authority (CA).
The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You install the Active
Directory Federation Services server role on Server1.
You plan to configure Server1 as an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) server.
The Federation Service name will be set to adfs1.contoso.com.
You need to identify which type of certificate template you must use to request a certificate for AD FS.
Hot Area:
70-412 dumps

70-412 exam Correct Answer:

70-412 dumps

QUESTION 23
HOTSPOT
Your network contains two application servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The application servers
have the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature installed.
You create an NLB cluster that contains the two servers.
You plan to deploy an application named App1 to the nodes in the cluster. App1 uses TCP port 8080 and
TCP port 8081.
Clients will connect to App1 by using HTTP and HTTPS via a single reverse proxy. App1 does not use
session state information.
You need to configure a port rule for Appl. The solution must ensure that connections to App1 are
distributed evenly between the nodes.
Which port rule should you use?
To answer, select the appropriate rule in the answer area.
Hot Area:
70-412 dumps

70-412 dumps

Correct Answer:
70-412 dumps

70-412 dumps

QUESTION 24
DRAG DROP
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains three
servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.

70-412 dumps

70-412 dumps  Server1 is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-412 dumps

Template1 contains custom cryptography settings that are required by the corporate security team.
On Server2, an administrator successfully installs a certificate based on Template1.
The administrator reports that Template1 is not listed in the Certificate Enrollment wizard on Server3, even
after selecting the Show all templates check box.
You need to ensure that you can install a server authentication certificate on Server3. The certificate must
comply with the cryptography requirements.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence?
To answer, move the appropriate three actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange
them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
70-412 dumps

Correct Answer:
70-412 dumps

QUESTION 25
HOTSPOT
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 and Server2 have the Hyper-V server role installed.
Server1 and Server2 have different processor models from the same manufacturer.
On Server1, you plan to create a virtual machine named VM1. Eventually, VM1 will be exported to Server2.
You need to ensure that when you import VM1 to Server2, you can start VM1 from saved snapshots.
What should you configure on VM1?
To answer, select the appropriate node in the answer area.
Hot Area:
70-412 dumps

Correct Answer:
70-412 dumps

QUESTION: 26
Explain how flowcharts can be constructed to identify and highlight the non-value added
steps in a process.

70-412 pdf Answer:

70-412 dumps

QUESTION: 27
Explain the relationship between Y = f(X) and a flowchart in respect to Six Sigma
management.

Answer:
As you can see from the following figure, CTQ1= f(X1, X2, X3, X4, X5) and CTQ
2= f(X1, X2, X3, X4, X5)

QUESTION: 28
Explain how Failure Modes and Effects Analysis (FMEA) is used to identify the Xs that
cause CTQs to be out of specification. Construct a table to illustrate your explanation.
70-412 vce Answer:
Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA) is used to identify, estimate, prioritize,
and reduce the risk of failure in CTQs through the development of countermeasures
based on Xs. There are 10 steps to conducting a FMEA. First, team members identify the
critical parameters and their potential failure modes through brainstorming or other tools,
that is, ways in which the design might fail (columns 1 and 2 of the table below). Second,
team members identify the potential effect of each failure (consequences of that failure) and
rate its severity (columns 3 and 4 of the table below). The definition of the severity scale is
shown below. Third, team members identify causes of the effects and rate their likelihood of
occurrence (columns 5 and 6 of the table below). The definition of the likelihood of
occurrence scale is shown below. Fifth, team members identify the current controls for
detecting each failure mode and rate the organization’s ability to detect each failure mode

(columns 7 and 8 of the table below). The definition of the detection scale is shown below.
Sixth, team members calculate the RPN (Risk Priority Number) for each failure mode by
multiplying the values in columns 4, 6 and 8 (column 9 of the table below). Seventh, team
members identify recommended actions and contingency plans, persons responsible, and
target completion dates for reducing or eliminating each failure mode (columns 10 and 11 of
the table below). Eight, team members identify the date the action was taken to reduce or
eliminate each failure mode (column 12 of the table below). Ninth, team members rank the
severity (column 12 of the table below), occurrence (column 13 of the table below) and
detection (column 14 of the table below) of each failure mode after the recommended action
(column 10 of the table below) has been put into motion. Tenth, team members multiple the
values in columns 13, 14 and 15 of the table below to calculate the RPN (Risk Priority
Number) for each failure mode after the recommended action (column 16 of the table below)
has been put into motion.

