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Most Important Pass4itsure 210-451 Dumps Exam PDF, Real Cisco 210-451 Dumps PDF On Our Store, We Help You Pass Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals. – pass4itsure 210-451 dumps pdf 82Q Full Version.

Pass4itsure Success:

Success
“I passed my exam earlier this morning. You know what I just use study materials from this site, no other books at all! It is really helpful if you do not get much time to prepare your exam. You should have a try. It won’t let you down. Why do you want to take roundabout ways if there is a shortcut.Trust me or not. Good luck to you all. Bob”

Awesome
“This is my first time to sit a Cisco exam, so you will know how nervous I was! Thanks for your help, Kingexam! I passed. I think 95% questions are more or less the same as your guidance. Some questions with the answer are in the different sequence, and, sorry to point out that one answer of your questions is incorrect, I’ll email you to let you know, you guys need to revise it. Well, I think your kingexam’s guidance is still more accurate than others. The most important thing is I got passed 🙂 Paul Hussler”

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Cisco 210-451 Dumps Recommended Traing

The following course is the recommended training for this exam.

  • Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals (CLDFND) v1.1

Courses listed are offered by Cisco Learning Partners-the only authorized source for Cisco IT training delivered exclusively by Certified Cisco Instructors. Check the List of Learning Partners for a Cisco Learning Partner nearest you.

Latest and Most Accurate Pass4itsure 210-451 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-30)

QUESTION 1
Which description of the elasticity of a Cloud-based infrastructure is true?
A. provides dynamic on-demand provisioning of services in near real time
B. enables sharing of resources and costs across a large pool of users
C. multisite architecture to reduce impact from outages in any one site
D. provides a security posture that is manageable from a single point of control
210-451 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which characteristic is an inoperative attribute of a private Cloud deployment?
A. self service and on demand
B. shared by many companies
C. highly scalable
D. metered for reporting or billing purposes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which option is one essential characteristic of Cloud computing?
A. It must use virtualization.
B. It must provide load balancing services.
C. It must provide on-demand self service.
D. It must run on open source software.
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What are the five specific characteristics common to the Cloud environments?
A. on-demand usage, ubiquitous access, multi-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
B. on-demand usage, ubiquitous access, tiered-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
C. on-demand usage, autonomous access, multi-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
D. dynamic usage, ubiquitous access, multi-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which best describes a SaaS Cloud model?
A. infrastructure that presents the user with an operating system allowing programming language
execution environment for testing database and web servers
B. infrastructure that virtualizes server functions on a hypervisor
C. infrastructure that provides elastic storage and computing resources
D. a platform that provides access to application software or database resources
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
IaaS is an acronym for what type of Cloud?
A. Instances as a Service
B. Infrastructure as a Service
C. Internet as a Service
D. Images as a Service
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which Cloud service model is appropriate for a physical data center move to the Cloud?
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Compute as a Service
D. Software as a Service
210-451 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which statement defines Cloud Service Models?
A. infrastructure as a service, software as a service, platform as a service
B. internet as a service, software as a service, platform as a service
C. infrastructure as a service, big data as a service, platform as a service
D. infrastructure as a service, software as a service, grid as a service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which best describes a Cloud deployment model that relies on interoperability between Cloud providers?
A. Hybrid Cloud
B. Multi-Cloud
C. InterCloud
D. Community Cloud
210-451 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which three options are considered Cloud deployment models? (Choose three.)
A. Public Cloud
B. Hybrid Cloud
C. Open Cloud
D. Private Cloud
E. Stack Cloud
F. Distributed Cloud
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 11
Company ABC hosts all their applications internally. During one day of the month, the demand for their
applications far exceeds the capacity of their datacenter. Which Cloud model should Company ABC
consider using?
A. Community
B. Private
C. Hybrid
D. Public
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which option lists the Cloud deployment models?
A. public, community, private, hybrid
B. cluster, community, private, hybrid
C. public, performance, private, hybrid
D. public, community, secure, hybrid
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
What is an invalid Cloud deployment model?
A. distributed
B. private
C. community
D. hybrid
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which three options are Common Cloud characteristics? (Choose three.)
A. single tenancy
B. elasticity
C. ubiquitous network access
D. metered service
E. QoS
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 15
Which description of Cisco vPath is true?
A. a protocol that provides end-to-end path assurance for Cloud-based systems
B. an embedded intelligence in Cisco VEM that provides abstracted control and forward plane functionality
C. a service that provides forwarding plane abstraction for inline redirection of traffic for vServices
D. a vService that allows for security policy enforcement through transparent bridging
210-451 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which description of RAID6 is true?
A. block-level striping of data with double distributed parity
B. drive-level striping of data with double distributed parity
C. block-level striping of data with single distributed parity
D. block-level mirroring of data with double distributed parity
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which Cloud storage technology would be accessed via the following URL?
A. pNFS
B. WebDAV
C. Cinder
D. Swift
210-451 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which of the following protocols are considered to be “file based”?
A. NFS, FCoE, iSCSI, CIFS
B. iSCSI, NFS, CIFS
C. NFS or CIFS
D. FCoE or NFS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which of the following two storage technologies would require that its’ block device be attached to an instance before you can perform any filesystem commands? (Choose two.)
A. SCSI LUN
B. Cinder Volume
C. NFS Filesystem Meta-Volume
D. Direct Object Block Device
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 20
Which type of zoning is represented? zone name zone1 vsan 10 member pwwn 20:00:00:55:a5:00:00:04 member pwwn
50:00:d3:10:00:18:e1:05 member pwwn 50:00:d3:10:00:18:e1:06
A. Single Initiator Multi Target
B. Multi Initiator Single Target
C. Single Target Single Initiator
D. Multi Initiator Multi Target
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
What are two characteristics of a LUN? (Choose two.)
A. A LUN must be fully comprised of one physical disk
B. A LUN handles file system creation
C. A LUN can be comprised of multiple physical disks
D. A LUN is a unique identifier
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 22
In an Openstack Cloud deployment which has a fibre channel SAN providing the block storage, which two options are valid fibre channel zone member types? (Choose two.)
A. FCID
B. DomainID
C. WWPN
D. OpenStack Volume ID
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 23
Which option describes what the use of no_root_squash does in an NFS environment?
A. It causes the NFS share to be mounted by a non-root user and is required for hypervisors that utilize RBAC for users.
B. It allows a NFS share to be mounted and written to as the root user by the hypervisor.
C. It allows a NFS share to be mounted by root, but all subsequent writes are as a non-root user.
D. It allows a NFS share to be mounted by a non-root user and all subsequent writes are as a non-root user.
210-451 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Which two options are characteristics of NAS? (Choose two.)
A. NAS provides block-based storage only.
B. NAS provides storage and filesystems.
C. NAS requires no authentication.
D. SMB is a protocol that can be used for NAS.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 25
Which /etc/exports line will allow you to enable read-only access from the NFS client 192.168.1.100?
A. /images 192.168.1.100 (ro,async)
B. /images 192.168.1.100 (755,async)
C. /images 192.168.1.1/24 (755,no_root_squash,async)
D. /images 192.168.1.1/27 (ro,async)
210-451 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Refer to the command line display below:
vsan database
vsan 1000 name FCoE
vlan 1000
fcoe vlan 1000
int e1/1
switchport mode trunk
switchport trunk allowed vlan 1000
no shut
int vfc10
bind interface e1/1
switchport trunk allowed vsan 1000
no shut
On which line does the error occur that prevents FCoE from operating correctly in a Cisco Nexus switch?
A. fcoe vlan 1000
B. switchport trunk allowed vsan 1000
C. int vfc10
D. bind interface e1/1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which Cisco product can provide an iSCSI target for an iSCSI initiator?
A. Cisco MDS 9710
B. Cisco Nexus 7010
C. Cisco UCS Invicta
D. Cisco Nexus 9510
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which Cisco product is outside of a Vblock?
A. Cisco Nexus 1k
B. Cisco C-Series UCS
C. Cisco Nexus 3k
D. Cisco UCS Central
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
Which integrated infrastructure rely on OpenStack technology?
A. FlexPod
B. Vblock
C. VSPEX
D. OpenBlocks
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
Which platform is ideally used to orchestrate a FlexPod from a single management platform?
A. Cisco UCS Manager
B. Cisco UCS Director
C. Cisco Prime Cloud Automation Manager
D. Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure Manager
Correct Answer: B

The Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals (CLDFND) exam (210-451) is a 90-minute assessment with 55-65 questions. This exam tests a candidate’s ability to develop network applications in the Cisco environment. With the complete collection of questions and answers, Pass4itsure has assembled to take you through 82 Q&As to your 210-451 dumps exam preparation.

