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QUESTION 1
The FireAMP Mobile endpoint connector currently supports which mobile OS device?
A. Firefox
B. HTML5
C. Android
D. iPhone

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2
Which statement describes an advantage of the FireAMP product?
A. Signatures are pushed to endpoints more quickly than other antivirus products.
B. Superior detection algorithms on the endpoint limit the amount of work the cloud must perform.
C. It provides enterprise visibility.
D. It relies on sandboxing.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
Which feature allows retrospective detection?
A. Total Recall
B. Cloud Recall
C. Recall Alert
D. Recall Analysis

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
Which statement describes an advantage of cloud-based detection?
A. Limited customization allows for faster detection.
B. Fewer resources are required on the endpoint.
C. Sandboxing reduces the overall management overhead of the system.
D. High-speed analytical engines on the endpoint limit the amount of work the cloud must perform.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
The FireAMP connector monitors the system for which type of activity?
A. Vulnerabilities
B. Enforcement of usage policies
C. File operations
D. Authentication activity

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
Which disposition can be returned in response to a malware cloud lookup?
A. Dirty
B. Virus
C. Malware
D. Infected

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 7
Which option is a detection technology that is used by FireAMP?
A. fuzzy matching
B. Norton AntiVirus
C. network scans
D. Exterminator

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 8
If a file’s SHA-256 hash is sent to the cloud, but the cloud has never seen the hash before, which disposition is returned?
A. Clean
B. Neutral
C. Malware
D. Unavailable

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 9
File information is sent to the Sourcefire Collective Security Intelligence Cloud using which format?
A. MD5
B. SHA-1
C. filenames

D. SHA-256 Correct Answer: D
Question Set 1 QUESTION 1
How does application blocking enhance security?
A. It identifies and logs usage.
B. It tracks application abuse.
C. It deletes identified applications.
D. It blocks vulnerable applications from running, until they are patched.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
Which set of actions would you take to create a simple custom detection?
A. Add a SHA-256 value; upload a file to calculate a SHA-256 value; upload a text file that contains SHA-256 values.
B. Upload a packet capture; use a Snort rule; use a ClamAV rule.
C. Manually input the PE header data, the MD-5 hash, and a list of MD-5 hashes.
D. Input the file and file name.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
Advanced custom signatures are written using which type of syntax?
A. Snort signatures
B. Firewall signatures
C. ClamAV signatures
D. bash shell

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
When discussing the FireAMP product, which term does the acronym DFC represent?
A. It means Detected Forensic Cause.
B. It means Duplicate File Contents.
C. It means Device Flow Correlation.
D. It is not an acronym that is associated with the FireAMP product.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 5
Custom whitelists are used for which purpose?
A. to specify which files to alert on
B. to specify which files to delete
C. to specify which files to ignore
D. to specify which files to sandbox Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which two business use trends have surfaced in the last five years and require nontraditional security? (Choose two.)
A. BYOD
B. Wi-Fi connections
C. partial URL and application blocking
D. third-party applications
E. web and email attacks
F. a large number of remote employees

Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 2
Which three options describe the main problems with traditional security solutions? (Choose three.)
A. fragmented solutions
B. the lack of management solutions
C. missing components
D. solutions being pieced together
E. the lack of a cloud solution
F. the lack of a firewall
G. security gaps

Correct Answer: ADG
QUESTION 3
The current Cisco comprehensive framework solutions are divided into which three categories? (Choose three.)
A. Content Security
B. Cloud Security
C. Network Security
D. Access Security
E. Data Center Security
F. Internet Security
G. Advanced Malware Protection

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 4
In the Cisco future solutions architecture framework, the security solutions are directly built upon which component?
A. management and intelligence capabilities
B. Cisco security platforms
C. third-party applications
D. security intelligence operations
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which three values should you use to position Cisco security solutions? (Choose three.)
A. time-to-value
B. protection
C. control
D. integration
E. flexibility
F. agility
G. scalability
Correct Answer: BCE
Cisco Architecture Solutions
QUESTION 1
Which Cisco security technology delivers the best real-time threat intelligence?
A. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall
B. Cisco Identity Services Engine
C. Cisco Security Manager
D. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
E. Cisco TrustSec

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Which two solutions are main components of Cisco Content Security? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall
B. Cisco Web Security
C. Cisco Remote-Access VPN
D. Sourcefire Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
E. Cisco Email Security
F. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 3
Cisco Content Security integrates seamlessly with existing security and network infrastructures. This statement describes which Cisco value?
A. time-to-value
B. protection
C. control
D. scalability
E. flexibility
F. agility
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
Which two features are components of the Cisco Web Security Appliance? (Choose two.)
A. encryption
B. URL filtering
C. user identity tracking
D. antispam defense
E. impact assessment
F. Cisco Application Visibility and Control
G. context awareness
H. device profiling and onboarding

Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 5
Cisco network security offers unmatched visibility and control of network and application traffic. This statement describes which Cisco value?
A. time-to-value
B. protection
C. control
D. scalability
E. flexibility
F. agility

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which four solutions are Cisco network security solutions? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco site-to-site VPN technologies
B. Cisco Identity and Access Control
C. Cisco Email Security
D. Cisco Web Security Appliance
E. Sourcefire Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
F. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall
G. Cisco security appliance
H. Cisco Remote-Access VPN

Correct Answer: AEFG
QUESTION 7
Which two features are part of site-to-site VPN? (Choose two.)
A. web email controls
B. user identity traction
C. SSL decryption
D. Snort technology
E. remote access
F. seamless connection with Cisco ASA

Correct Answer: EF
QUESTION 8
Cisco Secure Access Solutions delivers a secure connection to a continually growing number of endpoints. This statement is an example of which Cisco value?
A. time-to-value
B. protection
C. control
D. scalability
E. flexibility
F. agility
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 9
Which feature is a primary feature of Cisco AnyConnect?
A. role-based policy management
B. context-aware access
C. secure and flexible remote access
D. SSL decryption

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QUESTION 29
Which option is an example of a distance vector routing protocol?
A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. ARP

D. IS-IS
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
Which option is an example of an advanced distance vector routing protocol?
A. EIGRP
B. RIP
C. OSPF
D. ARP
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
Which option is an example of a link-state routing protocol?
A. EIGRP
B. RIP
C. OSPF
D. ARP
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
What is the maximum allowable hop count for RIPv1?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 15
E. 16
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
What is the default periodic interval at which RIPv1 sends routing updates?
A. 15 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 45 seconds
D. 60 seconds
E. 90 seconds
F. RIPv1 only sends routing updates when the topology changes.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
What does RIPv1 send to its neighbors?
A. Information about changed routes
B. Information about new routes
C. The entire routing table
D. Information about deleted routes
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 35
What are two advantages of employing an external router for inter-VLAN routing over an IEEE 802.1Q trunk link? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 3 functionality is not required on the switch.
B. The router facilitates communication between VLANs.
C. The single traffic path is optimized.
D. Latency is reduced as packets leave the switch.
E. Equal-Cost Multipath is supported.

