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For anyone who is new at all to the Oracle database, this exam is really a great feeder point into the certification process since the SQL Fundamentals exam is one of the least complicated Oracle certification 1Z0-061 pdf that you will experience. This may not be to convey the test is very little pushover – taking it without prepared may well end in failure.

Exam Code: 1Z0-061
Exam Name: Oracle Database 12c: SQL Fundamentals
Updated: Apr 18, 2017
Q&As: 75
Exam Information:http://www.pass4itsure.com/1Z0-061.html

Using 1Z0-061 PDF Subqueries to Solve Queries

  • Define subqueries
  • Describe the types of problems that the subqueries can solve
  • Describe the types of subqueries
  • Write single-row and multiple-row subqueries
  • Using the SET Operators
  • Describe set operators
  • Use a set operator to combine multiple queries into a single query

The Oracle Education website lists all of the topics that is to be covered inside the 1Z0-061 pdf. In addition to the certification requirement, SQL knowledge is definitely a essential requirement of working with the Oracle database.

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QUESTION 11

What is takin place at the Verifing Encryption stage of the wireless enterpriseactivation process? (Choose one)
A. The BlackBerry device and BlackBerry Enterprise Server are netotiating a master encryption key
B. All personal information on the BlackBerry device being compressed, encrytped and sent over the wirless network to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
C. All settings on the BlackBerry device are being verified by the BlackBerry Enterprise Server for security considerations
D. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server is sending service book information to the BlackBerry device
E. The BlackBerry device is scanning the BlackBerry Enterprise Server settings for security considerations

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 12
Which of the following is an encryption standard that is used by the BlackBerry Enterprise Server to communicate with BlackBerry devices? (Shoose one)
A. HTTPS
B. AES
C. TKIP
D. DES
E. TLS

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
A BlackBerry device user who is active on a BlackBerry Enterpirse Server files an email message to a subfolder in the email application and notices the email message no longer appears in the Messages list on the BlackBerry device. Why is this email message no longer viewable in the mail Messages list? (Choose one)
A. The user has the option Hide Filed Messages set to Yes
B. The current theme active on the BlackBerry device is hiding the email message
C. A corrupt Desktop[CMIME] service book
D. Folder redirection is enabled
E. The BlackBerry device email message database is corrupt

Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 14
Which two of the following processes can determine the current build version of BlackBerry Desktop Manger that is installed? (Choose two)
A. Right click the BlackBerry Desktop Manager icon on the desktop and review properties B. Open BlackBerry Desktop Manager>Help>About Desktop Manager
C. Launch the BlackBerry Desktop Manager application and look at the title bar at the top fo the application
D. Open Control panel>Add / remover programs > Select Desktop Manager and choose click here for support info in Windows
E. Look on the BlackBerry Desktop Manager CD

Correct Answer: BD

 

 

QUESTION 15
Which file should be edited to enable advance loggin in BlackBerry Desktop Manager? (Choose one)
A. Dmtrace.log
B. Jvm.log
C. Tiff.log
D. iloptcfg.cfg
E. Sync.log

Correct Answer: D

 

 

1Z0-061 pdf QUESTION 16
Within the properties of a given Desktop service book, which field denotes the BlackBerry Enterprise Server that the BlackBerry device has been activated on? (Choose one)
A. DSID
B. UID
C. CID
D. Gatetway IP
E. User ID

Correct Answer: B

 

 

QUESTION 17
In BlackBerry Desktop Manager, the title bar continually shows a tatus of Disconnected after connecting the BlackBerry device to the computer. Which of the following troubleshooting steps would help resolve this issue? (Choose two)
A. Perform a clean install of the BlackBerry Device Software
B. Perform a hard reset fo the BlackBerry device
C. Uninstall previous installations of BlackBerry Device Software
D. Ensure Power Management options are turned off for the USB Root Hubs on the computer
E. Ensure no other USB devices are connected to the computer

Correct Answer: BD

 

 