Exam Code: 210-451
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals
Q&As: 82

The Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals (CLDFND) (210-451) exam is a 90-minute, 55-65 item exam that assesses how sales teams can effectively position in the CCNA Cloud. Some of the topics assessed are how to consider the challenges faced by business and IT today and how this relates to Cisco opportunities. The pass4itsure 210-451 dumps exam also assesses who “the customer” is and the importance of applications to many of the customers that are influential in purchasing application-based solutions. This certificate proves that the candidate has an advanced understanding within the Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals.
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Pass4itsure Success:

Success
“I passed my exam earlier this morning. You know what I just use study materials from this site, no other books at all! It is really helpful if you do not get much time to prepare your exam. You should have a try. It won’t let you down. Why do you want to take roundabout ways if there is a shortcut.Trust me or not. Good luck to you all. Bob”

Awesome
“This is my first time to sit a Cisco exam, so you will know how nervous I was! Thanks for your help, Kingexam! I passed. I think 95% questions are more or less the same as your guidance. Some questions with the answer are in the different sequence, and, sorry to point out that one answer of your questions is incorrect, I’ll email you to let you know, you guys need to revise it. Well, I think your kingexam’s guidance is still more accurate than others. The most important thing is I got passed 🙂 Paul Hussler”

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Cisco 210-260 Dumps Recommended Traing

The following course is the recommended training for this exam:

  • Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) v3.0 – Self paced E-learning
  • Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) v3.0 – Instructor-led training

Courses listed are offered by Cisco Learning Partners-the only authorized source for Cisco IT training delivered exclusively by Certified Cisco Instructors. Check the List of Learning Partners for a Cisco Learning Partner nearest you.

Latest and Most Accurate Pass4itsure 210-260 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-20)

QUESTION 1
Which three ESP fields can be encrypted during transmission? (Choose three.)
A. Security Parameter Index
B. Sequence Number
C. MAC Address
D. Padding
E. Pad Length
F. Next Header
210-260 exam Correct Answer: DEF
Explanation

QUESTION 2
What mechanism does asymmetric cryptography use to secure data?
A. a public/private key pair
B. shared secret keys
C. an RSA nonce
D. an MD5 hash
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 3
Whit which type of Leyer 2 attack can you “do something” for one host:
A. MAC spoofing
B. CAM overflow….
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps

How many times was a read-only string used to attempt a write operation?
A. 9
B. 6
C. 4
D. 3
E. 2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 5
Which feature allows a dynamic PAT pool to select the next address in the PAT pool instead of the next port of an existing address?
A. next IP
B. round robin
C. dynamic rotation
D. NAT address rotation
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 6
Which label is given to a person who uses existing computer scripts to hack into computers lacking the expertise to write their own?
A. white hat hacker
B. hacktivist
C. phreaker
D. script kiddy
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 7
When Cisco IOS zone-based policy firewall is configured, which three actions can be applied to a traffic class? (Choose three.)
A. pass
B. police
C. inspect
D. drop
E. queue
F. shape
210-260 vce Correct Answer: ACD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Zone-Based Policy Firewall Actions
ZFW provides three actions for traffic that traverses from one zone to another:
Drop — This is the default action for all traffic, as applied by the “class class-default” that terminates every inspect-type policy-map. Other class-maps within a policy-map can also be configured to drop unwanted traffic. Traffic that is handled by the drop action is “silently” dropped (i.e., no notification of the drop is sent to the relevant end-host) by the ZFW, as opposed to an ACL’s behavior of sending an ICMP “host unreachable” message to the host that sent the denied traffic. Currently, there is not an option to change the “silent drop” behavior. The log option can be added with drop for syslog notification that traffic was dropped by the firewall. Pass — This action allows the router to forward traffic from one zone to another. The pass action does not track the state of connections or sessions within the traffic. Pass only allows the traffic in one direction. A corresponding policy must be applied to allow return traffic to pass in the opposite direction. The pass action is useful for protocols such as IPSec ESP, IPSec AH, ISAKMP, and other inherently secure protocols with predictable behavior. However, most application traffic is better handled in the ZFW with the inspect action. Inspect–The inspect action offers state-based traffic control. For example, if traffic from the private zone to the Internet zone in the earlier example network is inspected, the router maintains connection or session information for TCP and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) traffic. Therefore, the router permits return traffic sent from Internet-zone hosts in reply to private zone connection requests. Also, inspect can provide application inspection and control for certain service protocols that might carry vulnerable or sensitive application traffic. Audit-trail can be applied with a parameter-map to record connection/session start, stop, duration, the data volume transferred, and source and destination addresses.

QUESTION 8
Which type of security control is defense in depth?
A. Threat mitigation
B. Risk analysis
C. Botnet mitigation
D. Overt and covert channels
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 9
Which statement about a PVLAN isolated port configured on a switch is true?
A. The isolated port can communicate only with the promiscuous port.
B. The isolated port can communicate with other isolated ports and the promiscuous port.
C. The isolated port can communicate only with community ports.
D. The isolated port can communicate only with other isolated ports.
210-260 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 10
Which statement about Cisco ACS authentication and authorization is true?
A. ACS servers can be clustered to provide scalability.
B. ACS can query multiple Active Directory domains.
C. ACS uses TACACS to proxy other authentication servers.
D. ACS can use only one authorization profile to allow or deny requests.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
If a supplicant supplies incorrect credentials for all authentication methods configured on the switch, how will the switch respond?
A. The supplicant will fail to advance beyond the webauth method.
B. The switch will cycle through the configured authentication methods indefinitely.
C. The authentication attempt will time out and the switch will place the port into the unauthorized state.
D. The authentication attempt will time out and the switch will place the port into VLAN 101.
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 12
What configure mode you used for the command ip ospf authentication-key c1$c0?
A. global
B. privileged
C. in-line
D. Interface
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: ip ospf authentication-key is used under interface configuration mode, so it’s in interface level, under global configuration mode. If it asks about interface level then choose that. interface Serial0 ip address 192.16.64.1 255.255.25

QUESTION 13
Which two features are commonly used CoPP and CPPr to protect the control plane? (Choose two.)
A. QoS
B. traffic classification
C. access lists
D. policy maps
E. class maps
F. Cisco Express Forwarding
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 14
What is one requirement for locking a wired or wireless device from ISE?
A. The ISE agent must be installed on the device.
B. The device must be connected to the network when the lock command is executed.
C. The user must approve the locking action.
D. The organization must implement an acceptable use policy allowing device locking.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 15
Which three statements are characteristics of DHCP Spoofing? (choose three)
A. Arp Poisoning
B. Modify Traffic in transit
C. Used to perform man-in-the-middle attack
D. Physically modify the network gateway
E. Protect the identity of the attacker by masking the DHCP address
F. can access most network devices
210-260 vce Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation

QUESTION 16
Which statement correctly describes the function of a private VLAN?
A. A private VLAN partitions the Layer 2 broadcast domain of a VLAN into subdomains
B. A private VLAN partitions the Layer 3 broadcast domain of a VLAN into subdomains
C. A private VLAN enables the creation of multiple VLANs using one broadcast domain
D. A private VLAN combines the Layer 2 broadcast domains of many VLANs into one major broadcast domain
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 17
which feature allow from dynamic NAT pool to choose next IP address and not a port on a used IP address?
A. next IP
B. round robin
C. Dynamic rotation
D. Dynamic PAT rotation
210-260 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 18
Which type of encryption technology has the broadcast platform support?
A. Middleware
B. Hardware
C. Software
D. File-level
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 19
When an IPS detects an attack, which action can the IPS take to prevent the attack from spreading?
A. Deny the connection inline.
B. Perform a Layer 6 reset.
C. Deploy an antimalware system.
D. Enable bypass mode.
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 20
Which four tasks are required when you configure Cisco IOS IPS using the Cisco Configuration Professional IPS wizard? (Choose four.)
A. Select the interface(s) to apply the IPS rule.
B. Select the traffic flow direction that should be applied by the IPS rule.
C. Add or remove IPS alerts actions based on the risk rating.
D. Specify the signature file and the Cisco public key.
E. Select the IPS bypass mode (fail-open or fail-close).
F. Specify the configuration location and select the category of signatures to be applied to the selected interface(s).
Correct Answer: ABDF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Step 11. At the `Select Interfaces’ screen, select the interface and the direction that IOS IPS will be applied to, then click `Next’ to continue
210-260 dumps
Step 12. At the `IPS Policies Wizard’ screen, in the `Signature File’ section, select the first radio button “Specify the signature file you want to use with IOS IPS”, then click the “…” button to bring up a dialog box to specify the location of the
signature package file, which will be the directory specified in Step 6. In this example, we use tftp to download the signature package to the router.
210-260 dumps
Step 13. In the `Configure Public Key’ section, enter `realm-cisco.pub’ in the `Name’ text field, then copy and paste the following public key’s key-string in the `Key’ text field. This public key can be downloaded from
Cisco.com at: http://www.cisco.com/pcgi-bin/tablebuild.pl/ios-v5sigup. Click `Next’ to continue.
30820122 300D0609 2A864886 F70D0101 01050003 82010F00 3082010A 02820101 00C19E93 A8AF124A D6CC7A24 5097A975 206BE3A2 06FBA13F 6F12CB5B 4E441F16 17E630D5 C02AC252 912BE27F 37FDD9C8 11FC7AF7
DCDD81D9 43CDABC3 6007D128
B199ABCB D34ED0F9 085FADC1 359C189E F30AF10A C0EFB624 7E0764BF 3E53053E
5B2146A9 D7A5EDE3 0298AF03 DED7A5B8 9479039D 20F30663 9AC64B93 C0112A35 FE3F0C87 89BCB7BB 994AE74C FA9E481D F65875D6 85EAF974 6D9CC8E3 F0B08B85
50437722 FFBE85B9 5E4189FF CC189CB9 69C46F9C A84DFBA5 7A0AF99E AD768C36
006CF498 079F88F8 A3B3FB1F 9FB7B3CB 5539E1D1 9693CCBB 551F78D2 892356AE 2F56D826 8918EF3C 80CA4F4D 87BFCA3B BFF668E9 689782A5 CF31CB6E B4B094D3
F3020301 0001
210-260 dumps

The Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) exam (210-260) is a 90-minute assessment with 60-70 questions. This exam tests a candidate’s ability to develop network applications in the Cisco environment. With the complete collection of questions and answers, Pass4itsure has assembled to take you through 329 Q&As to your 210-260 dumps exam preparation.

Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 329

The Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) (210-260) exam is a 90-minute, 60-70 item exam that assesses how sales teams can effectively position in the CCNA Security. Some of the topics assessed are how to consider the challenges faced by business and IT today and how this relates to Cisco opportunities. The pass4itsure 210-260 dumps exam also assesses who “the customer” is and the importance of applications to many of the customers that are influential in purchasing application-based solutions. This certificate proves that the candidate has an advanced understanding within the Implementing Cisco Network Security.
210-260 dumps
Candidates who participate in the Cisco certification 210-260 dumps training materials should select exam practice questions and answers of pass4itsure, because pass4itsure is the best choice for you. With pass4itsure.com, you will have access to appropriate and best training materials so that you can directly start your real practice for the Cisco 210-260 exam.The recommended course have been carefully examined in order to create the Cisco 210-260 dumps tests.
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Pass4itsure Success:

Success
“I passed my exam earlier this morning. You know what I just use study materials from this site, no other books at all! It is really helpful if you do not get much time to prepare your exam. You should have a try. It won’t let you down. Why do you want to take roundabout ways if there is a shortcut.Trust me or not. Good luck to you all. Bob”

Awesome
“This is my first time to sit a Cisco exam, so you will know how nervous I was! Thanks for your help, Kingexam! I passed. I think 95% questions are more or less the same as your guidance. Some questions with the answer are in the different sequence, and, sorry to point out that one answer of your questions is incorrect, I’ll email you to let you know, you guys need to revise it. Well, I think your kingexam’s guidance is still more accurate than others. The most important thing is I got passed 🙂 Paul Hussler”

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The following course is the recommended training for this exam.

  • Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices, Part 1 (CIVND1)
  • Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices, Part 2 (CIVND2) v1.0

Courses listed are offered by Cisco Learning Partners-the only authorized source for Cisco IT training delivered exclusively by Certified Cisco Instructors. Check the List of Learning Partners for a Cisco Learning Partner nearest you.

Latest and Most Accurate Pass4itsure 210-065 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-22)

210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 is unable to call the Cisco IP Video Phone. Assuming that the calling search space has been configured correctly, which of the these can cause this issue?
A. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 can only be registered to a Cisco Telepresence Video Communication Server.
B. A multipoint control unit is required in order for the call to work.
C. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 can only be registered as a SIP endpoint to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. H.323 is not supported.
D. URI dialing has not been configured on Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
E. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 Profile 1 > CallSetupMode must be configured as a gateway since Cisco Unified Communications Manager does not have a gatekeeper functionality.
F. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 is not registered as a SIP endpoint on Cisco Unified Communications Manager. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 needs to be registered as both SIP and H.323.
210-065 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
An engineer is connecting a VISCA cable. What is the purpose of this cable?
A. to connect camera to codec
B. to connect camera to monitor
C. to connect camera to touch panel
D. to connect camera to network
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 3
An engineer encounters video quality issues with an endpoint. To capture ongoing call statistics from the CLI, which command should the engineer use?
A. xStatus Call Feature Display
B. xStatus OutgoingVideoChannel Netstat 1
C. xStatus Diagnostics
D. xCommand Diagnose
210-065 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
An engineer must ensure that a user can create content playlists for Digital Signs and Show and Share. Which Cisco Digital Media Suite component allows playlists to be created?
A. Cisco DMD
B. Cisco DMM
C. Cisco TMS
D. Cisco MXE
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 5
Which two tools can be used to extract traces from a Cisco Unified Communications Manager server? (Choose two.)
A. RTMT
B. TraceRT
C. Wireshark
D. CLI
E. Syslog
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: AD
Explanation

QUESTION 6
A manager requires multiparty video meetings with presentation capability. Which endpoint meets the requirement assuming there is no centralized bridge?
A. Cisco SX20
B. Cisco DX650
C. Cisco 7800
D. Cisco Jabber
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
Refer to the Exhibits, in order to create a scheduled or ad-hoc multipoint conference, which two tolls can be used? (Choose two)
A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
E. Exhibit E
210-065 vce Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
An administrator is troubleshooting an endpoint whose SIP Registration Status shows “Failed: 403 Forbidden” and must obtain information about the cause of the failure. To which two menu locations must an engineer navigate? (Choose two.)
A. Endpoint > Log Files > messages.log
B. Endpoint > Diagnostics > Log Files > all.log
C. VCS > Maintenance > Diagnostics > Incident Reporting > View
D. VCS > Status > logs > Configuration Log
E. VCS > Status > logs > Event Log
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation

QUESTION 9
Which type of lighting is recommended for Cisco TelePresence immersive solutions?
A. point
B. reflective
C. direct
D. indirect
210-065 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
A Cisco EX60 is connected to the network, but users cannot make calls and the device is unregistered. The voice engineer configured the device on Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which two options are causes of this problem? (Choose two.)
A. SIP URI is not configured correctly.
B. H.323 parameters are not configured correctly.
C. IP address is in a different subnet.
D. No user is associated to a device.
E. SIP proxy is not configured correctly.
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation

QUESTION 11
Which desktop endpoint support 802.3af PoE?
A. DX70
B. DX80
C. DX90
D. DX650
210-065 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
An engineer is backing up a VCS configuration. Which two methods can be used? (Choose two.)
A. FTP
B. SFTP
C. SSH
D. web administration
E. local
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
An engineer sees a video camera icon on the Cisco IP phone screen status line. Which meaning of this icon is true?
A. The Cisco VT camera is connected to the PC, and the PC is connected to the Cisco IP phone.
B. The Cisco IP phone has web access.
C. The Cisco IP phone is receiving a video call.
D. The Cisco IP phone is configured with video capabilities.
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 14
A company just acquired a Cisco MCU 5300 for multi videoconferencing. The networking engineer must create a conference. To which tab does the engineer go to create a conference?
A. Endpoints
B. Conferences
C. Network
D. Settings
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In this tutorial the instruction `Go to Conferences > Move participants’ means click the Conferences link on the menu bar and then click the Move participants tab.

QUESTION 15
Which option is the Cisco recommended minimum viewing distance for a 52″ monitor installed in a video conferencing room?
A. 1.5 m
B. 3.0 m
C. 2.5 m
D. 2.0 m
210-065 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 16
Which effect of the CLI set audio aec enable command on the immersive Cisco Telepresence system is true?
A. Echo cancellation is enabled.
B. Call economy quality feature is enabled.
C. Noise cancellation is enabled.
D. AEC audio codec is enabled.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 17
What is the process for resetting a Cisco VCS control appliance back to initial default configuration?
A. Push down and hold the reset button on the back of the VCS appliance for 10 seconds and power cycle the device.
B. Log onto the CLI console as root and initiate the defaults-reset command.
C. Log into the GUI interface as administrator, choose System Settings, select Restore, select Factory Reset.
D. Log onto the CLI console as root and initiate the factory-reset command.
210-065 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 18
Which two Cisco TelePresence endpoints support hosting embedded multisite conferences? (Choose two.)
A. sx20
B. MX800
C. DX70
D. DX80
E. Jabber Video for Cisco TelePresence
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: For reference, the below endpoints support Multisite:
MX200/300 G2
MX700/800
SX20/80

QUESTION 19
Which option is the Cisco recommended layout if cascading is being used?
A. Enhanced Continuous Presence
B. Full Participant
C. Continuous Presence
D. Active Speaker
210-065 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 20
When an administrator schedules a conference, which three devices are part of the process? (Choose three.)
A. endpoint
B. Cisco Prime Collaboration Manager
C. Cisco TelePresence Management Suite
D. Cisco Communications Manager
E. MCU appliance
F. Cisco TelePresence Content Server
Correct Answer: BDF
Explanation

QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
You are deploying a Cisco VCS Expressway with the Advanced Networking option key into two separate DMZs.
Gateways for all networks are the lowest usable IP address in the subnet. While you are logged in as an admin user,
which command should you enter into the CLI, to enable IP routing to the Cisco VCS Control and nothing else on the
internal network?
A. xConfiguration IP Gateway: 172.18.105.1
B. xConfiguration RouteAdd Address:192.168.10.25 PrefixLength:16 Gateway:172.18.105.1 Interface: LAN1
C. xCommand RouteAdd Address:192.168.0.0 PrefixLength:16 Gateway: 172.18.105.1 Interface: LAN1
D. xCommand RouteAdd Address:192.168.10.25 PrefixLength:32 Gateway: 172.18.105.1 Interface: LAN1
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
Users in a Cisco TelePresence room report audio and video quality issues. You have been asked to troubleshoot the issue. You log in to the endpoint GUI and check telephony settings. Which option would you recommend to resolve the issue?
A. Audio/video quality issues are generally due to low bandwidth. Contact your carrier to increase the bandwidth.
B. andquot;DSCP For TelePresenceandquot; is not correct. Configure the correct value via codec GUI.
C. andquot;DSCP For Audioandquot; is not correct. Configure the correct value via codec GUI.
D. DSCP values are correct. Check the QoS configuration on the router.
E. The andquot;DSCP For TelePresenceandquot; and andquot;DSCP For Audioandquot; values are not correct.
Configure the correct value in codec GUI.
F. The andquot;DSCP For TelePresenceandquot; and andquot;DSCP For Audioandquot; values are not correct.
Configure the correct value in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager service parameter.
Correct Answer: F