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 36
Which statement correctly describes an SVI?
A. An SVI is a Layer 2 interface and uses a dynamic MAC address.
B. An SVI cannot have an IP address assigned to it.
C. An SVI provides Layer 3 routing between VLANs.
D. Each switch port requires an SVI assignment.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37
What is the Cisco Nexus Operating System command to define a port as a Layer 3 port?
A. Port routed
B. No switchport
C. l3 switchport
D. Port switching off

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 38
Which statement is correct regarding a routed port on a multilayer switch?
A. A routed port requires an SVI definition.
B. Routed ports cannot be configured on a multilayer switch that uses SVIs.
C. A maximum of 32 routed ports can be provisioned on a given multilayer switch.
D. A routed port is a physical port that supports Layer 3 routing.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 39
On a new Cisco Nexus switch, you receive an error message when you attempt to create an SVI. What is the first command you must use to create the SVI?
A. Interface vlan (vlan_id)
B. Vlan (vlan_id)
C. Feature svi
D. Interface routed

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 40
Which command should you use to configure a Cisco Nexus switch port for Layer 2 operation?
A. nexus(config-if)#switchport
B. nexus(config-if)#layer-2
C. nexus(config-if)#routed
D. nexus(config)#interface vlan 10 nexus(config-if)#switchport

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
Which version of Cisco Nexus Operating System became a common operating system for Cisco Nexus switches and Cisco MDS storage switches?
A. 2.7
B. 3.3
C. 3.9
D. 4.1
E. 5.01GD
F. 6.2
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
What are two core features of Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose two.)
A. SNMPv3
B. RMON
C. System Manager

D. PSS
E. VRF
F. TRILL
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 43
What is the acronym expansion of the UDLD feature of Cisco Nexus Operating System?
A. UniDirectional Link Detection
B. Unified Data Link Distribution
C. Unified Data Loss Detection
D. Unified Directional Link Distribution
E. Unidirectional Data Loss Detection
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
What are four security features that are included in Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco TrustSec
B. IEEE 802.1Qau
C. CoPP
D. port security
E. PIM
F. SSL VPN
G. IPsec VPN
H. ACLs
Correct Answer: ACDH QUESTION 45
What are three modular Layer 2 processes in Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose three.)
A. UDLD
B. PIM
C. HSRP
D. STP
E. Cisco Discovery Protocol

F. OSPF
Correct Answer: ADE

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QUESTION 21
What is a cause for unicast flooding?
A. Unicast flooding occurs when multicast traffic arrives on a Layer 2 switch that has directly connected multicast receivers.
B. When PIM snooping is not enabled, unicast flooding occurs on the switch that interconnects the PIM-enabled routers.
C. A man-in-the-middle attack can cause the ARP cache of an end host to have the wrong MAC address. Instead of having the MAC address of the default gateway, it has a MAC address of the man-in-the-middle. This causes all traffic to be unicast flooded through the man-in-the-middle, which can then sniff all packets.
D. Forwarding table overflow prevents new MAC addresses from being learned, and packets destined to those MAC addresses are flooded until space becomes available in the forwarding table.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Causes of Flooding The very cause of flooding is that destination MAC address of the packet is not in the L2 forwarding table of the switch. In this case the packet will be flooded out of all forwarding ports in its VLAN (except the port it was received on). Below case studies display most common reasons for destination MAC address not being known to the switch. Cause 1: Asymmetric Routing Large amounts of flooded traffic might saturate low-bandwidth links causing network performance issues or complete connectivity outage to devices connected across such low-bandwidth links Cause 2: Spanning-Tree Protocol Topology Changes Another common issue caused by flooding is Spanning-Tree Protocol (STP) Topology Change Notification (TCN). TCN is designed to correct forwarding tables after the forwarding topology has changed. This is necessary to avoid a connectivity outage, as after a topology change some destinations previously accessible via particular ports might become accessible via different ports. TCN operates by shortening the forwarding table aging time, such that if the address is not relearned, it will age out and flooding will occur Cause 3: Forwarding Table Overflow Another possible cause of flooding can be overflow of the switch forwarding table. In this case, new addresses cannot be learned and packets destined to such addresses are flooded until some space becomes available in the forwarding table. New addresses will then be learned. This is possible but rare, since most modern switches have large enough forwarding tables to accommodate MAC addresses for most designs.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/catalyst-6000-series-switches/23563-143.html
QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.

Video Source S is sending interactive video traffic to Video Receiver R. Router R1 has multiple routing table entries for destination R. Which load-balancing mechanism on R1 can cause out-of-order video traffic to be received by destination R?
A. per-flow load balancing on R1 for destination R
B. per-source-destination pair load balancing on R1 for destination R
C. CEF load balancing on R1 for destination R
D. per-packet load balancing on R1 for destination R

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Per-packet load balancing guarantees equal load across all links, however potentially the packets may arrive out-of-order at the destination as differential delay may exist within the network.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/modules/ps2033/prod_technical_reference09186a00800afeb7.html
QUESTION 23
What is Nagle’s algorithm used for?
A. To increase the latency
B. To calculate the best path in distance vector routing protocols
C. To calculate the best path in link state routing protocols
D. To resolve issues caused by poorly implemented TCP flow control.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Silly window syndrome is a problem in computer networking caused by poorly implemented TCP flow control. A serious problem can arise in the sliding window operation when the sending application program creates data slowly, the receiving application program consumes data slowly, or both. If a server with this problem is unable to process all incoming data, it requests that its clients reduce the amount of data they send at a time (the window setting on a TCP packet). If the server continues to be unable to process all incoming data, the window becomes smaller and smaller, sometimes to the point that the data transmitted is smaller than the packet header, making data transmission extremely inefficient. The name of this problem is due to the window size shrinking to a “silly” value. When there is no synchronization between the sender and receiver regarding capacity of the flow of data or the size of the packet, the window syndrome problem is created. When the silly window syndrome is created by the sender, Nagle’s algorithm is used. Nagle’s solution requires that the sender sends the first segment even if it is a small one, then that it waits until an ACK is received or a maximum sized segment (MSS) is accumulated.
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Silly_window_syndrome
QUESTION 24
Which statement is true regarding the UDP checksum?
A. It is used for congestion control.
B. It cannot be all zeros.
C. It is used by some Internet worms to hide their propagation.
D. It is computed based on the IP pseudo-header.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The method used to compute the checksum is defined in RFC 768:
“Checksum is the 16-bit one’s complement of the one’s complement sum of a pseudo header of information from the IP header, the UDP header, and the data,
padded with zero octets at the end (if necessary) to make a multiple of two octets.”
In other words, all 16-bit words are summed using one’s complement arithmetic. Add the 16-bit values up. Each time a carry-out (17th bit) is produced, swing that
bit around and add it back into the least significant bit. The sum is then one’s complemented to yield the value of the UDP checksum field. If the checksum
calculation results in the value zero (all 16 bits 0) it should be sent as the one’s complement (all 1s).

Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/User_Datagram_Protocol

QUESTION 25
Which statement describes the purpose of the Payload Type field in the RTP header?
A. It identifies the signaling protocol.
B. It identifies the codec.
C. It identifies the port numbers for RTP.
D. It identifies the port numbers for RTCP.

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
PT, Payload Type. 7 bits: Identifies the format of the RTP payload and determines its interpretation by the application. A profile specifies a default static mapping of payload type codes to payload formats. Additional payload type codes may be defined dynamically through non-RTP means. An RTP sender emits a single RTP payload type at any given time; this field is not intended for multiplexing separate media streams. A full list of codecs and their payload type values can be found at the link below:
Reference: http://www.networksorcery.com/enp/protocol/rtp.htm
QUESTION 26
Which Cisco IOS XE process administers routing and forwarding?
A. Forwarding manager
B. Interface manager
C. Cisco IOS
D. Host manager

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Some of the processes are listed in the table below:

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/asr1000/configuration/guide/chassis/asrswcfg/Software_Packaging_Architecture.html
QUESTION 27
Which circumstance can cause packet loss due to a microburst?
A. slow convergence
B. a blocked spanning-tree port
C. process switching
D. insufficient buffers

Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Micro-bursting is a phenomenon where rapid bursts of data packets are sent in quick succession, leading to periods of full line-rate transmission that can overflow packet buffers of the network stack, both in network endpoints and routers and switches inside the network. Symptoms of micro bursts will manifest in the form of ignores and/ or overruns (also shown as accumulated in “input error” counter within show interface output). This is indicative of receive ring and corresponding packet buffer being overwhelmed due to data bursts coming in over extremely short period of time (microseconds).
Reference: http://ccieordie.com/?tag=micro-burst
QUESTION 28
Which two statements about proxy ARP are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is supported on networks without ARP.
B. It allows machines to spoof packets.
C. It must be used on a network with the host on a different subnet.
D. It requires larger ARP tables.
E. It reduces the amount of ARP traffic.

Correct Answer: BD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Disadvantages of Proxy ARP
Hosts have no idea of the physical details of their network and assume it to be a flat network in which they can reach any destination simply by sending an ARP
request. But using ARP for everything has disadvantages. These are some of the disadvantages:
It increases the amount of ARP traffic on your segment.
Hosts need larger ARP tables in order to handle IP-to-MAC address mappings.

Security can be undermined. A machine can claim to be another in order to intercept packets, an act called “spoofing.”

It does not work for networks that do not use ARP for address resolution.

It does not generalize to all network topologies. For example, more than one router that connects two physical networks.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/dynamic-address-allocation-resolution/13718-5.html
QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit.

Routers R1 and R2 are configured as shown, and traffic from R1 fails to reach host 209.165.201.254. Which action can you take to correct the problem?
A. Ensure that R2 has a default route in its routing table.
B. Change the OSPF area type on R1 and R2.
C. Edit the router configurations so that address 209.165.201.254 is a routable address.
D. Remove the default-information originate command from the OSPF configuration of R2. Correct Answer: A

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Not sure that any of these answers are correct, it appears that this configuration is valid for reaching that one specific host IP. Answer A does have a route to that host so it would not need a default route to get to it. Choice B is incorrect as the area types have nothing to do with this. C is incorrect as that IP address is routable, and D is needed so that R1 will have a default route advertised to it from R2 so that it can reach this destination.
QUESTION 30
Which service is disabled by the no service tcp-small-servers command?
A. the finger service
B. the Telnet service
C. the Maintenance Operation Protocol service
D. the chargen service

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The TCP small servers are:
Echo: Echoes back whatever you type through the telnet x.x.x.x echo command.
Chargen: Generates a stream of ASCII data. Use the telnet x.x.x.x chargen command.

DiscarD. Throws away whatever you type. Use the telnet x.x.x.x discard command.

DaytimE. Returns system date and time, if it is correct. It is correct if you run Network Time Protocol (NTP), or have set the date and time manually from the

exec level. Use the telnet x.x.x.x daytime command.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ios-nx-os-software/ios-software-releases-110/12815-23.html
QUESTION 31
Which two Cisco Express Forwarding tables are located in the data plane? (Choose two.)
A. the forwarding information base
B. the label forwarding information base
C. the IP routing table
D. the label information table
E. the adjacency table

Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The control plane runs protocols such as OSPF, BGP, STP, LDP. These protocols are needed so that routers and switches know how to forward packets and
frames.
The data plane is where the actual forwarding takes place. The data plane is populated based on the protocols running in the control plane. The Forwarding
Information Base (FIB) is used for IP traffic and the Label FIB is used for MPLS.

QUESTION 32
Which option is the most effective action to avoid packet loss due to microbursts?
A. Implement larger buffers.
B. Install a faster CPU.
C. Install a faster network interface.
D. Configure a larger tx-ring size.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You can’t avoid or prevent them as such without modifying the sending host’s application/network stack so it smoothes out the bursts. However, you can manage microbursts by tuning the size of receive buffers / rings to absorb occasional microbursts.
QUESTION 33
Which two statements about packet fragmentation on an IPv6 network are true? (Choose two.)
A. The fragment header is 64 bits long.
B. The identification field is 32 bits long.
C. The fragment header is 32 bits long.
D. The identification field is 64 bits long.
E. The MTU must be a minimum of 1280 bytes.
F. The fragment header is 48 bits long.
Correct Answer: AB Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
The fragment header is shown below, being 64 bits total with a 32 bit identification field: Reference: http://www.openwall.com/presentations/IPv6/img24.html

QUESTION 34
You are backing up a server with a 1 Gbps link and a latency of 2 ms. Which two statements about the backup are true? (Choose two.)
A. The bandwidth delay product is 2 Mb.
B. The default TCP send window size is the limiting factor.
C. The default TCP receive window size is the limiting factor.
D. The bandwidth delay product is 500 Mb.
E. The bandwidth delay product is 50 Mb.