QUESTION 18
If the synchronization process with BlackBerry Desktop Manager appears to be successful but no information is transferred to the BlackBerry device, what is the cause of this? (Choose one)
A. The BlackBerry device memory is full
B. The items were transferred to a media card instead of the internal BlackBerry device memory
C. The wireless radio is turned off
D. BlackBerry Desktop Manger is setup to sue the wrong MAPI profile
E. The BlackBerry device is missing the appropriate service books
Correct Answer: D

 

 

QUESTION 19
Which three of the following conditions must be met in order to initiate a wireless enterprise activation of a BlackBerry device on a BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose three)
A. The servccie provider has provisioned the BlackBerry device for the Enterprise service class
B. The user account has been added to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
C. The PIN number of th eBlackBerry device has been manually entered under the user account on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
D. An activation password has been set for the user on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
E. The BlackBerry devicemust reeive a token from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server

Correct Answer: ABD

 

 

QUESTION 20
When configuring a BlackBerry device for access to Wi-Fi, which two of the following pieces of infomration are required? (Choose two)
A. IMEI
B. PIN
C. WLAN MAC
D. IMSI
E. SSID

Correct Answer: CE

 

 

QUESTION 21
Which of the following can be obtained from the Options>Acout screren of the BlackBerry device? (choose one)
A. BlackBerry Device Software version
B. Owner information
C. Mobile Network IMSI
D. PIN
E. IT Policy name

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which three client types require a locally Installed .srf file?
A. Web client
B. Handheld client
C. Wireless Web client
D. Mobile Web client
E. Developer Web client
Answer: D
Reference: http://dream2real.weebly.com/uploads/6/1/3/9/6139766/11_siebel_client_types.pdf (slide 10, second sub-bulleted point of the first bullet)
QUESTION NO: 2
Which two statements are correct?
A. Business components contain data for one fundamental business entity in the enterprise
B. A business component is a collection of related business object that represent a major area of business.
C. The business consists of UI object definitions that specify the content of user interface.
D. A view refers to one business component whose data can be viewed and edited through a form
E. A view display, one or more applets which reference business component from the business
Answer: A,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
Which client accesses local .cfg and .srf files and directly accesses a local database and Siebel file System?
A. Web Client
B. Wireless Web Client
C. Dedicated Web Client
D. Handheld Client
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 4
What are the two characteristics of Multitenancy?
A. Agents cannot manually assume appropriate role based on inbound work items.
B. It allows a Call Center agent to support multiple clients at once.
C. It allows users to navigate through multi-interactions.
D. It requires users to change position to access appropriate data.
E. It allows up-to-date overview of customer service effectiveness.

Answer: A,B
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E14004_01/books/PDF/CommSrvAdm.pdf (page 188, and 190)
QUESTION NO: 5
What is used to capture relationships between Siebel database tables?
A. Index
B. User key
C. Primary key
D. Foreign key
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6
For which three types of Siebel objects can a user perform assessments?
A. Partners
B. Service Requests
C. Accounts
D. Contacts
E. Opportunities
F. Activities
Answer: C,D,E Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B40099_02/books/AppsAdmin/AppsAdminAssessments6.html
QUESTION NO: 7
You are completing a solution to a business requirement, which includes a Siebel workflow process. This workflow updates accounts records with updated corporate information and must run weekly for all accounts. What would be the best method for invoking the workflow?
A. By a run-time event
B. Using a custom control
C. By a workflow policy
D. Using the workflow simulator
Answer: C
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B14099_19/integrate.1012/b14062/app_siebworkflows.htm
QUESTION NO: 8
What information does Siebel Audit Trail NOT display for an audited record?
A. The ID of users who perform operations on the record
B. The operations that are performed on the record
C. Before and after values of the record’s modified fields
D. The last name of the users who perform operations on the record
E. The time and date that the record was operated on
Answer: D
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B40099_02/books/AppsAdmin/AppsAdminAuditTrail14.html