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Exam Number 300-175 DCUCI
Associated Certifications CCNP Data Center
Duration 90 minutes (55 – 65 questions)
Available Languages English
Exam Name DCUCI Implementing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing (DCUCI)

Latest and Most Accurate Pass4itsure 300-175 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-35)

QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following situations would force a wireless client to renew its IP address?
A. Roaming between two BSSIDs assigned to the same VLAN
B. Roaming between controllers supporting the same VLANs
C. Roaming between two BSSIDs assigned to different VLANs
D. All of the above would force a client to renew its IP address
300-175 exam Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 2
The IEEE 802.lln amendment to the standard addresses several PHY layer enhancements. One of these enhancements is “Channel Bonding” allowing for 40 MHz wide channels. Without taking any specific local regulatory domain into consideration, what is the maximum number of non overlapping 40 MHz wide channels that can exist in the 2.4 GHz ISM band?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6
E. 11
F. 20
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 3
You are a network design engineer and are assigned to provide an enterprise S02.1X/EAP solution to secure your company’s IEEE 802.11n WLAN. What networking protocol/service that provides centralized Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) management for computers to connect and use wireless network resources can be implemented?
A. Secure Shell (SSH)
B. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
C. Virtual Private Networking (VPN)
D. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) Passphrase
E. Remote Authentication DialinUser Service (RADIUS)
300-175 dumps Answer: E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 4
You are a computer network consultant at a small medical office and responsible for the design and deployment of the IEEE 802.11b/g WLAN. Some of the users of the WLAN are complaining about the performance of the network. You use a layer 2 WLAN analyzer to view the frames traversing the wireless medium to see if you can determine the problem. After careful examination of the data recorded you notice a significant amount of CTS-to-Self frames. What is a potential reason for the high number of these frame types?
A. The access points are in OFDM only mode
B. The access points support Quality of Service
C. The access points are in HR/DSSS only mode
D. The access points are in ERP protection mode
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 5
You have been assigned to design a new IEEE wireless LAN that will require six access points for both coverage and capacity. Based on expected client device usage, it has been determined the 2.4 GHz ISM band will be the most appropriate for this deployment. Without taking any specific local regulatory domain into consideration, how many channels are available for selection in the 2.4 GHz ISM band?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 11
D. 14
E. 23
300-175 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 6
Which of the following duplexing methods is used by the radios in Motorola’s WLAN products?
A. Half-duplex
B. Full-duplex
C. Simplex
D. Half-duplex Tx / Full-duplex Rx
E. Full-duplex Tx / Ha If-duplex Rx
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 7
Which of the following terms refers to the strength of an emitted RF signal measured at its strongest point?
A. EIRP (Equivalent Isotropic Radiated Power)
B. 1FZ (First Fresnel Zone)
C. Azimuth
D. dBi
E. IR (Intentional Radiator)
300-175 vce Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 8
In radio frequency transmission the term Modulation Coding Scheme (MCS) is defined by which of the following?
A. The combination of digital modulation method and a forward error correction mechanism.
B. A set of AES/CCMP cipher modes which assure integrity of an OFDM transmission.
C. The use of an encryption algorithm to securely code a modulated signal before transmission.
D. A multiplexing technique that uses orthogonal codes in place of X.509 digital certificates for message validation.
300-175 exam Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 9
You are designing a new 802.11 installation that will be built on an IEEE 802.3 10/100/1000 BaseT-backbone infrastructure. All IEEE 802.11n access points and VoIP phones will be IEEE 802.3 Power over Ethernet (PoE) powered devices. The 802.11n access points will utilize dual band 3X3 MIMO and require 802.3at PoE. Which is a true statement regarding a WLAN
deployment of this nature?
A. This installation can only use endpoint Power Sourcing Equipment (PSE) devices.
B. Only IEEE 802.3af PoE devices can operate on a Gigabit network infrastructure.
C. VoIP phones and access points cannot be located on the same access layer PoE switches.
D. An accurate power sourcing equipment (PSE) power budget must be performed.
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 10
You are assigned the task of evaluating a wireless network. While using a layer 2 wireless LAN analysis capture tool you notice support of a minimum rate of 6 Mbps. What IEEE 802.11 standard or amendment to the standard operating in the U-NII band is in use on the company’s WLAN (select TWO)?
A. 802.11
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11n
D. 802.11g
E. 802.11a
300-175 dumps Answer: C,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 11
Network Layer TCP/IP packets that are prepared to be sent across the 802.11 wireless medium are commonly known as which of the following?
A. MAC service data unit
B. MAC protocol data unit
C. LLC sub-layer data unit
D. MAC service switch unit
E. PHY layer service data unit
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 12
You are responsible for designing an 802.11n controller based wireless LAN for your organization using independent access point technology, The Information Technology team has decided the wireless LAN controllers should be installed on the core layer at the headquarters office location configured for centralized forwarding. Which statements are true concerns with respect to this type of installation (select TWO)?
A. S02.11n independent access points require the controller be installed at the network access layer only.
B. The WLAN controller at the core layer may be a bottleneck and limit scalability if not properly planned.
C. Network core layer deployments should always use 10 Gigabit (or faster) Ethernet components.
D. With centralized forwarding enabled all wireless traffic is tunneled to the WLAN controller that is connected to the network core layer.
300-175 pdf Answer: B,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 13
Which of the following statements is CORRECT concerning the IEEE 802.11 Open Authentication procedure?
A. Uses four way frame exchange
B. Is optional before additional authentication
C. May occur after the association
D. Must occur before additional authentication
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 14
Which of the following must occur prior to a WLAN client device being assigned a TCP/IP address through DHCP?
A. Successful 802.11 roaming
B. Successful 802.11 association
C. Successful 802.11 authentication
D. Successful 802.11 probe response
300-175 vce Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 15
XYZ Company is deploying a companywide Motorola Solutions wireless infrastructure. The following list is a breakdown of XYZ Company facilities with the number of access points required for each location:
– Corporate HQ: 36 AP
– Distribution Centers (3): 48 AP each
– Warehouses (5): 34, 64, 28, 12, 20 AP respectively
– Satellite offices (25): 1-2 AP each.
– Stores (1100): 3-4 AP each.
XYZ is looking for the most cost effective solution, while still being able to manage and configure the system centrally. Which of the following would you recommend?
A. AP7131s at each location.
B. NX9000 at Corporate HQ and AP7131’s at all locations.
C. NX9000 at Corporate HQ, RFS6000 and AP650 at locations with more than 24 AP’s, AP6532 at locations with less than 24 AP’s.
D. 4 RFS7000 at Corporate HQ, RFS6000 and AP650 at locations with 24 or more AP’s, AP6532 at locations with less than 24 AP’s.
E. NX9000 at Corporate HQ, RFS7000 and AP650 at locations with more than 24 AP’s, AP7131 at locations with up to 24 AP’s.
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 16
Motorola’s “Site Survivability” concept gives the wireless network the power of wireless computing on the edge. What does this mean?
A. RFID traffic load-balancing with rate limiting and bandwidth management
B. If your T1/E1 link fails, Access Points or controllers can automatically switch over to a 3g network backhaul
C. Application-aware smart RF adjusts power and channel to provide best coverage if there is RF interference or a neighboring AP is having a problem.
D. With direct routing, QoS, security, and mobility services on the Access Point, the network keeps running even if there is a problem with the wireless controller or the wired network
300-175 exam Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 17
You have a client that would like you to design a large wireless network that will include access in remote locations. Requirements include:
– High availability
– High level of security
– No globally used login/passwords
– Multiple RADIUS servers in dual data-centers to authenticate the wireless client
The client uses ActiveDirectory as their credential-store and have AD servers at the data center and remote locations. What is the best way to design a wireless network where users could still be authenticated in case of a WAN-link failure at the remote site?
A. If the WAN link is severed, there is no way to reach primary or backup RADIUS servers.
B. Install RADIUS servers at each remote location.
C. Create a common login/password that could be hard coded into APs for emergency use.
D. Use the on-board RADIUS server in the AP as the secondary server and configure it to use the local LDAP server as its data-store.
Answer: D
Explanation:

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Exam Name: DCUCI Implementing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing (DCUCI)
Q&As: 249

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QUESTION 1
Which are three characteristics of key performance indicators (KPIs)? (Choose three.)
A. KPIs are set according to magnitude and urgency
B. KPIs must be strategic and tactical in nature
C. KPIs measure progress against goals
D. KPIs can be financial, managerial, or operational
E. KPIs define what needs to happen to achieve desired results within a timeframe
810-403 exam Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 2
Which are two reasons customers look for Cisco and its partners\’ solutions and services? (Choose two.)
A. to explore how technology innovation yields new revenue and lowers costs
B. to help make a retailer aware of a restocking need while more quickly relying on human interaction
C. to help business more effectively deploy, absorb, and adopt technologies
D. to enable customers to complete marketing research as part of their investment funds
E. to help business reduce the total cost of ownership for IT
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
Which is a benefit of using the power/influence grid to manage stakeholders?
A. It helps sales professionals to present solutions in the right business or technical language and context.
B. It aligns the stakeholder audience\’s goals with a good business proposition.
C. It helps move stakeholders from their current to their optimal positions.
D. It ensures that the sales professional identifies the appropriate key performance indicators for outcomes.
810-403 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