Correct Answer: AC Explanation Explanation/Reference:
1 Gbps is the same as 1000 Mbps, and 1000Mb x .0002 = 2 Mbps. With TCP based data transfers, the receive window is always the limiting factor, as the sender is generally able to send traffic at line rate, but then must wait for the acknowledgements to send more data.
QUESTION 35
Which two pieces of information does RTCP use to inform endpoint devices about the RTP flow? (Choose two.)
A. the transmitted octet
B. the lost packet count
C. session control function provisioning information
D. the CNAME for session participants
E. the authentication method
F. MTU size changes in the path of the flow Correct Answer: AB

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
RTCP transports statistics for a media connection and information such as transmitted octet and packet counts, packet loss, packet delay variation, and round-trip delay time. An application may use this information to control quality of service parameters, perhaps by limiting flow, or using a different codec.
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/RTP_Control_Protocol
QUESTION 36
How many hash buckets does Cisco Express Forwarding use for load balancing?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32

Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference:
In order to understand how the load balance takes place, you must first see how the tables relate. The Cisco Express Forwarding table points to 16 hash buckets (load share table), which point to the adjacency table for parallel paths. Each packet to be switched is broken up into the source and destination address pair and checked against the loadshare table.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/express-forwarding-cef/18285-loadbal-cef.html
QUESTION 37
Which three features require Cisco Express Forwarding? (Choose three.)
A. NBAR
B. AutoQoS
C. fragmentation
D. MPLS
E. UplinkFast
F. BackboneFast

Correct Answer: ABD Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QoS Features That Require CEF These class-based QoS features are supported only on routers that run CEF. Network Based Application Recognition (NBAR) provides intelligent network classification. For more information, refer to Network Based Application

Recognition.
The AutoQoS -VoIP feature simplifies and speeds up the implementation and provisioning of QoS for VoIP traffic. This feature is enabled with the help of the
auto qos voip command. CEF must be enabled at the interface or ATM PVC before the auto qos command can be used. For more information about this feature and its prerequisites, refer to AutoQoS – VoIP.
From MPLS Fundamentals – Luc De Ghein Why Is CEF Needed in MPLS Networks? Concerning MPLS, CEF is special for a certain reason; otherwise, this book would not explicitly cover it. Labeled packets that enter the router are switched according to the label forwarding information base (LFIB) on the router. IP packets that enter the router are switched according to the CEF table on the router. Regardless of whether the packet is switched according to the LFIB or the CEF table, the outgoing packet can be a labeled packet or an IP packet
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/asynchronous-transfer-mode-atm/ip-to-atm-class-of-service/4800-cefreq.html
QUESTION 38
Which two options are interface requirements for turbo flooding? (Choose two.)
A. The interface is Ethernet.
B. The interface is configured for ARPA encapsulation.
C. The interface is PPP.
D. The interface is configured for GRE encapsulation.
E. The interface is configured for 802.1Q encapsulation.

Correct Answer: AB Explanation Explanation/Reference:
In the switch, the majority of packets are forwarded in hardware; most packets do not go through the switch CPU. For those packets that do go to the CPU, you can speed up spanning tree-based UDP flooding by a factor of about four to five times by using turbo-flooding. This feature is supported over Ethernet interfaces configured for ARPA encapsulation.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/metro/me3400/software/release/12-2_50_se/configuration/guide/scg/swiprout.html
QUESTION 39
Which three options are sub-subfields of the IPv4 Option Type subfield? (Choose three.)
A. Option Class
B. GET
C. Copied
D. PUSH
E. Option Number
F. TTL

Correct Answer: ACE Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Each IP option has its own subfield format, generally structured as shown below. For most options, all three subfields are used. Option Type, Option Length and Option Data.

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QUESTION 21
The vPC peer-gateway capability allows a vPC switch to act as the active gateway for packets that are addressed to the router MAC address of the vPC peer. This feature enables local forwarding of such packets without the need to cross the vPC peer link. Which statements are true about the vPC peer-gateway? (Choose two.)
A. The vPC peer-gateway feature is enabled by default.
B. The vPC peer-gateway feature can be configured globally under the vPC domain submode.
C. Enabling the peer-gateway feature automatically disables IP redirects on all interface VLANs mapped over a vPC VLAN to avoid generation of IP redirect messages for packets switched through the peer gateway router.
D. The vPC peer-gateway feature only works with HSRP protocol.

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 22
Cisco UCS provides integration interfaces and protocols to support heterogeneous data center environments and supports standard monitoring and event notification systems, providing data to standard enterprise-management tools.
Which two of these list the primary Cisco UCS interfaces and industry standard-based read-only interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. UCS Manager XML API and UCS CLI
B. SNMP, SMASH CLP, and CIM-XML
C. UCS Manager, DCOS, and Local-mgmt
D. SoL and NX-OS
E. debug-plugin and UCS Manager GUI
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 23
A virtual port channel (vPC) allows links that are physically connected to two different Cisco Nexus devices to appear as a single port channel to a third device.
Which are the mandatory steps for configuring vPC? (Choose six.)
A. Enable feature vPC
B. Define domains
C. Establish peer keepalive connectivity
D. Create a peer link
E. Configure the peer link as a trunk port
F. Create port channels and vPCs
G. Define port channel load-balancing method
H. Make sure configurations are consistent

Correct Answer: ABCDFH QUESTION 24
When creating a role in a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, rules are used to define the type of operations that a role will allow the user to perform. Which two of these parameters cannot be applied as a rule? (Choose two.)
A. port-profile
B. command
C. access-list
D. feature-group
E. OID

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 25
Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) overlay interface is a logical multiaccess and multicast- capable interface that must be explicitly defined by the user and where the entire OTV configuration is applied.
Which statements are true about OTV overlay interface? (Choose two.)
A. When an OTV edge device receives a Layer 2 frame destined for a remote data center site, the frame is logically forwarded to the overlay interface.
B. The OTV edge device performs the dynamic OTV encapsulation on the Layer 2 packet and sends it to the join interface toward the routed domain.
C. When the OTV edge device receives a Layer 2 frame destined for a remote data center site, the frame is logically forwarded to the join interface.
D. The OTV edge device performs the dynamic OTV encapsulation on the Layer 2 packet and sends it to the overlay interface toward the routed domain.

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator is seeing N7K-1 having issues with VLAN 11, and interface VLAN 11 is resetting, causing frequent HSRP state changes. Which two actions would reduce HSRP state changes? (Choose two.)
A. On N7K-1, configure the HSRP extended hold timer to 180, extending the HSRP hello message hold time.
B. On N7K-2, configure the HSRP extended hold timer to 180, extending the HSRP hello message hold time.
C. On N7K-1, configure the pre-empt delay minimum to 180 in order to delay N7K-1 from taking over as the HSRP active router.
D. On N7K-2, configure the pre-empt delay minimum to 180 in order to delay N7K-2 from taking over as the HSRP active router.
E. On N7K-2, increase the HSRP priority to 150.
F. On N7K-2, decrease the HSRP priority to 50.

