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QUESTION 168
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 68 For the following items, which component of the CiscoWorks product allows a network administrator to define and manage service levels?
A. Service assurance agent (SAA)
B. Service level manager (SLM)
C. Collection Manager (CM)
D. Service level agreement (SLA)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 169
Which codec does Cisco recommend for WAN links?
A. G.711
B. G.723
C. G.728
D. G.729

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 170
NAT-PT is an IPv6-IPv4 translation mechanism. What is NAT-PT?
A. Network address translation?§Cport translation; translates RFC 1918 addresses to public IPv4 addresses
B. Network address translation-protocol translation; translates between IPv4 and IPv6 addresses
C. Next address translation?§Cport translation
D. Network addressable transparent-port translation; translates network addresses to ports

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 171
What Cisco router configuration component does an implementer use to create a floating static route?
A. Primary interface
B. Administrative distance
C. Loopback “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 69
D. Description

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 172
Which Cisco proprietary protocol will be used in LAN switches to control multicast traffic at the data link layer within a LAN switch?
A. MAC filters
B. Cisco Group Management Protocol (CGMP)
C. Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP)
D. IGMP

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 173
A common response to an attack by this device can be either to send an alert or to take corrective action. What is this device?
A. Vulnerability assessment
B. Firewall
C. Intrusion-detection system (IDS)
D. Router

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 174
How many more bits does IPv6 use for addresses than IPv4?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 96
D. 128

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 175
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 70
Which protocol will be used to exchange IP routes between autonomous systems?

A. eBGP
B. IGMP
C. IGRP
D. OSPF

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 176
What does the Cisco security architecture called SAFE stand for?
A. Security Architecture for Enterprise
B. Standard Assessment for Enterprise
C. Security Analysis for Enterprise
D. Standard Architecture for Enterprise

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 177
You are a network technician, can you tell me how many IP addresses are available for hosts in the subnet 198.10.100.64/27?
A. 62
B. 30
C. 126
D. 14
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 178
Which two encryption transforms will be used by both ESP and AH for authentication?
A. HMAC-MD5 or Hash Message Authentication Code-Secure Hash Algorithm-1(HMAC-SHA-1)
B. DES or 3DES
C. DES or Hash Message Authentication Code-Message Digest 5 (HMAC-MD5)
D. 3DES or MD5

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 179
For the following options, which emerging WAN technology uses DSL coding and digital modulation techniques with Ethernet?
A. Cable
B. Wireless
C. SMDS
D. Long-Reach Ethernet (LRE)

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 180
What is SLC?
A. Standard level contracts
B. Standard level configuration
C. Service level contracts
D. Service level configuration

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 181
What does ODR stand for?
A. Open default routing
B. Optical demand routing
C. Open dedicated routing
D. On-demand routing

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 182
Observe the following options, in which section of the network document does Cisco recommend a discussion of performance, scalability, capacity, security, and traffic needs?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 72
A. Design summary
B. Design solution
C. Executive summary
D. Design requirements

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 183
In telephony, the local loop is the physical link or circuit. Where is the local loop located?
A. Between the loopback interfaces of two VoIP routers
B. Between phones and the central office (CO) switch
C. Between two PBXs
D. Between two PSTN switches

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 184
Which advantage is of security systems that are part of the Cisco ecosystem?
A. There is a suite of products to choose from.
B. Various partners as well as supporting products increase the effectiveness of security systems.
C. There are no advantages.
D. The Cisco ecosystem ensure that partners can implement the solution.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 185
What is ASBR short for?
A. Area Border Router
B. Auxiliary System Border Router
C. Area System Border Router
D. Autonomous System Boundary Router

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 186
Area Border Router (ABR) is defined by which protocol?
A. Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP)
B. OSPF
C. On-Demand Routing (ODR)
D. IS-IS

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 187
Which queuing mechanism establishes four interface output queues that will be used for traffic scheduling?
A. Priority queuing (PQ)
B. First-in, first-out (FIFO)
C. Weighted fair queuing (WFQ)
D. Custom queuing (CQ)