QUESTION NO: 9
Which is the correct term for a list of task steps grouped under a common display name?
A. Task Group
B. Task Set
C. Task Chapter
D. Task Unit
E. Task Book
Answer: C Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B40099_02/books/BusProcFramework/BusProcFramework_UIConcepts 39.html

QUESTION NO: 10
You have the choice of doing Single Instance Deployment Architecture or a Multiple Instance Deployment Architecture. You have chosen the Single Instance Deployment. Select two benefits of a Single Instance Deployment.
A. It provides a consistent view of all global data.
B. A single database can be taken offline without impacting other regions.
C. A single database can support multiple languages.
D. Multiple databases support resilience.
E. It minimizes demands on communication bandwidths.
Answer: A,C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 11
Which cannot be part of an access group?
A. Position
B. Organization
C. Household
D. User List
E. Person

Answer: E
Reference: http://siebelweb.com/configuration/siebel-access-control-mechanisms/ (topic: Access- group access control)
QUESTION NO: 12
Which statement describes directory server authentication?
A. It is the default authentication method for Siebel applications.
B. It typically uses a single reserved database login for all users.
C. It does not require additional infrastructure components, such as security adapters.
D. The user authentication is performed by a third-party service at the web server level.
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 13
You are in the application, when you click on Help – > About View In the application toolbar, you find that you are looking, at the Account Opportunities View. What three other pieces of Information would be displayed in the Help – > About View?
A. The top applet is based on the Account business component.
B. The view is based on the Opportunity business component.
C. Both the top and bottom applets are based on the Account business component.
D. The view is based on the Account business object.
E. The bottom applet is based on the Opportunity business component.
Answer: A,B,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 14
Which three statements are true with regards to a Siebel Mobile Web client?
A. It has access has to a local executable (.exe file).
B. It has access to local .srf and .cfg files.
C. It has access to a local Synchronization Manager.
D. It has access to a local Enterprise Manager.
E. It has access to a local database.
Answer: A,D,E
Reference: http://dream2real.weebly.com/uploads/6/1/3/9/6139766/11_siebel_client_types.pdf (slide 10)
QUESTION NO: 15
Refer to the Exhibit.

The link is defining which type of relationship?
A. 1:1
B. 1:M
C. M:1
D. M:M
Answer: D
Reference: http://www.siebelguide.com/basics/1_1RelationShip.html
QUESTION NO: 16
Which option describes the role of Assignment Objects for Assignment Manager?
A. describe when a record should be assigned to candidates
B. identify the types of data to assign using Assignment Manager
C. identify the people that will be assigned to records
D. evaluate all people for a matching skill in order to assign records
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 17
A Siebel iHelp item is typically modified by:
A. end users
B. application administrators or business analysts
C. business automation administrators
D. developers or members of the Siebel implementation team
Answer: A Explanation:

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QUESTION 1
Which three possible values can be set for the TIME_ZONE session parameter by using the ALTER SESSION command? (Choose three.)
A. ‘os’
B. local
C. -8:00′
D. dbtimezone Li
E. ‘Australia’

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 2
EMPDET is an external table containing the columns EMPNO and ENAME. Which command would work in relation to the EMPDET table?
A. UPDATE empdet SET ename = ‘Amit’ WHERE empno = 1234;
B. DELETE FROM empdet WHERE ename LIKE ‘J%’;
C. CREATE VIEW empvu ASSELECT* FROM empdept;
D. CREATE INDEX empdet_dx ON empdet(empno);

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Which three tasks can be performed using regular expression support in Oracle Database 10g? (Choose three.)
A. it can be used to concatenate two strings.
B. it can be used to find out the total length of the string.
C. it can be used for string manipulation and searching operations.
D. it can be used to format the output for a column or expression having string data.
E. it can be used to find and replace operations for a column or expression having string data.