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 27
Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) join interface is used to source the OTV encapsulated traffic and send it to the Layer 3 domain of the data center network. Which statements are true about OTV join interface? (Choose three.)
A. Join interface is a Layer 3 entity, and with the Cisco NX-OS release 6.0, it can only be defined as a physical interface, physical subinterface, Layer 3 port channel, or Layer 3 port channel subinterface.
B. A single join interface can be defined and associated with a given OTV overlay.
C. Multiple overlays can also share the same join interface.
D. Join interface can be a loopback interface.
E. The join interface is a Layer 3 entity that can be defined as a physical interface but not as a logical one.

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 28
Cisco NX-OS Software supports SNMPv1, SNMPv2c, and SNMPv3. Both SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c use a community-based form of security. SNMPv3 provides secure access to devices by a combination of authenticating and encrypting frames over the network. Which security features are provided in Cisco NX-OS SNMPv3? (Choose three.)
A. encryption–scrambles the packet contents to prevent them from being seen by unauthorized sources
B. password–a password (community string) sent in clear text between a manager and agent for added protection
C. authentication–determines that the message is from a valid source
D. message integrity–ensures that a packet has not been tampered with while it was in transit
E. user–to determine if user authentication is used instead of community strings

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 29
The hardware and software configurations for vPC+ are similar to that of traditional vPC. What are the differences in the configuration of vPC+? (Choose three.)
A. FabricPath switch ID must be configured under the vPC domain.
B. Virtual switch ID of vPC+ must be configured under FabricPath domain.
C. On Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, F1 interfaces must be used as the vPC+ peer links.
D. The vPC+ peer link must be configured as a Cisco FabricPath core port (switchport mode fabricpath).
E. FabricPath subswitch ID must be configured under the vPC domain.

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 30
Smart Call Home provides an email-based notification for critical system policies. A range of message formats are available for compatibility with pager services, standard email, or XML- based automated parsing applications. Destination profiles are used by Smart Call Home when sending notifications. Which of these are predefined destination profiles supported by Cisco NX-OS Software? (Choose three.)
A. short-text-destination
B. prerecorded audio alerts
C. CiscoTAC-1
D. dial911
E. full-text-destination

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 31
After configuring FabricPath, the following appears in the syslog:
%STP-2-L2GW_BACKBONE_BLOCK: L2 Gateway Backbone port inconsistency blocking port port-channel100 on VLAN0010. What is the cause of this message?
A. STP must be disabled; message indicates that STP is enabled.
B. STP is misconfigured; root guard must be disabled.
C. An inferior BPDU is received on a Cisco FabricPath edge port.
D. A superior BPDU is received on a Cisco FabricPath edge port.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 32
Which description is correct for a private VLAN community port with respect to Layer 2 communications?
A. It communicates with all other community ports in the private VLAN domain.
B. It communicates with only isolated ports in the private VLAN domain.
C. It communicates only with other community ports in the same community and associated promiscuous ports.
D. It communicates only with associated promiscuous and isolated ports.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
On Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch Cisco FabricPath domain, one switch becomes the root for the multidestination tree. Cisco FabricPath IS-IS will automatically select root switches for each multidestination tree. One of the parameters used to select the root is system ID. Which statements are true about system ID? (Choose two.)
A. System ID is a unique 12-bit SID.
B. System ID is a 48-bit value composed of the VDC MAC address.
C. Higher system ID is preferred.
D. Lower system ID is preferred.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 34
Which two are benefits of using remote AAA services for Cisco Nexus products? (Choose two.)
A. They make it easier to manage user logins and passwords across devices.
B. They enable automated configuration backup for devices.
C. They centrally manage user attributes and permissions.
D. Local console access is never included in AAA and can be used for access when the AAA servers are down.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 35
What tasks can only be performed in the default or admin VDC?
A. EPLD upgrade, IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration, and rolling back a checkpoint
B. EPLD upgrade, Cisco IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration, and ACL capture enablement
C. EPLD upgrade, Cisco IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration and SNMP configuration
D. EPLD upgrade, Cisco IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration, and write erase
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 36
What does the mac packet-classify command do when applied to an interface configuration?
A. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to only IP packets that enter the interface.
B. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to only non-IP packets that enter the interface.
C. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to all packets that enter the interface.
D. It enables MAC ACLs to be used for QoS settings.

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 50
Refer to the graphic. Which configuration statements match the debug output shown above?

A. crypto isakmp policy 100 encr aes authentication rsa-encr group 5
B. crypto isakmp policy 100 encr 3des authentication pre-share group 2
C. crypto isakmp policy 100 hash md5 authentication rsa-sig
D. crypto isakmp policy 100 encr des lifetime 7200
E. crypto isakmp policy 100 hash md5 group 1 lifetime 7200

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
Within a PPP environment, what does protocol multiplexing refer to?
A. the ability to provide load balancing functionality over multiple WAN links
B. the capability to build up and tear down multiple Layer 3 protocol sessions over a single data link
C. the ability to allow link partners to dynamically negotiate link options, including authentication and compression
D. the ability to reduce the size of data frames being transmitted over network links

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the output of the debug ppp negotiation command shown?

A. IPCP was opened.
B. The “MagicNumber” is sent by both ends to detect loopbacks.
C. The routers have successfully authenticated with both PAP and CHAP
D. An authentication protocol could not be agreed upon by both routers.
E. The call was placed by this router.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
When CBWFQ is being used, what is 25 percent of the total available bandwidth reserved for?
A. the highest priority class
B. routing traffic
C. low volume traffic
D. high volume traffic
E. delay sensitive traffic

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
Refer to the exhibit. Given the partial configuration for a Cisco 6400, which statement about the default encapsulation is true?

A. Interface ATM 0/0/0 is using the default encapsulation.
B. Interface ATM 0/0/0.1 is using the default encapsulation
C. Interface ATM 0/0/0.4 is using the default encapsulation.
D. None of the ATM interfaces are using the default encapsulation.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
While troubleshooting a DSL connectivity issue, the administrator issued the show dsl interface command and received the output shown in the exhibit. Additionally, issuing the show interface command showed that the ATM interface was down and the line protocol was down. Given this information, what could be the problem?

A. An incorrect power supply is being utilized.
B. Incorrect VPI/VCI values are configured on the router.
C. PPP negotiation with the remote router failed.
D. DHCP services failed to assign a valid IP.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
Which statement is true about the exhibited output from a debug ppp negotiation command?

A. The negotiation was unsuccessful.
B. This router received the initial request to establish a connection.
C. Router As1 requested callback.
D. CHAP was rejected by the neighboring router as the authentication protocol

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
Please reference the above configuration. The 806 router E1 interface is connected to a cable modem and the E0 interface is connected to an end-user PC. The end-user PC is having Internet connectivity issues. What could be the cause of the problem?