810-403 dumps

 

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
810-403 dumps

810-403 pdf Correct Answer:
810-403 dumps

 

QUESTION 6
Drag and drop the type of business case on the left to the business driver on the right.
810-403 dumps

810-403 dumps

 

QUESTION 7
Which two activities require strong facilitation skills for gathering qualitative data? (Choose two.)
A. workshop
B. focus group
C. survey
D. questionnaire
E. interview
810-403 vce Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
When selling business outcomes, which two key factors must be considered in relation to the achievement of the outcomes? (Choose two.)
A. metrics and measurement
B. project management milestones
C. specific timeframe and milestones
D. communication procedures
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
Which two factors must you know about stakeholders to identify where they fall in a power grid? (Choose two.)
A. role in company

B. purchasing power
C. degree of interest
D. size of budget
E. degree of influence
810-403 exam Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 10
Which options are two features of business requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Business requirements are managed by stakeholders.
B. Business requirements support specific business objectives.
C. Business requirements are prioritized in compliance with influence dynamics.
D. Business requirements are dynamic in nature and change over time.
E. Business requirements are always defined inside a line of business.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 11
Which options are two benefits of understanding the customer\’s business model? (Choose two.)
A. Understanding the customer\’s business model changes the way you interact with your customer.
B. Understanding the customer\’s business model provides control and assessment of project challenges.
C. Understanding the customer\’s business model helps track progress through outcomes.
D. Understanding the customer\’s business model is used to address the sales force mindset.
810-403 dumps Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
What should sales professionals do to ensure that business outcomes support what the customer brings to the market?
A. Make a list of the CSFs and KPIs of the organization.
B. Interview the different stakeholders and confirm with them.
C. Understand the customer\’s services portfolio.
D. Understand the customer\’s value proposition.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which two options are features of Cisco SalesConnect? (Choose two.)
A. Ability to create personalized andquot;briefcasesandquot; of content that you can save once, and access from any device.
B. Single place to find business proposals and instructor led training related to Cisco Partners.
C. Access to kits of bundled content including IOS images and more.
D. Trusted, up-to-date, and relevant content displayed using comprehensive, powerful search capabilities.
810-403 pdf Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 14
Which option is a key concept of the unique Cisco sales approach?
A. Add as many new Cisco technologies to the solution that meet customer needs.
B. Start driving outcomes for customers, and go beyond selling and implementing technology solutions.
C. Put together the most logical set of services for the customer.
D. Engage in dialog about customer needs and new technologies.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
When return on investment is expressed in a business outcomes story, which set of factors should be included?
A. financial benefits, overall business impact, length of time to realize benefits
B. cost savings vs. today, speed to market, time to implement
C. financial benefits, speed to market, competitor revenue displaced
D. cost savings, length of time to implement, number of Cisco offerings
810-403 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which are four considerations to have in mind when communicating the business outcomes story? (Choose four.)
A. Share your findings about stakeholder analysis with the audience.
B. Structure the content to the audience ?one size does not fit all.
C. Address key motivators, business drivers, and the value that business outcomes bring to the customer.
D. Prioritize lines of business, strategic plan and operating issues.
E. Create the presentation in terms that the audience understands.
F. Use consistent formats and designs that the audience is familiar with.
Correct Answer: BCEF

QUESTION 17
When you seek customer support for an action, which framework can be used to plan influential communication?
A. stakeholder analysis matrix
B. seven elements
C. principled negotiation
D. business model canvas
810-403 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which two classes of solutions enable business outcomes for the Energy/Utilities industry? (Choose two.)
A. Advanced Routing
B. Data Center and Virtualization
C. Multilayer Switching
D. Internet of Everything
E. Remote Expert
F. Service Provider Network Infrastructure
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 19
How can a customer determine which activities create more value and competitive advantage for his organization?
A. Identifying the least complex activities
B. Analyzing their business context and industry vertical
C. Looking for business outcomes that span the value chain
D. Defining the right KPIs for each activity
810-403 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which connection would be used to describe ads that a smartphone sends as a person walks around a retail store?
A. machine-to-machine
B. business-to-consumer
C. machine-to-person
D. sensor-to-device

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Which option is a main benefit that Cisco Partners bring to the table for customers?
A. additional teams to implement solutions in a timely manner
B. relationships with key Cisco personnel
C. a large customer base for which to sell Cisco services
D. Cisco expertise and the ability to have specializations in certain practice areas
810-403 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
According to research, what is the leading reason that technology projects fail?
A. poor stakeholder identification and management
B. lack of budget
C. too many stakeholders
D. lack of a business model canvas
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which one of the following solutions enables business outcomes in the manufacturing industry?
A. Remote Expert
B. Advanced Routing
C. Service Provider Network Infrastructure
D. Plant Floor Control Network
E. Multilayer Switching
810-403 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which option is the primary goal in business outcome-based selling?
A. improving agility and the ability to deploy innovative services for end users
B. developing and enabling new business processes, markets, and customer interactions
C. taking advantage of new technology to increase business relevance
D. using next-generation IT to increase service quality and reduce risk, complexity, and costs

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

810-403 dumps

QUESTION 26
From the customer perspective, which are two benefits that result when moving from an on-premise solution to a Cloud solution? (Choose two.)
A. Recurring revenue stream
B. Lower initial investment
C. Higher ROI from investment
D. Increased value of company
E. Long-term business cycles benefits
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 27
Which two options are benefits of Cisco\’s overall portfolio with respect to the set of buyers? (Choose two.)
A. increased business performance
B. enhanced accountability
C. real-time business intelligence
D. higher service availability
810-403 exam Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 28
Cisco solutions and services are related to every kind of outcomes. Which is the goal of business outcomes?
A. To enable CXOs or Line of Business leaders to grow revenues, lower operating costs and achieve strategic business
objectives
B. To help customers establish new technology or evolve current functionality
C. To help customers operate, manage and optimize technology environment more effectively
D. To take advantage of new technology to increase business relevance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which two options are characteristics of Critical Success Factors (CSFs)? (Choose two.)
A. CSFs describe what is needed by an organization or project to reach its goal.
B. CSFs receive special and continual attention from management.
C. CSFs are quantitative in nature and focus stakeholder relationships
D. CSFs link business initiatives to adopt solutions and services
810-403 dumps Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 30
Which option is most likely to improve interactions with customers?
A. Understand their communication style.
B. Understand the goals of their team.
C. Learn their personal interests.
D. Know the time available to present the solution.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 31
Which discipline covers analyzing stakeholder expectations and their approach and posture towards technology?
A. Stakeholder Relationship
B. Neurolinguistics Programming
C. Stakeholder Management
D. Customer Relationship Management
810-403 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 32
Which two questions are used during high level outcome selling? (Choose two.)
A. What are the technical restrictions of business?
B. How is progress vs. outcomes measured?
C. How does talent architecture influence the definition of business outcomes?
D. How are the goals of top executives achieved?
E. What capabilities are needed to achieve the outcomes?
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 33
Drag and drop the financial benefits on the left to the direct and indirect spaces on the right.
Select and Place:

810-403 dumps

810-403 vce Correct Answer:
810-403 dumps

 

QUESTION 34
Which one of the following solutions enables business outcomes in the financial industry?
A. Multilayer Switching
B. Remote Expert
C. Plant Floor Control Network
D. Internet of Everything
E. Medianet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
Which two options are the types of costs the sales professionals should consider with the customer, in helping to
position technical support and cloud based services? (Choose two.)
A. Operational costs
B. Real costs
C. Hidden costs
D. Recurring costs
E. Perceived costs
810-403 exam Correct Answer: BE

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2.0 Business Goals 20%

2.1 Define the business outcome for the application
2.2 Document requirements in terms of deployment, lifecycle management, level of service
2.3 Describe application consumption models
2.3.a Understanding and describing clients for the application from the business perspective
2.3.b Understanding the multiple service level requirements
2.3.c Multitenant environment and implications on application deployment (gold or silver)
2.3.d Security considerations in different consumption models (firewall or certificates)
2.4 Describe the business benefits of making applications network
2.4.a Describe the actions that can be taken based on the information from the network
2.5 Identify challenges with making an application network aware

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Latest and Most Accurate Pass4itsure 600-509 Dumps Exam Q&As:

1. What is the best action to take when sharing a workspace?
A. Keep a log of daily activities to share with next shift.
B. Label all of your personal property.
C. Refrain from loading personal software onto computer equipment.
D. Shut down the computer equipment at the end of each shift.
600-509 exam Answer: C
2. Which statement best describes a good leader?
A. Good leaders demonstrate absolute control over their teams.
B. Good leaders do not need to offer incentives.
C. Good leaders encourage initiative.
D. Good leaders make all the decisions for their staff.
Answer: C
3. Whicht is an example of data that must be protected by security policies?
A. Department addresses.
B. General telephone numbers.
C. Head office marketing handouts.
D. Personal information.
600-509 dumps Answer: D
4. What is a best practice to use when placing a customer on hold?
A. Document your actions in the incident record.
B. Ensure that the hold music is working.
C. Provide a valid reason for putting the customer on hold.
D. Set a reminder so that you don forget the customer.
Answer: C
5. Which of the following techniques is the best one for reducing and eliminating conflict during a call?
A. Match the customer attitude.