QUESTION: 29
Define “capability of the process” in statistical terms.
Answer:
Capability is a measure of the relative relationship between the “Voice of the Process” and
the “Voice of the Customer.” This relationship considers the differential between the mean

and nominal of the process. The capability of a stable and normally distributed process is
defined as 99.73% of its output will be in the interval between LNL(mean + 3[ R /d2]) and
UNL (mean – 3[ R /d2]), given measurement data and a subgroup size between 2 and 10
inclusive.
QUESTION: 30
Construct a dot plot for the CTQ. Construct dot plots to study the CTQ for the different levels
of X1 and X2. Construct main effects plots and interaction plots for the following data set.

There is a significant interaction between X1 and X2 that will affect the CTQ. The
70-412 exam interaction is seen in the crossed lines.
QUESTION: 31

Explain the purpose of a 2k full factorial design.
Answer:
The purpose of a 2k full factorial design is to understand the relationships between a set of
Xs each with only two levels, and the interactions of the X’s, on the CTQ’s.

QUESTION NO: 32
Which of the following directories contain the information that is found on a Windows 98 Desktop?
A. C:\Program files\Programs\Desktop
B. C:\Startup\Desktop\Items
C. C:\Windows\Desktop
D. C:\Desktop
70-412 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 33
You are investigating a case of child pornography on a hard drive containing Windows XP. In the
:\Documents and Settings\Bad You are investigating a case of child pornography on a hard drive
containing Windows XP. In the ?:\Documents and Settings\Bad Guy\Local Settings\Temporary
Internet Files?folder you find three images of child pornography. You find no other copies of the
images on the suspect hard drive, and you find no other copies of the filenames. What can be
deduced from your findings? images on the suspect? hard drive, and you find no other copies of
the filenames. What can be deduced from your findings?
A. The presence and location of the images is strong evidence of possession.
B. The presence and location of the images proves the images were intentionally downloaded.
C. Both a and c
D. The presence and location of the images is not strong evidence of possession.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 34
To later verify the contents of an evidence file?
7RODWHUYHULI\WKHFRQWHQWVRIDQHYLGHQFHILOH
A. EnCase writes a CRC value for every 64 sectors copied.
B. EnCase writes an MD5 hash value for every 32 sectors copied.
C. EnCase writes an MD5 hash value every 64 sectors copied.
D. EnCase writes a CRC value for every 128 sectors copied.
70-412 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 35
When undeleting a file in the FAT file system, EnCase will check the to see if it
has already been overwritten.
A. directory entry
B. data on the hard drive
C. deletion table
D. FAT
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 36
Select the appropriate name for the highlighted area of the binary numbers.
A. Bit
B. Nibble
C. Word
D. Byte
E. Dword
70-412 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 37
A SCSI host adapter would most likely perform which of the following tasks?
A. Set up the connection of IDE hard drives.
B. None of the above.
C. Configure the motherboard settings to the BIOS.
D. Make SCSI hard drives and other SCSI devices accessible to the operating system.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 38
Assume that MyNote.txt has been deleted. The FAT file system directory entry for that file has
been overwritten. The data for MyNote.txt is now:
A. Allocated
B. Cross-linked
C. Unallocated
D. Overwritten
70-412 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 39
During the power-up sequence, which of the following happens first?
A. The BIOS on an add-in card is executed.
B. The boot sector is located on the hard drive.
C. The ower On Self-Test.? 7KH ? RZHU2Q6HOI7HVW
D. The floppy drive is checked for a diskette.
Answer: C