A. The IRB configuration is missing.
B. The port address translation (PAT) configuration is not correct.
C. The access-list 102 configuration is not correct.
D. The DHCP server configuration is not correct.
E. The IP address command on the E0 and E1 interfaces is wrong.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
A company would like to provide VPN security between its remote sites. After reviewing company requirements, you recommend that the company protect the entire original IP packet by encrypting it and encapsulating it inside a new, unencrypted IP header. The unencrypted header will be used to route the packet through the Internet.
Which mode will accomplish this task?
A. IPSec mode
B. transport mode
C. channel mode
D. tunnel mode
E. host-to-host mode

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
Examine the configuration.
When using CBWFQ, what will happen to UDP packets if their destination queue is full?
A. The router will send a BECN message to the host
B. The packet will be sent to the class-default queue
C. The host will resend the packet if it does not receive an ACK message
D. Tail dropping will occur.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
How can an ISDN interface be used as a backup link for a primary interface and still use DDR to communicate with other sites?
A. By using dialer profiles.
B. An ISDN interface cannot be both.
C. With the command backup interface serial 0/0 on the bri0/0 interface along with normal DDR commands.
D. With the command backup interface bri 0/0 on the physical interface and normal DDR commands on the bri0/0 interface.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
The configuration of the 827 ADSL router depends on the encapsulation method used for the ADSL connection. What are the three common encapsulation methods? (Choose three.)
A. PPPoE
B. PPPoA
C. HDLC over ATM
D. DOCSIS
E. RFC 1483 Bridged
F. IP over ATM

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
LCP is responsible for the negotiation of which function?
A. IP address
B. modulo size
C. error correction
D. frequency on the link

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
Based on the above configuration, which statement is true?

A. The backup interface will be used when traffic reaches 80 kbps on the primary interface.
B. The backup interface will be disabled when the combined load on the primary and backup interfaces is less than 10%.
C. The backup interface will be disabled when the combined load on the primary and backup interfaces is less than 80 kbps.
D. The backup interface will be disabled when the load on the primary interface is less than 10%.
E. The backup interface will be disabled when the load on the primary interface is less than 80 kbps.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
How are multiple logical Frame Relay VCs supported on the same physical serial connection?
A. The DTE channelizes the bandwidth into multiple 64K circuits, each supporting a separate VC.
B. The DTE encapsulates packets with a header containing an identifier for each VC.
C. The DCE provides multiple time slots in which to send specific VC data streams.
D. The Frame Relay switch uses inverse ARP to map the Layer 3 address to a DLCI for each VC.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
If CBWFQ is being used, which three commands can be configured within each traffic class? (Choose three.)
A. bandwidth
B. service-policy
C. queue-limit
D. priority
E. random-detect

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 66
Refer to the exhibit. What is true about the exhibited configuration?

A. BRI0/0 will receive its dialer configuration from Dialer0.
B. BRI0/0 is not configured to be a member of the rotary group defined by Dialer0.
C. BRI0/0 must be configured for PPP before it can join the rotary group.
D. BRI0/0 cannot join the rotary group until the dialer pool 1 command is entered on Dialer0.
E. The dialer load-threshold command is required for BRI0/0 to bind with Dialer0.
F. The dialer in-band command invalidates the ISDN rotary group configuration.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 67
Which command must be used in order for PPP authentication to work with a dialer profile?
A. dialer string
B. dialer remote-name
C. dialer pool-member
D. dialer map

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 68
Which timer is reset to the maximum configured value every time an interesting packet is forwarded across the link?
A. wait for carrier timer
B. dialer idle timer
C. dialer enable timer
D. busy timer

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
By default, what is the maximum percentage of bandwidth CBWFQ allocates for all classes of traffic?
A. 25
B. 50
C. 75
D. 90

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 70
Which dial feature provides reliable connectivity, does not rely on defined interesting traffic to trigger outgoing calls to the remote router, and is triggered by a lost route?
A. dialer backup
B. floating static routes
C. dialer watch
D. dialer route

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 71
Which two statements are true about the application of the backup interface command? (Choose two.)
A. The backup interface is in standby mode until activated.
B. A Fast Ethernet interface can be used as a backup interface.
C. The backup interface can be used to load balance.
D. Both primary and backup routes appear in the route table. The backup route, however, has a higher administrative distance.
E. Each primary interface can have up to three backup interfaces.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 72
Given the partial configuration, what function does the command dialer watch-group 8 have?

A. Any IP traffic, except OSPF traffic, will cause interface BRI0 to dial RouterB.
B. When the watched route, 172.22.53.0/24, is removed from the routing table and there is no other valid route, dialer watch then initiates a call to RouterB.
C. When the watched route, 172.22.53.0/24, is removed from the routing table, regardless of whether there is another valid route pointing to an interface other than interface BRI0, dialer watch initiates the call to RouterB.
D. When the load threshold is met and any IP traffic, except OSPF traffic, is destined for 172.22.53.0/24 network, the dialer watch will initiate the call to RouterB.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 73
Refer to the displayed configuration.
The 827 ADSL router is supposed to be setup as a PPPoE client. The user PCs behind the 827 are having Internet connectivity issues. What could be the cause of the problem?

A. The vpdn-group pppoe configuration is not correct.
B. The port address translation (PAT) configuration is not correct
C. The access-list 101 configuration is not correct.
D. For interface Dialer0, the IP MTU size should be 1500.
E. The default static route should be pointing to the ATM0 interface

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 74
Examine the following configuration of an 827 ADSL router set up as a PPPoE client:
interface Dialer0 ip address negotiated ip nat outside encapsulation ppp dialer pool 1 ppp chap hostname [email protected] ppp chap password cisco
What is missing under the Interface Dialer0 configuration?
A. request-dialin
B. request-dialout
C. ip mtu 1492
D. ip mtu 1500
E. dsl operating-mode auto
F. protocol pppoe

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 51
Which three statements describe automatically supported, basic zone features (no additional configuration required) in the Cisco MDS 9000 Family of switches? (Choose three.)
A. A VSAN contains the zone sets.
B. Zone reactivation can disrupt existing traffic.
C. A zone or zone set with the same name can exist in each VSAN.
D. Hard zoning can be disabled.
E. Active zone sets are preserved across switch reboots.
F. Default zoning behavior is to distribute the Full Zone Database.