B. Refrain from interrupting the customer.
C. Stop using the customer name.
D. Tell the customer you feel sorry for them.
600-509 pdf Answer: B
6. What is the most important reason for using customer satisfaction surveys?
A. Customer satisfaction surveys allow customers to say what they really think without offending Support Centre staff.
B. Customer satisfaction surveys help to determine if customer service expectations are being met.
C. Customer satisfaction surveys provide an accurate set of management reports on SLA performance.
D. Customer satisfaction surveys provide information that can be used to assess blame for problems.
Answer: B
7. What is the major difference between problem management and incident management?
A. Incident management and problem management are the same.
B. Incident management aims to get people back to work quickly and problem management tries to stop incidents from recurring.
C. Incident management aims to prevent problems from occurring in the first place, and problem management solves problems.
D. Incident management is used first, and problem management is used if incident management does not work.
600-509 vce Answer: B
8. What is the best reason for using proper grammar and spelling when documenting incidents?
A. Not using proper grammar and spelling is sloppy.
B. Not using proper grammar and spelling will anger the customer.
C. Using proper grammar and spelling is professional.
D. Using proper grammar and spelling will impress your supervisor.
Answer: C
9. What is a best practice for effective cross-cultural communication?

A. Ask open questions.
B. Increase the pace of the call.
C. Repeat everything that the customer says.
D. Use proper language expressions.
600-509 exam Answer: D
10. A customer calls with a problem you know they could solve using the Support Centre web site. What is a best practice for encouraging the customer to try self-help?
A. Ask if they have tried the website and give them the Answer.
B. Respectfully talk them through the self-help process.
C. Send them an e-mail with a link to the web site.
D. Tell them that the
Answer is on the web site and give them the URL.
Answer: B
11. Which metric is used to measure the average amount of time that a customer waits before a call is Answered?
A. Abandon before
Answer.
B. Availability.
C. Average speed to
Answer.
D. First contact resolution.
600-509 dumps Answer: C
12. What type of question will best encourage a customer to talk more about their incident?
A. Closed questions.
B. Open questions.
C. Technical questions.

D. Personal questions.
Answer: B
13. What is the best reason for providing status updates to your customers?
A. Providing status updates demonstrates sympathy for the customer.
B. Providing status updates ensures that you control the call.
C. Providing status updates is required by the SLA.
D. Providing status updates reduces the number of inbound calls.
600-509 pdf Answer: D
14. Which of the following is most likely to be a barrier to communication?
A. The customer ability to use self-help systems.
B. The customer previous experience with the Support Centre.
C. The customer position in the business.
D. The level of support provided by the Support Centre.
Answer: B
15. What is the best reason for using a standard greeting when Answering telephone calls?
A. Using a standard greeting complies with Support Centre standards.
B. Using a standard greeting ensures consistent service.
C. Using a standard greeting makes the customer feel humble.
D. Using a standard greeting prevents individuals developing their own greetings.
600-509 vce Answer: B
16. Why is it important for you to demonstrate confidence when dealing with others?
A. Demonstrating confidence establishes credibility with customers.
B. Demonstrating confidence increases first contact resolution.
C. Demonstrating confidence maximises talk time.

D. Demonstrating confidence minimises conflicts with customers.
Answer: A
17. What is the most important benefit of being empathetic towards your customers?
A. Your customers will know that you feel sorry for them.
B. Your customers will know that you can fix their problem for them.
C. Your customers will know that you understand how they feel.
D. Your customers will want to talk to you whenever they call.
600-509 exam Answer: C
18. Which statement best illustrates the concept of providing consistent service?
A. Answer all calls within 15 seconds or 3 rings.
B. Escalate all calls within 10 minutes if no
Answer is available.
C. Give each customer an Answer on first contact.
D. Provide all callers with the same quality of service.
Answer: D
19. What is the best description of process management?
A. Process management is accomplishing tasks that we can test, report, and improve upon.
B. Process management is a formal concept that we work with.
C. Process management is a set of rules that can never be bent or broken.
D. Process management is red tape that prevents creativity.
600-509 dumps Answer: A
20. What is a best practice to use to disengage from a customer?
A. Tell the customer the office is closing and you will call them tomorrow.
B. Tell the customer your queue is backing up.
C. Transfer the call to your supervisor.

D. Use closed questions.
Answer: D

21. A customer’s regulatory requirements require that they will have valid data at the recovery site regardless of any equipment or logical failure in the system or environment. How many DR site point-in-time copies are required if they want to be able to perform recovery testing?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
600-509 pdf Answer: B
22. What are two best practices for DR testing? (Choose two.)
A.Tests should be done at least twice a year.
B.The secondary copy of data (B) can be used as the DR test copy.
C.Testing should only be performed when new applications are added.
D.When using a point-in-time copy solution, another copy (D) should be used for DR testing purposes.
Answer: AD
23. What are two risks when extending a production SAN over distance? (Choose two.)
A. A telecommunications outage will segment the fabric.
B. RSCN storms may ensue from intermittent telecommunications issues.
C. Any differences in domain IDs on the fabric switches between the sites will keep the fabrics from merging.
D. Some Fibre Channel frames may occasionally cross the inter-site links and reach the incorrect storage array.
600-509 vce Answer: AB
24. Which formula is appropriate to use when calculating resource requirements for TrueCopy Asynchronous?
A.Bandwidth = [(peak write Mb/sec) / network compression ratio] + safety margin
B.Journal Capacity = (peak write Mb/sec) * anticipated network outage duration (minimum of 6 GB)
C.Number of RAID groups for journal volumes = (peak write Mb/sec) / (total throughput per RAID group)

D.Host delay = 2 * [(distance between MCU and RCU) / (speed of light in glass)] + losses due to network overhead
Answer: A
25. A customer is using TrueCopy Asynchronous to continuously replicate a database’s data and log volumes. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A.A database checkpoint should be forced immediately upon failover.
B.In the case of a planned outage, log volumes may not include all transactions.
C.In the case of an unplanned outage, log volumes may not include all transactions.
D.At recovery time, the database will rollback all uncommitted transactions in the logs.
600-509 exam Answer: CD
26. A customer is using TrueCopy to replicate a database’s data and log volumes. Which strategy will assist the customer with recovery from logical corruption such as a mistakenly dropped table?
A.Use ShadowImage to create point-in-time copies for recovery.
B.Use TrueCopy for data volumes only. Use log shipping to transfer individual transactions to the recovery facility.
C.Manage database checkpointing so that logs retain sufficient transactions to allow playback up to the corruption event.
D.Inflow control should be used to throttle incoming write traffic so that updates can be identified and prevented prior to their application onto the secondary volumes.
Answer: A
27. Which is required for I/O consistent recoverability?
A.Clustering software is in use at the recovery facility.
B.Recovery volumes have preserved write order fidelity.
C.Buffers on production hosts were fully de-staged to physical disk.
D.Log shipping is used to transfer transactions to the recovery facility.

600-509 dumps Answer: B
28. What are three regulatory requirements pertaining to data retention? (Choose three.)
A.Basel II
B.ISO 9000
C.SEC rule 17a
D.Email Archiving
E.Sarbanes-Oxley Act
Answer: ACE
29. Basel II is the second Basel Accord and represents recommendations by bank supervisors and central bankers from 13 countries making up the Basel Committee on banking supervision to revise the international standards for measuring the adequacy of a bank’s capital. Which three statements are true for Basel II? (Choose three.)
A.It can easily be circumvented by regulatory arbitrage.
B.It ensures that capital allocation is less risk conscious.
C.It ensures that capital allocation is more risk conscious.
D.It separates operational risk from credit risk, and quantifies both.
E.It attempts to align economic and regulatory capital more closely to reduce the scope for regulatory arbitrage.
600-509 pdf Answer: CDE
30. Which two statements are true for RPO? (Choose two.)
A.If the recovery point is within hours, no replication is necessary.
B.If the recovery point is within minutes, asynchronous (or off-line) replication may be suitable.
C.If the recovery point of an application is set to within seconds of a disaster occurring, synchronous (or live) replication (duplication) of data should be considered.
D.Global clustering, manual migration or tape restore are various options that are dependent on the acceptable time scales required to restore systems to full operations.
Answer: BC

31.What is required to access the Advanced Secure Manager features in Command View ESL?
A.the appropriate license key
B.valid user access permissions
C.a special administrator password
D.a suitable advanced user account
600-509 vce Correct:A
32.Click the Exhibit button. Which component is connected to port E1 of the cluster controller if it is in drive cluster 0?
A.cabinet controller
B.interface controller
C.lower cluster controller
D.Interface Manager card
Correct:A
33.What does the OCP display when a library hangs because there are more than one hundred unlabeled tape cartridges in the library?
A.Error 22
B.Please wait
C.Going on line
D.Inventory failure
600-509 exam Correct:C

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Exam Code: 200-355
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals
Q&As: 421