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[Ensure Pass PDF Exam From Google Drive] Preparing for Latest Updated 070-461 PDF Microsoft SQL Server 2012 070-461 Practice Test Online on Yumpu

Today I passed the exam in 1st attempt.
I have a Data-warehouse and BI experience of over 3 years, which obviously helped.
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Exam Code: 070-461
Exam Name: Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Jul 21, 2017
Q&As: 164

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070-461

Pass4itsure  Latest and Most Accurate 070-461 PDF Dumps Exam Q&As:

Question No : 26 You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a table named Products.
The Products table has the following definition:070-461

You need to create an audit record only when either the RetailPrice or WholeSalePrice
column is updated.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF CCLUMNS_CHANGED(RetailPrice, WholesalePrice)
– – Create Audit Records
B. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF EXISTS(SELECT RetailPrice from inserted) OR
EXISTS (SELECT WholeSalePnce FROM inserted)
– – Create Audit Records
C. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF COLUMNS_UPDATED(RetailPrice, WholesalePrice)

– – Create Audit Records
D. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF UPDATE(RetailPrice) OR UPDATE(WholeSalePrice)
– – Create Audit Records
070-461 pdf Answer: D

Question No : 27 A table named Profits stores the total profit made each year within a territory. The Profits
table has columns named Territory, Year, and Profit.
You need to create a report that displays the profits made by each territory for each year
and its previous year.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
B. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
C. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
D. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
Answer: C

Question No : 28 You use Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database to develop a shopping cart application.
You need to rotate the unique values of the ProductName field of a table-valued expression
into multiple columns in the output.
Which Transact-SQL operator should you use?
A. CROSS JOIN
B. CROSS APPLY
C. PIVOT
D. UNPIVOT
070-461 exam 
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 29  You administer a Microsoft SQL Server database that supports a shopping application.
You need to retrieve a list of customers who live in territories that do not have a sales
person.Which Transact- SQL query or queries should you use? (Each correct answer presents a
complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer
WHERE TerritoryID <> SOME(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson)
B. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer
WHERE TerritoryID <> ALL(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson)
C. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer
WHERE TerritoryID <> ANY(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson)
D. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer
WHERE TerritoryID NOT IN(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson) Answer: B,D
You support a database structure shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
Question No : 30
070-461

Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total
FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson
ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID
GROUP BY GROUPING SETS((SalesPerson.Name, Country, City, DatePart(yyyy,
SaleDate)), (Country, City), (Country), ())
B. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total
FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson
ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID
GROUP BY CUBE(SalesPerson.Name, Country, City, DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate))
C. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total
FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson
ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID
GROUP BY CUBE(SalesPerson.Name, DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate), City, Country)
D. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total
FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson
ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID

GROUP BY ROLLUP(SalesPerson.Name, DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate), City, Country)
070-461 dumps 
Answer: A
Explanation:
Be careful with this question,because on exam can be different options for answer.
And none of them is correct : D You should report this question.

You are developing a database that will contain price information. You need to store the
prices that include a fixed precision and a scale of six digits. Which data type should you
use?
A. Float
B. Money
C. Smallmoney
D. Numeric
Answer: D
Explanation:
Numeric is the only one in the list that can give a fixed precision and scale.
Question No : 31
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server database that supports a banking transaction
management application.
You need to retrieve a list of account holders who live in cities that do not have a branch
location.
Which Transact-SQL query or queries should you use? (Each correct answer presents a
Question No : 32
complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. SELECT AccountHolderID
FROM AccountHolder
WHERE CityID NOT IN (SELECT CityID FROM BranchMaster)
B. SELECT AccountHolderID
FROM AccountHolder
WHERE CityID <> ALL (SELECT CityID FROM BranchMaster)
C. SELECT AccountHolderlD
FROM AccountHolder
WHERE CityID <> SOME (SELECT CityID FROM BranchMaster)
D. SELECT AccountHolderID
FROM AccountHolder
WHERE CityID <> ANY (SELECT CityID FROM BranchMaster)
070-461 vce 
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Verified the answers as correct.
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The database contains a table
named Employee. Part of the Employee table is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit
button.)
Question No : 33
070-461