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
A system administrator suspects possible host/device connectivity problems.The show interface command
displays the fc1/5 interface in VSAN 200 as Administratively Down.
Drag and drop the next troubleshooting commands the administrator should enter in order from top to
bottom.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 53
After performing the initial switch configuration by running the setup utility, an administrator notices that ports configured to connect to other Cisco MDS 9000 switches invariably come up as E_Ports rather than TE_Ports. Which error was made at initial configuration?
A. VSAN capabilities were not enabled.
B. Default switchport trunk mode was set to auto.
C. Full zoneset distribution was not enabled.
D. Default switchport trunk mode was set to on.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
Drag the backup technology on the left to its respective definition on the right.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 55
Host1 and Storage1 are in VSAN 10 and have been communicating successfully. An administrator creates and activates an IVR zoneset enabling Host1 and Storage2 to communicate. Unexpectedly, after this new IVR zoneset is activated, Host1 loses connectivity with Storage1.
Why did this happen?

A. The default zone policy in VSAN 10 is set to permit.
B. The zoneset distribution policy for VSAN 10 is set to full.
C. Standard zones and IVR zones cannot coexist in the same VSAN.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
Which MDS 9000 feature is defined by a standard specification that enables various network monitors and console systems to exchange network-monitoring data?
A. RMON
B. SNMPv3
C. SNMP
D. POST

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
Reference the exhibit.
A customer has lost communication with a host. The customer enters the show interface command for the
port with the host connection. Given the output from the show interface command in the above exhibit,
which steps should the customer perform to continue troubleshooting the port?

A. switch # show vsan membership if the port does not appear in a VSAN switch(config-if)# shutdown switch(config-if)# no shutdown
B. switch# show flogi database vsan 200 if the port does not appear in VSAN 200 switch(config-if)# shutdown switch(config-if)# no shutdown
C. switch# show flogi database if the port does not appear in the FLOGI database switch# debug fcns events register vsan 99 switch(config-if)# shutdown switch(config-if)# no shutdown
D. switch# show environment if the port does not appear in the output switch# debug fcns events register vsan 99 switch(config-if)# shutdown switch(config-if)# no shutdown

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
What is the result of entering the command: switch (config-role-vsan)# permit vsan 15-20?
A. The command adds the permission for this role to perform commands for VSANs 15 through 20. All other configured VSANs in this role would be denied.
B. The command removes the permission for this role to perform commands or VSANs 15 and 20. All other configured VSANs in this role would be permitted.
C. The command removes permission for all VSANs in this role.
D. It is not a valid command since the command must be entered at the switch (config-role-policy-vsan)# level.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
Drag the TCP/IP configuration command on the left to the appropriate result on the right.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 60
What is the default policy when defining role-based access for a VSAN?
A. Deny
B. Permit
C. Permit only for the default VSAN.
D. There is no default role policy for a VSAN.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
An administrator determines that Sender 1 is generating traffic faster than Receiver 1 can process it. To reduce the amount of traffic entering the fabric, the administrator turns on FCC on both switches. What will be the effect of this action if Switch 2 detects congestion caused by excessive traffic being sent from Sender 1 to Receiver 1?

A. Switch 2 will send a quench message to Switch 1, which will use Fibre Channel flow control to reduce ingress traffic at fc1/3.
B. No effect will take place because FCC is only effective if the sender and receiver are on the same switch.
C. Switch 1 will temporarily shut down fc1/3.
D. There will be no effect because FCC quench messages are only sent across TE_Ports and EISLs.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
A customer wants to prioritize only traffic going from pWWN
23:15:00:05:30:00:2a:1f to FCID 0x12ee00.
Which set of commands will classify the appropriate traffic?

A. switch(config)# qos enable switch(config)# qos class-map MyClass switch(config)# qos class-map MyClass match-any switch(config-cmap)# match source-wwn 23:15:00:05:30:00:2a:1f switch(config-cmap)# match destination-address 0x12ee00
B. switch(config)# qos enable switch(config)# qos class-map MyClass switch(config-cmap)# match source-wwn 23:15:00:05:30:00:2a:1f switch(config-cmap)# match destination-address 0x12ee00
C. switch(config)# qos enable switch(config)# qos class-map MyClass switch(config)# qos class-map MyClass match-all switch(config-cmap)# match destination-address 0x12ee00
D. switch(config)# qos enable switch(config)# qos class-map MyClass switch(config)# qos class-map MyClass match-all switch(config-cmap)# match destination-wwn 23:15:00:05:30:00:2a:1f switch(config-cmap)# match destination-address 0x12ee00

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
The output from the switch show interface command indicates that the link from a host comes up as an FL_Port. The switch port is configured as auto. Which three of these HBA configurations could cause this scenario? (Choose three.)
A. the HBA is configured as an N_Port
B. the HBA is configured as an NL_Port
C. the HBA supports only NL mode
D. the HBA is configured as a TE_Port
E. the HBA supports only FC-AL technology
F. the HBA is configured as an TL_Port

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
Which of these protocols supports in-band SAN management?
A. FCIP
B. IPFC
C. FC-SP
D. FCC

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
Drag the Cisco analysis tool on the left to its appropriate description on the right.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 66
What MDS feature can be used to notify an administrator or call center that a serious event has occurred in the fabric?
A. Call Home
B. FCC
C. FLOGI
D. Logging
E. SPAN

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
Reference the exhibit.
After configuring zones, a server no longer has visibility to the storage devices. No ports show as isolated.
The zone set has been activated in the proper VSAN, but the show zoneset active command displays only
the pWWN of the server HBA without its associated storage.

What is the probable cause of the storage not being visible?
A. The storage pwwn 20:00:00:e0:69:41:a0:12 was not added to zone-hr by mistake.
B. The server pwwn 20:00:00:e0:69:41:a0:12 was not added to zone-hr by mistake.
C. A zone name was incorrectly typed as Zone-HR in VSAN 2 and added to ZoneSet1 therefore creating a separate zone containing pwwn 50:00:00:20:37:6f:db:aa.
D. The server 50:00:00:20:37:6f:db:aa was administratively added to Zone-HR in vsan 2 by mistake.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 68
A customer is having performance problems in their SAN. The customer has multiple physical fabrics and would like to track and compare the device read-write I/O and LUN use for the last seven days.
Which group of MDS 9000 tools should the customer acquire and configure?
A. Cisco Fabric Manager, Cisco Performance Manager, Cisco Traffic Analyzer
B. Cisco Fabric Manager Server and Fabric Manager Server License, Cisco Performance Manager, Cisco Traffic Analyzer, PAA
C. Cisco Fabric Manager, Cisco Performance Manager, Cisco Traffic Analyzer, PAA
D. Cisco Fabric Manager Server, Cisco Performance Manager, Cisco Protocol Analyzer, PAA

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
The MDS 9000 family switches use what three technologies to protect against unauthorized management access? (Choose three.)
A. SNMPv3
B. SSH
C. RBAC
D. RMON
E. SES
F. WEBM