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 188
Which option is not valid for using the public Internet as a backup WAN medium?
A. IP Security (IPSec) tunnels
B. Shared PVC
C. IP routing without constraints
D. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) tunnels
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 189
For the following items, which is an SP Edge module in the Enterprise Composite Network model?
A. Core layer
B. Edge distribution
C. Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) service
D. Server farm “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 74
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 190
Which method will be used to secure a network against man-in-the-middle attack?
A. Two-factor authentication
B. Management module
C. Encryption
D. Firewall

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 191
What is important for the top-down design concept?
A. Engagement of the HR representatives during the design process
B. Engagement of the top executives during the design process
C. Engagement of the employees working on the top floors in the building during the design process
D. Engagement of the top executives once the design process is finalized

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 192
Which one of the following QoS mechanisms is recommended for VoIP networks?
A. Low-latency queuing (LLQ)
B. Switched-based queuing
C. Fast queuing
D. Custom queuing

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 193
In which layer of the OSI model does Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) operate ? “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 75
A. Network
B. Application
C. Transport
D. Session

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 194
Developing a network design according to layers such as core and distribution is an example of which type of design methodology?
A. Flat design
B. Top-down
C. Hierarchical structured design
D. PDIOO

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 195
Which parameters does the computation of the EIGRP composite metric use by default?
A. Bandwidth and reliability
B. Bandwidth and load
C. Bandwidth and maximum transmission unit (MTU)
D. Bandwidth and delay

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 196
Which statement is true about WANs?
A. Switches or concentrators often relay information through the WAN.
B. WANs typically encompass broad geographic areas.
C. In general, WAN technologies function at the middle three layers of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model.
D. Users of WANs do not typically own all transmission facilities.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 197
Which item is not a true disadvantage of the full-mesh topology?
A. Central hub router represents a single point of failure in the network.
B. High level of complexity to implement.
C. Large number of packet replications required.
D. High costs due to number of virtual circuits.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 198
Which IPv4 field are the precedence bits located in?
A. IP destination address
B. Type-of-service field
C. IP options field
D. IP protocol field

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 199
Which hierarchical layer has functions such as High availability, port security, and rate limiting?
A. Core
B. Access
C. Network
D. Distribution
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 200
With which of the following capabilities does RIPv2 improve RIPv1?
A. Multicast updates, authentication, variable-length subnet mask (VLSM)
B. Authentication, VLSM, hop count “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 77
C. Multicast updates, authentication, hop count
D. Multicast updates, hop count
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 201
Which is the maximum segment distance for Fast Ethernet over unshielded twisted-pair (UTP)?
A. 285 feet
B. 100 feet
C. 500 feet
D. 100 meters

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 202
Which term accurately describes a specific measure of delay often used to describe voice and video networks?
A. Jitter
B. Flux
C. Latency
D. Reliability

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 203

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QUESTION 101
Which two of these represent a best practice implementation of a Split MAC LWAPP deployment in a Cisco Unified Wireless Network? (Choose two.)
A. Each wireless client authentication type maps to a unique SSID which in turn maps to a unique VLAN.
B. 802.1Q trunking extends from the wired infrastructure to the access point for translation into SSID(s).
C. 802.1Q trunking extends from the wired infrastructure to a wireless LAN controller for translation into SSID(s).
D. Each wireless client authentication type maps to a shared SSID which in turn maps to a common shared VLAN.
E. Each wireless client authentication type maps to a unique SSID which in turn maps to a common shared VLAN.
F. 802.1Q trunking extends from the wired infrastructure to a wireless LAN controller. Then the 802.1Q packet is encapsulated in LWAPP and sent to the access point for transmission over the SSID(s).