Confidential information about the employees is stored in a separate table named
EmployeeData. One record exists within EmployeeData for each record in the Employee

table. You need to assign the appropriate constraints and table properties to ensure data
integrity and visibility. On which column in the Employee table should you a create a unique
constraint?
A. DateHired
B. DepartmentID
C. EmployeelD
D. EmployeeNum
E. FirstName
F. JobTitle
G. LastName
H. MiddleName
I. ReportsToID
Answer: D
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The database contains a table
named Employee. Part of the Employee table is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit
button.)
Question No : 34
070-461

✑ ✑
Confidential information about the employees is stored in a separate table named
EmployeeData. One record exists within EmployeeData for each record in the Employee
table.
You need to assign the appropriate constraints and table properties to ensure data integrity
and visibility.
On which column in the Employee table should you use an identity specification to include
a seed of 1,000 and an increment of 1?
A. DateHired
B. DepartmentID
C. EmployeeID
D. EmployeeNum
E. FirstName
F. JobTitle
G. LastName
H. MiddleName
I. ReportsToID
070-461 pdf 
Answer: C
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that includes a table named
Products. The Products table has columns named Productld, ProductName, and
CreatedDateTime.
The table contains a unique constraint on the combination of ProductName and
CreatedDateTime.
You need to modify the Products table to meet the following requirements:
Remove all duplicates of the Products table based on the ProductName column.
Retain only the newest Products row.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. WITH CTEDupRecords
AS
Question No : 35
SELECT MAX(CreatedDateTime) AS CreatedDateTime, ProductName
FROM Products
GROUP BY ProductName
HAVING COUNT(*) > 1
)
DELETE p
FROM Products p
JOIN CTEDupRecords cte ON
B. ProductName = cte.ProductName
AND p.CreatedDateTime > cte.CreatedDateTime
C. WITH CTEDupRecords
AS
(
SELECT MAX(CreatedDateTime) AS CreatedDateTime, ProductName
FROM Products
GROUP BY ProductName
HAVING COUNT(*) > 1
)
DELETE p
FROM Products p
JOIN CTEDupRecords cte ON
cte.ProductName = p.ProductName
AND cte.CreatedDateTime > p.CreatedDateTime
D. WITH CTEDupRecords
AS
(
SELECT MIN(CreatedDateTime) AS CreatedDateTime, ProductName
FROM Products
GROUP BY ProductName
)
DELETE p
FROM Products p
JOIN CTEDupRecords cte ON
E. ProductName = cte.ProductName
F. WITH CTEDupRecords
AS
(
SELECT MAX(CreatedDateTime) AS CreatedDateTime, ProductName
FROM Products
GROUP BY ProductName
HAVING COUNT(*) > 1
)
DELETE p
FROM Products p
JOIN CTEDupRecords cte ON
G. ProductName = cte.ProductName
Answer: B
Question No : 36You develop three Microsoft SQL Server 2012 databases named Database1, Database2,
and Database3.
You have permissions on both Database1 and Database2. You plan to write and deploy a
stored procedure named dbo.usp_InsertEvent in Database3. dbo.usp_InsertEvent must
execute other stored procedures in the other databases.
You need to ensure that callers that do not have permissions on Database1 or Database2
can execute the stored procedure.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. USE Database2
B. EXECUTE AS OWNER
C. USE Database1
D. EXECUTE AS CALLER
070-461 dumps 
Answer: B
Question No : 37  You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that has multiple tables in the Sales
schema. Some users must be prevented from deleting records in any of the tables in the
Sales schema. You need to manage users who are prevented from deleting records in the
Sales schema.
You need to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. What
should you do? A. Create a custom database role that includes the users. Deny Delete permissions on the
Sales schema for the custom database role.
B. Include the Sales schema as an owned schema for the db_denydatawriter role. Add the
users to the
db_denydatawriter role.
C. Deny Delete permissions on each table in the Sales schema for each user.
D. Create a custom database role that includes the users. Deny Delete permissions on
each table in the Sales schema for the custom database role.
Answer: A
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The database contains a Product
table created by using the following definition:
Question No : 38
070-461