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QUESTION 56
Which two Cisco WLC management-access methods are available as the default setting? (Choose two.)
A. SSH
B. HTTPS
C. Telnet
D. HTTP
200-355 exam Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 57
Which two statements about the requirements to configure inter-controller roaming are true? (Choose two.)
A. The same mobility domain names are configured across controllers.
B. The same RF group names are configured across controllers.
C. The same controller hardware version is configured across controllers.
D. The same AP manager interface is configured across controllers.
E. The same virtual interface is configured across controllers.
F. The same controller software version is configured across controllers.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 58
Which Cisco AnyConnect module allows troubleshooting for core Cisco AnyConnect problems?
A. telemetry
B. web security
C. VPN
D. NAM
E. DART
F. posture
G. CSSC
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 59
200-355 dumps

Refer to the exhibit. The wireless engineer has deployed the Cisco 5508 Wireless Controller. The controller is responding on the service port; however, it will not respond on the management interface. Which configuration revision will fix the management interface?
A. On the switch interface, configure switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan add 10.
B. On the WLC management interface, disable LAG on the management network.
C. On the switch interface, configure switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 10.
D. On the WLC management interface, change the VLAN ID to 20.
E. On the switch interface, configure no spanning-tree portfast trunk.
F. On WLC Controller > General, disable LAG and reboot.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 60
What does the following scatter gram suggest?
A. Sales revenue is inversely related to training costs.
B. The training program is not effective.
C. Training costs do not affect sales revenue.
D. Several data points are incorrectly plotted.
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Internal auditors may use scatter diagrams to detect misstated data, relationships among variables, and unusual operating results. A scatter diagram is a graph of data points. When the points have a systematic relationship, the independent (x) variable and dependent (y) variable are likely to be correlated; i.e.. the value of one variable is a predictor ofthevalue of the other. However, the variables in this scattergram are clearly uncorrelated because training costs do not predict sales.
QUESTION 61
To remove the effect of seasonal variation from a time series, original data should be:
A. Increased by the seasonal factor.
B. Reduced by the seasonal factor.
C. Multi plied by the seasonal factor.
D. Divided by the seasonal factor.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Seasonal variations are common in many businesses. To remove the effect of seasonal variation from a time series, the original data (with the four trends) is divided by the seasonal norm.
QUESTION 62
The moving-average method of forecasting:
A. Is a cross-sectional forecasting method.
B. Regresses the variable of interest on a related variable to develop a forecast.
C. Derives final forecasts by adjusting the initial forecast based on the smoothing constant.
D. Includes each new observation in the average as it becomes available and discards the oldest observation.
200-355 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The simple moving-average method is a smoothing technique that uses the experience of the past N periods (through time period t) to forecast a value for the next period. Thus, the average includes each new observation and discards the oldest observation. The forecast formula for the next period (for time period t+1) is the
sum of the last N observations divided by N.
QUESTION 63
A company is formulating its plans for the coming year, including the preparation of its cash budget. Historically. 30% of the company’s sales are cash sales. The
remaining 70% are credit sales with the following collection pattern:
Sales for the first 5 months of the coming year are forecast as follows:
For the month of April, the total cash receipts from sales and collections on account would be:
A. US$3,729,968
B. US$3,781,600
C. US$4,025,200
D. US$4,408,000
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The cash receipts for April equal April’s cash sales (US $4,000,000 * 30% = US $1.200,000), 40% of April’s credit sales, and 58% of March’s credit sales. Consequently, total cash receipts equal US $3,781,600 [$1,200,000 + ($4,000,000 * 40% x 70%) + ($3,600,000 x 58% x 70%)].
QUESTION 64
A learning curve of 80% assumes that the incremental unit time is reduced by 20% for each doubling of output. Also, direct labor cost is proportionate to time
worked. What is the incremental direct labor cost of the 16th unit produced as an approximate percentage of the first unit produced?

A. 41%
B. 31%
C. 51%
D. 64%
200-355 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The assumption is that the incremental unit time (time to produce the last unit) is reduced by 20% when production doubles. Thus, the labor cost of the sixteenth unit is 40.96% of that for the first unit (100% x 80% x 80% x 80% x 80%).
QUESTION 65
Management of a bookkeeping company observed that the average time spent to perform identical tasks using a new software package decreases as the number of tasks performed increases. The following information on the use of the new software was collected. If this learning effect continues, what is the average time to perform each of the first eight tasks?
A. 7.29 minutes.
B. 8.1 minutes.
C. 6.56 minutes.
D. 5.90 minutes.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Learning curves reflect the increased rate at which people perform tasks as they gain experience. The time required to perform a given task becomes progressively shorter. This technique is applicable only to the early stages of production or to any new task. One common assumption is that the cumulative average time per unit is reduced by a fixed percentage each time cumulative production is doubled. Based on the given data, this company has a 90% learning curve (90% x 10 minutes = 9 minutes, and 90% x 9 minutes = 8.1 minutes). Accordingly, the cumulative average time to perform eight tasks is 7.29 minutes (90% x 8.1 minutes).

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION 30
What is an advantage of implementing a Trusted Platform Module for disk encryption?
A. It provides hardware authentication.
B. It allows the hard disk to be transferred to another device without requiring re- encryption.dis
C. It supports a more complex encryption algorithm than other disk-encryption technologies.
D. It can protect against single points of failure.
210-260 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps

While troubleshooting site-to-site VPN, you issued the show crypto isakmp sa command.
What does the given output show?
A. IPSec Phase 1 is established between 10.10.10.2 and 10.1.1.5.
B. IPSec Phase 2 is established between 10.10.10.2 and 10.1.1.5.
C. IPSec Phase 1 is down due to a QM_IDLE state

D. IPSec Phase 2 is down due to a QM_IDLE state.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
What is the purpose of the Integrity component of the CIA triad?
A. to ensure that only authorized parties can modify data
B. to determine whether data is relevant
C. to create a process for accessing data
D. to ensure that only authorized parties can view data
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
Which statements about smart tunnels on a Cisco firewall are true? (Choose two.)
A. Smart tunnels can be used by clients that do not have administrator privileges
B. Smart tunnels support all operating systems
C. Smart tunnels offer better performance than port forwarding
D. Smart tunnels require the client to have the application installed locally
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 34
What is the FirePOWER impact flag used for?
A. A value that indicates the potential severity of an attack.
B. A value that the administrator assigns to each signature.
C. A value that sets the priority of a signature.
D. A value that measures the application awareness.
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
One of the main reasons total quality management (TQM) can be used as a strategic weapon is that:
A. The cumulative improvement from a company’s TQM efforts cannot readily be copied by competitors.
B. Introducing new products can lure customers away from competitors.
C. Reduced costs associated with better quality can support higher shareholder dividends.
D. TQM provides a comprehensive planning process for a business.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
TQM is a comprehensive approach to quality. It treats the pursuit of quality as a basic organizational function that is as important as production or marketing.
Because TQM affects every aspect of the organization’s activities, it is part of the organizational culture. Thus, the cumulative effect of TQM’s continuous
improvement process can attract and hold customers and cannot be duplicated by competitors.
QUESTION 36
If a company is customer-centered, its customers are defined as:
A. Only people external to the company who have purchased something from the company.
B. Only people internal to the company who directly use its product.
C. Anyone external to the company and those internal who rely on its product to get their job done.
D. Everybody external to the company who is currently doing, or may in the future do, business with the company.
210-260 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
One of the principles of total quality management (TQM) is customer orientation, whether the customer is internal or external. An internal customer is a member of
the organization who relies on another member’s work to accomplish his/her task.
QUESTION 37
Which statement best describes the emphasis of total quality management (TQM)?
A. Reducing the cost of inspection.
B. Implementing better statistical quality control techniques.
C. Doing each job right the first time.
D. Encouraging cross-functional teamwork.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The basic principles of TQM include (1) doing each job right the first time, (2) being customer oriented, (3) committing the organizational culture to continuous
improvement, and (4) building teamwork and employee empowerment.
QUESTION 38
The use of teams in total quality management (TQM) is important because:
A. Well-managed teams can be highly creative and are able to address complex problems better than individuals can.
B. Teams are quicker to make decisions, thereby helping to reduce cycle time.
C. Employee motivation is higher for team members than for individual contributors.
D. The use of teams eliminates the need for supervision, thereby allowing a company to become leaner and more profitable.
210-260 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Teams can use the diverse knowledge and skills of all team members. Employee involvement means training and empowering employees to harness their
creativity for problem solving. Quality control circles are used to obtain input from employees and to locate the best perspective on problem solving.
QUESTION 39
Which statement best describes total quality management (TQM)?
A. TQM emphasizes reducing the cost of inspection.
B. TQM emphasizes better statistical quality control techniques.
C. TQM emphasizes doing each job right the first time.
D. TQM emphasizes encouraging cross-functional teamwork.
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
TQM establishes quality as an organizational objective and views it as a major component of the organization’s service to its customers. It emphasizes employee
training and commitment, productservice design and production, and customer service. Ordinarily, the quality of a product or service is as important to customers
as cost and timeliness. Superior product quality is not merely the result of more inspection, better statistical quality control, and cross-functional teamwork.
Manufactures must make fundamental changes in the way they produce products and do each job right the first time.
QUESTION 40
Which of the following is not true about the advantages of adopting ISO 9000 standards?
A. Adoption of ISO 9000 standards may allow an entity to sell products in foreign markets.
B. ISO registration makes customers more comfortable with the supplier’s products and services.
C. ISO 9000 allows entities to understand who internal customers and users are without sharing private information.
D. ISO registration may help entities discover internal process and quality improvements.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

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Exam Code: 210-451
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals
Q&As: 60