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 102
Which two statements best describe intradomain route summarization? (Choose two.)
A. EIGRP and OSPF must be manually configured to summarize at non-classful boundaries.
B. EIGRP and OSPF automatically summarize at classful network boundaries.
C. OSPF and RIP automatically summarize at classful network boundaries.
D. EIGRP and RIP automatically summarize at classful network boundaries.
E. EIGRP and OSPF automatically summarize at non-classful boundaries.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 103
Which two VoIP characteristics are affected most by codec choice? (Choose two.)
A. voice quality
B. voice packet header size
C. bandwidth required for voice calls
D. silent packet handling

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 104
A network design document is being prepared for a customer. Which three network design elements must be included? (Choose three.)
A. proof of concept
B. data sources
C. design details
D. organizational policies
E. implementation plan

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 105
Which of these accurately describes dial backup routing?
A. it always uses distance vector routing protocols
B. once the backup link is activated it will remain active even after the primary link is restored “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 44
C. it always uses permanent static routes
D. it is supplied by the service provider as a secondary PVC at no additional charge
E. the router intiates the dial backup link when a failure is detected on the primary link

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 106
Which statement correctly describes queuing in environments supporting teleworkers?
A. Queuing occurs on the outbound interface.
B. Hardware queues are configured for appropriate PQ, CQ, or WFQ.
C. Priority queuing guarantees some level of service to all traffic.
D. WFQ is the Cisco IOS default on all WAN links regardless of speed.
E. CQ is for time-sensitive protocols.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 107
Which two techniques can reduce voice packet transfer delay across a link of less than 512 kbps? (Choose two.)
A. deploy LFI
B. increase link bandwidth
C. extend the trust boundary
D. deploy software compression
E. increase queue depth
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 108
DRAG DROP
Drop
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 45 A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 109
Your company uses OSPF for internal routing. The company will be connected to VendorA via a single dedicated link and to VendorB via redundant dedicated links. Both vendors also use OSPF for internal routing. Which of the following deployments describes the best intra-domain routing practice in this situation?
A. Redistribute the routes on each link between your company and the vendors to a shared EIGRP routing protocol.
B. Use IBGP to reach VendorA and EBGP to reach VendorB.
C. Use static routes to reach VendorA and EBGP to reach VendorB.
D. Use static routes to reach both VendorA and VendorB.
E. Connect your company to both VendorA and VendorB using existing OSPF.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 110
Which statement can a network designer use to describe route summarization to an IT manager?
A. It is the grouping of ISP network addresses to minimize the number of routes to the Internet.
B. It is the grouping of multiple discontiguous subnets to increase routing performance.
C. It is the grouping of multiple contiguous networks and advertising as one large network.
D. It is the grouping of multiple contiguous subnets into one Class A, B, or C IP address to minimize routing table size.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 111
Refer to the exhibit. All primary links are T1s. The customer wants to have a backup to each remote office
from the Headquarters office.
Which two types of backup links would be viable solutions? (Choose two.)
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 47
A. dial backup routing
B. shadow SVC
C. permanent secondary WAN link
D. VPDN

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 112
A Cisco SONA architecture layer is described as follows:
The layer’s IT resources are interconnected across a converged network foundation. The layer’s IT resources include servers, storage, and clients. The layer represents how resources exist across the network. The customer objective for the layer is to have anywhere/anytime connectivity.
Which Cisco SONA architecture layer is being described?
A. Application
B. Integrated Transport
C. Physical
D. Networked Infrastructure
E. Interactive Services

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 113
Which information should a network summary report identify?
A. actions needed to support the existing network
B. customer requirements
C. new network features
D. customer requirement modifications
E. actions needed to support existing network features
F. infrastructure shortcomings

Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 114
Given a VoIP network with these attributes:
Codec: G.711 WAN bandwidth: 768Kbps Packet Header: 6 bytes Payload: 160 bytes CRTP: No
How many calls can be made?
A. 7 calls
B. 13 calls
C. 8 calls
D. 9 calls
E. 11 calls

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 115
What are three valid methods of gathering information about an existing data network? (Choose three.)
A. Use organizational input.
B. Analyze the user-mapping of a running application.
C. Perform a traffic analysis.
D. Perform a packet-level audit to verify carrier service guarantees. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 49
E. Use reports that analyze the metrics of the customer’s existing network.
F. Perform a network audit to gather more detail about the network.