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 4
Which three statements are true regarding single-row functions? (Choose three.)
A. They can accept only one argument.
B. They can be nested up to only two levels.
C. They can return multiple values of more than one data type.
D. They can be used in SELECT, WHERE, and ORDER BY clauses.
E. They can modify the data type of the argument that is referenced.
F. They can accept a column name, expression, variable name, or a user-supplied constant as arguments.
Correct Answer: DEF
QUESTION 5
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the ORDERS and ORDERJTEMS tables.
Evaluate the following SQL statement:
SELECT oi.order_id, product_jd, order_date FROM order_items oi JOIN orders o USING(order_id);
Which statement is true regarding the execution of this SQL statement?

A. The statement would not execute because table aliases are not allowed in the JOIN clause.
B. The statement would not execute because the table alias prefix is not used in the USING clause.
C. The statement would not execute because all the columns in the SELECT clause are not prefixed with table aliases.
D. The statement would not execute because the column part of the USING clause cannot have a qualifier in the SELECT list.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true regarding the execution of the correlated subqueries? (Choose two.)
A. The nested query executes after the outer query returns the row.
B. The nested query executes first and then the outer query executes.
C. The outer query executes only once for the result returned by the inner query.
D. Each row returned by the outer query is evaluated for the results returned by the inner query.

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 7
Evaluate the CREATE TABLE statement:
CREATE TABLE products
(product_id NUMBER(6) CONSTRAINT prod_id_pk PRIMARY KEY, product_name VARCHAR2(15));
Which statement is true regarding the PROD_ID_PK constraint?

A. It would be created only if a unique index is manually created first.
B. It would be created and would use an automatically created unique index.
C. It would be created and would use an automatically created nonunique index.
D. It would be created and remains in a disabled state because no index is specified in the command.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
View the Exhibit and examine the data in the PRODUCT INFORMATION table.

Which two tasks would require subqueries? (Choose two.)
A. displaying the minimum list price for each product status
B. displaying all supplier IDs whose average list price is more than 500
C. displaying the number of products whose list prices are more than the average list price
D. displaying all the products whose minimum list prices are more than the average list price of products having the product status orderable
E. displaying the total number of products supplied by supplier 102071 and having product status OBSOLETE

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 9
Which statement best describes the GROUPING function?
A. It is used to set the order for the groups to be used for calculating the grand totals and subtotals.
B. It is used to form various groups to calculate total and subtotals created using ROLLUP and CUBE operators.
C. It is used to identify if the NULL value in an expression is a stored NULL value or created by ROLLUP or CUBE.
D. It is used to specify the concatenated group expressions to be used for calculating the grand totals and subtotals.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
Evaluate the following statement: INSERT ALL WHEN order_total < 10000 THEN INTO small_orders WHEN order_total > 10000 AND order_total < 20000 THEN INTO medium_orders WHEN order_total > 2000000 THEN INTO large_orders SELECT order_id, order_total, customer_id FROM orders; Which statement is true regarding the evaluation of rows returned by the subquery in the INSERT statement?
A. They are evaluated by all the three WHEN clauses regardless of the results of the evaluation of any other WHEN clause.
B. They are evaluated by the first WHEN clause. If the condition is true, then the row would be evaluated by the subsequent WHEN clauses.
C. They are evaluated by the first WHEN clause. If the condition is false, then the row would be evaluated by the subsequent WHEN clauses.
D. The INSERT statement would give an error because the ELSE clause is not present for support in case none of the WHEN clauses are true.

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which two statements are true about setting the FAST_ START_ MTTR_ TARGET initialization parameter to a nonzero value?
A. The MTTR advisor will be disabled.
B. Automatic checkpoint tuning will be enabled.
C. The value for the LOG_CHECKPIONT_INTERVAL initialization parameter will be override the value for FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET.
D. The time taken to recover the instance after the crash is always exactly the same as the value given for the FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET initialization parameter.