You need to ensure that the minimum amount of disk space is used to store the data in the
Product table.
What should you do?
A. Convert all indexes to Column Store indexes.
B. Implement Unicode Compression.
C. Implement row-level compression.
D. Implement page-level compression.
070-461 vce 
Answer: D
You generate a daily report according to the following query:
Question No : 39
070-461

You need to improve the performance of the query.
What should you do?
A. Drop the UDF and rewrite the report query as follows:
WITH cte(CustomerID, LastOrderDate) AS (
SELECT CustomerID, MAX(OrderDate) AS [LastOrderDate]
FROM Sales.SalesOrder
GROUP BY CustomerID
)
SELECT c.CustomerName
FROM cte
INNER JOIN Sales.Customer c
ON cte.CustomerID = c.CustomerID
WHERE cte.LastOrderDate < DATEADD(DAY, -90, GETDATE())
B. Drop the UDF and rewrite the report query as follows:
SELECT c.CustomerName
FROM Sales.Customer c
WHERE NOT EXISTS (

SELECT s.OrderDate
FROM Sales.SalesOrder
WHERE s.OrderDate > DATEADD(DAY, -90, GETDATE())
AND s.CustomerID = c.CustomerID)
C. Drop the UDF and rewrite the report query as follows:
SELECT DISTINCT c.CustomerName
FROM Sales.Customer c
INNER JOIN Sales.SalesOrder s
ON c.CustomerID = s.CustomerID
WHERE s.OrderDate < DATEADD(DAY, -90, GETDATE())
D. Rewrite the report query as follows:
SELECT c.CustomerName
FROM Sales.Customer c
WHERE NOT EXISTS (SELECT OrderDate FROM
Sales.ufnGetRecentOrders(c.CustomerID,
90))
Rewrite the UDF as follows:
CREATE FUNCTION Sales.ufnGetRecentOrders(@CustomerID int, @MaxAge datetime)
RETURNS TABLE AS RETURN (
SELECT OrderDate
FROM Sales.SalesOrder
WHERE s.CustomerID = @CustomerID
AND s.OrderDate > DATEADD(DAY, [email protected], GETDATE())
070-461 exam 
Answer: A
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database named ContosoDb. Tables are
defined as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
Question No : 40
070-461

You need to display rows from the Orders table for the Customers row having the
CustomerId value set to 1 in the following XML format:

<row OrderId=”1″ OrderDate=”2000-01-01T00:00:00″ Amount=”3400.00″
Name=”Customer
A” Country=”Australia” />
<row OrderId=”2″ OrderDate=”2001-01-01T00:00:00″ Amount=”4300.00″
Name=”Customer
A” Country=”Australia” />
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1
FOR XML RAW
B. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1
FOR XML RAW, ELEMENTS
C. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1
FOR XML AUTO
D. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId – Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId= 1
FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS
E. SELECT Name, Country, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId- 1
FOR XML AUTO
F. SELECT Name, Country, Orderld, OrderDate, Amount
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId= 1
FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS
G. SELECT Name AS ‘@Name’, Country AS ‘@Country’, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId= 1
FOR XML PATH (‘Customers’)
H. SELECT Name AS ‘Customers/Name’, Country AS ‘Customers/Country’, OrderId,
OrderDate, Amount
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId= 1
FOR XML PATH (‘Customers’)

Answer: A
You have a database that contains the tables as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit
button.)
Question No : 41 CORRECT TEXT
070-461

You have the following query:
070-461

✑ ✑ ✑ ✑
You need to recreate the query to meet the following requirements:
Reference columns by using one-part names only.
Sort aggregates by SalesTerritoryID, and then by ProductID.
Order the results in descending order from SalesTerritoryID to Produc
The solution must use the existing SELECT clause and FROM clause
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer
Answer:
070-461

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