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QUESTION 1
Which option is one essential characteristic of Cloud computing?
A. It must use virtualization.
B. It must provide load balancing services.
C. It must provide on-demand self service.
D. It must run on open source software.
210-451 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Which Cloud service model is appropriate for a physical data center move to the Cloud?
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Compute as a Service
D. Software as a Service
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
What is an invalid Cloud deployment model 210-451 dumps ?
A. distributed
B. private
C. community
D. hybrid
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which two options are benefits of the Cisco InterCloud Solution? (Choose two.)
A. enforces standardization on a single hypervisor product
B. provides self service for hybrid resources
C. management of heterogeneous SAN solutions
D. secure connectivity between public and private Clouds
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 5
Which option contains server hardware identifiers, firmware, state, configuration, and connectivity
characteristics?
A. pools
B. policies
C. service profiles
D. resource groups
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
An embedded software company is considering to improve the quality of its software components to be
delivered to the integration team. After studying various experience papers that report a higher level of
quality for software components, two main alternative techniques are identified: static analysis and
dynamic analysis. In deciding which one is most applicable and how they relate to each other a detailed
study is performed. Which of the following are TWO key similarities between static analysis and dynamic
analysis? 2 credits [K4]
Number of correct answers: 2
A. Both are performed using requirements as its major input document
B. Both are usually undertaken by integration testers
C. Both are usually undertaken by development during coding and unit testing
D. Both are related to reviews
E. Both usually use a tool
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 7
Which of the following is a dynamic analysis technique related to improving application performance? 1
credit [K2]
Number of correct answers: 1
A. Code complexity analysis
B. Profiling
C. Network package sniffing
D. Spelling and grammar checking
210-451 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Definition-use pairs are identified during which of the following static analysis activities? 1 credit [K2]
Number of correct answers: 1
A. Control flow analysis
B. Data flow activities
C. Coding standards analysis
D. Cyclomatic complexity analysis
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
If we say that a set of tests has achieved 100% structural decision coverage on a particular module in a
program, what does that mean?
1 credit [K2]
Number of correct answers: 1
A. That all bugs present in that module were necessarily revealed by those tests.
B. That every control flow branch had been executed at least once by those tests.
C. That every dataflow in that module was exercised at least once by those tests.
D. That every path through that module was exercised at least once by those tests.
210-451 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
If you are flying with an economy ticket, there is a possibility that you may get upgraded to business class,
especially if you hold a gold card in the airline’s frequent flier program. If you don’t hold a gold card, there
is a possibility that you will get `bumped’ off the flight if it is full and you check in late. This is shown in the
figure hereafter. Note that each box (i.e.
statement) has been numbered.
Three tests have been run:
Test 1: Gold card holder who gets upgraded to business class
Test 2: Non-gold card holder who stays in economy
Test 3: A person who is bumped from the flight
What is the statement coverage of these three tests?2 credits [K4]
Number of correct answers: 1
A. 60%
B. 70%
C. 80%
D. 90%
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
As part of a risk analysis, technical risks are analyzed. Which TWO factors influence technical risk? 1
credit [K2]
Number of correct answers: 2
A. Complexity of technology
B. Frequency of use of the affected failure
C. Interfacing and integration issues

D. Damage to image
E. Lack of reasonable workaround
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 12
A component has been analyzed as being highly critical. Which of the following structure- based test
design techniques provides the highest level of coverage? 1 credit [K2]
Number of correct answers: 1
A. Statement testing
B. Decision testing
C. Condition determination testing
D. Multiple condition testing
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
The result of a product risk analysis performed on components I, II and III
of the airplane control system shows the following risk matrix:
The project wants to mitigate the risks by defining different types of coverage depending on the risk level of
the components. Which of the following would be a meaningful solution for setting the coverage targets?2
credits [K3]
Number of correct answers: 1
A. I: Condition determination coverage, II: Decision Coverage, III: Statement coverage
B. I: Condition determination coverage, II: Statement coverage, III: Decision coverage
C. I: Decision coverage, II: Condition determination coverage, III: Statement Coverage
D. I: Multiple condition coverage, II: Decision coverage, III: Condition determination coverage
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: 300-075
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 2 v1.0
Q&As: 377

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Question No : 34 Scenario:
There are two call control systems in this item.
The Cisco UCM is controlling the DX650, the Cisco Jabber for Windows Client, and the
7965 and 9971 Video IP Phones.
The Cisco VCS and TMS control the Cisco TelePresence Conductor, the Cisco
TelePresence MCU, and the Cisco Jabber TelePresence for Windows.
300-075 dumps

300-075 dumps

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300-075 dumps

SIP Trunk:
300-075 dumps
What two tasks must be completed in order to support calls between the VCS controlled
endpoints and the Cisco Unified CM endpoints? (Choose two.)
A. Media Resource Group List.
B. Configure a SIP trunk on the Cisco Unified CM to point to the Cisco VCS.
C. Configure a neighbor zone on the Cisco Unified CM to point to the Cisco VCS.
D. Configure a SIP trunk on the Cisco VCS to point to the Cisco Unified CM.
E. Configure a neighbor zone on the Cisco VCS to point to the Cisco Unified CM.
300-075 exam 
Answer: C,D
Question No : 35 How long is the default keepalive period for SRST in Cisco 300-075 dumps IOS?
A. 45 sec
B. 30 sec
C. 60 sec
D. 120 sec
Answer: B
Question No : 36
Which three items must you configure to enable SAF Call Control Discovery? (Choose three.)
A.a calling search space
B.hosted DN patterns
C.translation patterns
D.route patterns
E.the SIP or H.323 trunk
F.hosted DN groups
300-075 pdf 
Answer: B,E,F
Reference:
Question No : 37 Which module is the minimum PVDM3 module needed to support video transcoding?
A. PVDM3-32
B. PVDM3-64
C. PVDM3-128
D. PVDM3-192
300-075  vce 
Answer: C

QUESTION: 38
Which of the following statements regarding exercise for persons with controlled
cardiovascular disease is TRUE?

A. Resistance exercise training is dangerous and should be avoided.
B. A physician-supervised exercise test is not necessary to establish exercise intensity.
C. Anginal pain is normal during exercise, and participants should be pushed through the
pain.
D. Exercise intensity should be set at an HR of 10 bpm less than the level at which
signs/symptoms were evidenced during an exercise test.
300-075 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 39
All of the following factors are important to consider when determining exercise intensity
EXCEPT
A. An individual’s level of fitness.
B. The risk of cardiovascular or orthopedic injury.
C. Any previous history participating in organized sports.
D. Individual preference and exercise objectives.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 40
When determining the intensity level, the RPE is a better indicator than percentage of
maximal HR for all of the following groups EXCEPT
A. Individuals on f3-blockers.
B. Aerobic classes that involve excessive arm movement.
C. Individuals older than 65 years.
D. Individuals involved in high-intensity exercise.
300-075 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION: 41
Using the original Borg scale, it is recommended that the exercise intensity elicit an RPE
within the range of

A. 8 to 12.
B. 12 to 16.
C. 14 to 18.
D. 6 to 10.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 42
The MINIMAL duration of exercise necessary to achieve improvements in health for
deconditioned individuals is
A. 20 minutes continuously.
B. 30 minutes continuously.
C. Multiple sessions of more than 10 minutes in duration throughout the day.
D. Two sessions of 20 minutes throughout the day.
300-075 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION: 43
Which of the following is a method of strength and power training that involves an
eccentric loading of muscles and tendons followed immediately by an explosive
concentric contraction?
A. Super sets.
B. Split routines.
C. Plyometrics.
D. Periodization.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 44
The safety of resistance exercise is dependent on all of the following except
A. Having a personal trainer.
B. Proper breathing.
C. Speed of movement.
D. Body mechanics.

300-075 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 45
The recommended muscular strength and endurance training program for apparently
healthy individuals should be
A. One set of 8 to 12 reps, 8 to 10 separate exercises, 2 days per week.
B. Two sets of six to eight reps, 8 to 10 separate exercises, 2 days per week.
C. One set of 8 to 12 reps, 8 to 10 separate exercises, 4 to 5 days per week.
D. Two sets of six to eight reps, 8 to 10 separate exercises, 4 days per week, and
alternating days for legs and upper body.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 46
Which the following statements regarding intensity of resistance training is FALSE?
A. The number of repetitions to volitional fatigue will vary inversely with resistance.
B. It is necessary to determine the 1- RM to establish training intensity.
C. Exercise to volitional fatigue is not dangerous from a musculoskeletal standpoint
provided that good exercise form is maintained.
D. Exercise intensity should be similar for males and females.
300-075 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 47
The recommended cardiorespiratory endurance exercise training program for older
individuals should be
A. 40% to 60% of maximum HR, 20 to 30 minutes continuously, 3 days per week.
B. 50% to 70% of HRR, 20 to 30 minutes (multiple sessions of 5-10 min), 3 days per
week.
C. 40% to 60% of maximum HR, 20 to 30 minutes (multiple sessions of 5-10 min), 3
days per week.
D. 50% to 70% of HRR, 20 to 30 minutes continuously, 3 days per week

300-075 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 48
Osteoporosis is more prevalent in
A. Women who have never been pregnant.
B. African-American women.
C. Women who are involved in activities that place stress on the wrists, hips, or lum
bosacral region.
D. Postmenopausal women.
 Answer: D
Section 2: Sec Two (49 to 73)
Details: Nutrition and Weight Management

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