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 116
Which two of these are required for wireless client mobility deployment when using a Cisco Unified Wireless Network? (Choose two.)
A. matching RF power
B. matching security
C. assigned master controller
D. matching mobility group name
E. matching RF channel
F. matching RF group name
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 117
In the Cisco branch office design, what categorizes an office as large?
A. between 50 and 100 users and a single-tier design
B. between 100 and 200 users and a three-tier design
C. between 50 and 100 users and a three-tier design
D. over 200 users and a two-tier design
E. between 100 and 200 users and a two-tier design

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 118
A company is designing a worldwide IPv6 network with duplicated file servers at multiple locations. Each file server contains identical reference information. Which IPv6 address type would be used to allow each end station to send a request to the nearest file server using the same destination address, regardless of the location of that end station?
A. broadcast
B. multicast
C. anycast “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 50
D. unicast

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 119
When designing using the Cisco Enterprise Architecture, in which Enterprise Campus layer do the Enterprise Edge and Enterprise WAN modules establish their connection?
A. Building Access
B. Building Distribution
C. Campus Core
D. Enterprise Branch
E. Enterprise Data Center

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 120
Which three of these describe the best practice for Cisco wireless outdoor Mesh network deployment? (Choose three.)
A. mesh hop counts of 4 or fewer
B. RAP implemented with 20 or fewer MAP nodes
C. client access via 802.11a and backhaul with 802.11b/g
D. client access via 802.11b/g and backhaul with 802.11a
E. mesh hop counts of 8 to 4
F. RAP implemented with 20 to 32 MAP nodes
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 121
The Cisco Data Center Network Architecture comprises which two Cisco SONA layers? (Choose two.)
A. Collaboration Applications
B. WAN/Internet
C. Interactive Services
D. Network Infrastructure
E. Business Applications “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 51

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 122
Which two of these are scalability benefits of designing a network that utilizes VPNs? (Choose two.)
A. reduces dial infrastructure expenditures
B. reduces the number of physical connections
C. allows networks to be set up and restructured quickly
D. simplifies the underlying structure of a customer WAN
E. extends the network to remote users

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 123
You are designing a small branch office that requires these attributes:
support for 60 users the growth capacity to add another 15 users soon redundant access higher bandwidth between the Layer 2 switch and routing to the WAN
Which branch office topology or technology must be used?
A. EtherChannel
B. loop-free
C. three-tier
D. two-tier
E. integrated routing and switching

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 124
Western Associated News Agency recently acquired a large news organization with several sites, which will allow it to expand to worldwide markets. The new acquisition includes these connectivity technologies:
Frame Relay
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 52 ATM SONET cable DSL wireless
From a Layer 1 viewpoint, which Enterprise Edge module will be most affected?
A. Internet Connectivity
B. E-Commerce
C. PSTN
D. Edge Distribution
E. ISP
F. WAN/MAN

Correct Answer: F QUESTION 125
DRAG DROP Drop

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 126
Which two implementation plan principles best describe how to deal with potential failures? (Choose two.)
A. A table of failure points, rollback steps, and estimated rollback times.
B. A good implementation plan.
C. A test should be included at every step.
D. A detailed rollback procedure for each implementation step.
E. A successful test network test.

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 127
Refer to the exhibit. You are documenting the existing network of a customer with a large installed Cisco network. The routers listed are in use on the network.
Which two additional pieces of information would be the most valuable in completing your documentation of these routers? (Choose two.)
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 54 A. software revisions

B. interface options
C. power requirements
D. error statistics
E. management protocols

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 128
Which of these is the next step after the design phase in the PPDIOO process?
A. Develop a high-level migration plan.
B. Develop the implementation plan in as much detail as possible.
C. Create a pilot or a prototype network.
D. Identify which network management protocol will be used for which function.
E. Order the equipment.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 129
You are designing IPv6 into an existing IPv4 network. Which strategy can you use to allow both address schemes to coexist, thus facilitating migration?
A. redistribute between IPv6-capable and non-IPv6-capable routing protocols
B. enable anycast capability in the routing protocol
C. bridge between the two networks
D. run both the IPv6 and IPv4 stacks on devices
E. deploy stateful address assignments
Correct Answer: D

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