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 2
You have set the value of the NLS_TIMESTAMP_TZ_FORMAT parameter to YYYY-MM-DD. The default format of which two data types would be affected by this setting?
A. DATE
B. TIMESTAMP
C. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH
D. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND
E. TIMESTAMP WITH LOCAL TIME ZONE

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 3
Which two statements are true regarding the functionality of the remap command in ASMCMD?
A. It repairs blocks that have read disk I/O errors.
B. It checks whether the alias metadata directory and the file directory are linked correctly.
C. It repairs blocks by always reading them from the mirror copy and writing them to the original location.
D. It reads the blocks from a good copy of an ASM mirror and rewrites them to an alternate location on disk if the blocks on the original location cannot be read properly.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 4
What happens when you run the SQL Tuning Advisor with limited scope?
A. Access path analysis is not performed for SQL statements.
B. SQL structure analysis is not performed for SQL statements.
C. SQL Profile recommendations are not generated for SQL statements.
D. Staleness and absence of statistics are not checked for the objects in the query supplied to the SQL Tuning Advisor.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Which options would you consider while configuring a flash recovery area (fast recovery area in 11g Release 2) for your production database that is running in ARCHIEVELOG mode? (Choose all that apply.) (Choose all that apply.)
A. setting the FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET to set the mean time to recover
B. setting the RECOVERY_PARALLELISM parameter to twice the number of CPUs
C. using the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST parameter to set the location for flash recovery area
D. using the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST_SIZE parameter to define the disk space limit for the recovery
files created in the flash recovery area. Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 6
Examine the following RMAN command:
RMAN> CONFIGURE ENCRYPTION FOR DATABASE ON; RMAN> BACKUP DATABASE PLUS
ARCHIVELOG;
Which perquisite must be met before accomplishing the backup?

A. Provide a password for the encryption.
B. Set up an Oracle wallet for the encryption.
C. No setup is required as it is a default encryption method.
D. Both Oracle wallet and password must be set up for the encryption.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 7
Examine these Data Pump commands to import objects to non-existent users hr1 and oe1.
S expdp system/manager Schemas =hr,oe directory =EXP_ DIR include = table
$ impdp system/manager Schemas = hr1,oe1 Directory = EXP_DIR Dumpfile = export.dat Remap_schema =hr:hr1,oe :oe1
What would be achieved by running the above commands?
A. expdp will fail because no path has been defined for the dumpfile.
B. expdp will succeed but Impdp will fail because users do not exist.
C. impdp will create two users called hrl and oe1 and import all objects to the new schemas
D. impdp will create two users called hrl and oe1 and import tables owned by hr and oe schemas to hr1 and oe1 schemas, respectively.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
The database is configured in ARCHIEVELOG mode and regular complete database backups are taken. The loss of which two types of files may require a recovery with the RESETLOGS option?
A. Control files
B. Password file
C. Inactive online redo log file
D. Archived log files required to perform recovery
E. Newly created tablespace which is not backed up

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 9
User SCOTT wants to back out the transactions on the REGIONS table in his schema. As a DBA, which commands must you execute to enable SCOTT to flash back the transactions?
A. ALTER DATABASE FLASHBACK ON;
B. GRANT SELECT ANY TRANSACTION TO scott;
C. GRANT EXECUTE ON dbms_flashback TO scott;
D. ALTER DATABASE ADD SUPPLEMENTAL LOG DATA;
E. ALTER TABLESPACE undots1 RETENTION GUARANTEE;
F. ALTER DATABASE ADD SUPPLEMENTAL LOG DATA (PRIMARY KEY) COLUMNS;

Correct Answer: BCDF
QUESTION 10
The DB_BLOCK_CHECKING parameter is set to FULL. What checks occur each time the DBWnprocess(es) writes?
A. The Oracle database will check all data blocks by going through the data on each block, making sure the data is self-consistent.
B. The DBWn and the direct loader will calculate a checksum and store it in the cache header of every data block when writing it to disk.
C. The Oracle database will check data blocks belonging to the SYSTEM tablespace only, by going through the data on each block, making sure the data is self-consistent.
D. The Oracle database will check data blocks belonging to the SYSAUX tablespace only, by going through the data on each block, making sure the data is self-consistent.
E. The Oracle database will check data blocks in the SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces only, by going through the data on each block, making sure the data is self-consistent.

Correct Answer: A