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 70
Drag Drop question

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 71
Using the Cisco Fabric Analyzer, which expression will capture and decode the data traffic in a particular VSAN?
A. switch(config)# fcanalyzer local brief display-filter(mdshdr.vsan==0x01)&&((fc.d==\”ff.ff.fe\”\|\|fc.s_id==\”ff.ff.fe\”))
B. switch(config)#fcanalyzer local brief display-filter mdshdr.vsan==0x03e7
C. switch(config)#fcanalyzer local vsan 10
D. Fabric Analyzer does not capture and decode data traffic.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 72
Given a fabric with three different switch vendors, which interop mode must a VSAN be in to interoperate with the other vendor switches?
A. native mode
B. interop mode 1
C. interop mode 2
D. interop mode 3

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 73
Before Call Home can be enabled, which four parameters must be configured? (Choose four.)
A. street address
B. contact person’s phone number
C. contact person’s name (sysContact)
D. interop mode
E. contact person’s e-mail address
F. syslog server address

Correct Answer: ABCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 74
While attempting to add a new Fibre Channel device to port fc7/31, the link fails to initialize. Entering the command show interface fc7/31 returns the following output: fc7/31 is down (Fcot not present). What is the best troubleshooting choice?
A. Verify optical fiber matched with laser type (ex. multimode fiber for shortwave laser and single mode fiber for longwave laser).
B. Verify switch port type is valid for device type.
C. Verify SFP functionality by reseating or replacing.
D. Verify optical fiber continuity with an optical tester.
E. Verify speed configuration on the switch port.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 75
Reference the exhibit. Which option from the Tools menu in the above exhibit would you select to verify connectivity and latency to a Fibre Channel end device?

A. Switch Health
B. Fabric Configuration
C. End to End Connectivity
D. Ping
E. Traceroute

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 50
The corporate LAN shown in the Certkiller network uses IP network 172.28.4.0/22 for all departments. All workstations use 172.28.4.1 as a default gateway address.

In this network, administrators have recently become concerned that excessive broadcasts are slowing network performance. Which change is most likely to reduce broadcast traffic on the corporate LAN?
A. Configure an access control list on the router to prevent broadcast forwarding.
B. Configure each NIC and switch port to operate at full duplex.
C. Change the router-to-switch connection from Fast Ethernet to Gigabit Ethernet.
D. Implement VLANs after creating IP subnets for each department.
E. Increase the number of switches in the network closet of each department.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
The Certkiller LAN is displayed below:

A technician is investigating a problem with the exhibited network. These symptoms have been observed:
1.
None of the user hosts can access the Internet.

2.
None of the user hosts can access the server in VLAN 9.

3.
Host A can ping Host B.

4.
Host A CANNOT ping Host C or Host D.

5.
Host C can ping Host D. What could cause these symptoms?
A. Interface S0/0 on the router is down.
B. Interface Fa1/0 on the router is down.
C. Interface Fa0/5 on Certkiller 3 is down.
D. Certkiller 1 is turned off.
E. Certkiller 3 is turned off.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 52
Which of the following steps are necessary in order to add a new VLAN to the Certkiller switched network? (Select all that apply)
A. Create the VLAN.
B. Name the VLAN.
C. Configure an IP address for the VLAN.
D. Add the desired ports to the new VLAN.
E. Add the VLAN to the VTP domain.
Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 53
You need to create a new VLAN on your Catalyst switch. This VLAN is to be named Certkiller . Which of the following need to be completed for the creation of this new VLAN? (Select all that apply)
A. The Certkiller VLAN must be created.
B. The desired ports must be added to the new Certkiller VLAN.
C. The Certkiller VLAN must be added to all of the domains.
D. The Certkiller VLAN must be named.
E. An IP address must be configured for the Certkiller VLAN.
F. None of the above. VLAN creations are automatic.

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 54
What must the Certkiller network administrator do in order to successfully configure a VLAN trunk between two switches named CK1 and CK2 ? (Select two answer choices)
A. Set each end of the trunk line to IEEE 802.1Q encapsulation.
B. Set the same VTP management domain name on both switches.
C. Set all ports on the two switched as access ports.
D. Configure one of the two switches as a VTP server.
E. Connect the two switches using a rollover cable.
F. Use a router to forward VTP traffic between the VLANs.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 55
After connecting a PC to an available port on a switch, you find that the PC can not access any of the resources on the LAN. No other PC’s connected to the switch appear to be having any issues. What is the most likely cause for this problem?
A. The router lacks a routing table entry for the new host
B. The host switch port is assigned to the incorrect VLAN
C. The host MAC address is incorrectly configured
D. A STP instance for the new host has not been initialized
E. The switch does not have the MAC address hard coded in the CAM table.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 56
The Certkiller network administrator needs to verify that switch interface 0/5 has been assigned to the Marketing VLA.N. Which command will accomplish this task?
A. Show vlan
B. Show mac-address-table
C. Show vtp status
D. show spanning-tree root
E. show ip interface brief
F. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 57
Exhibit: Please study the exhibit shown above carefully. The Certkiller switch that generated this output has 24 ports. Why are some of the ports missing from VLAN1?

A. The missing ports are in VLAN 86.
B. The missing ports are administratively disabled.
C. The missing ports are not participating in spanning tree.
D. The missing ports are configured as trunk ports.
E. The missing ports have a status problem such as a speed or duplex mismatch.
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
You need to configure VLANs on some new Cisco switches in the Certkiller network. Which two statements describe the Cisco implementation of VLANs? (Select two)
A. VLANs 1002 through 1005 are automatically created and cannot be deleted.
B. VLAN 1 is the default Ethernet VLAN.
C. By default, the switch IP address is in VLAN 1005.
D. CDP advertisments are only sent on VLAN 1002.
E. VLAN 100 is the default Ethernet VLAN.

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 59
Exhibit:

You configure a new Certkiller switch as shown. Which two statements about the configuration of this switch interface are correct? (Select two)
A. A network host can be connected to this interface.
B. The switchport belongs only to VLAN 2.
C. The exhibit shows interface fa0/0 to be dynamically mapped to VLAN 2.
D. Interface fa0/0 will be in both VLAN 1 (by default) and VLAN 2.
E. This command is invalid as all access ports must reside in VLAN1.

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 60
A new trunk has been configured on a switch in the Certkiller LAN. By default, which VLANs are allowed over this trunk link?
A. No VLANs
B. Only the VLANs that are specified when creating the trunk
C. Only VLANs 1-64
D. All VLANs
E. All VLAN’s except VLAN 1
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 61
The Certkiller network administrator has just issued the “switchport trunk native vlan 998” command on switch CK2 . What is the function of this command?
A. It designates VLAN 998 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic
B. It designates VLAN 998 for untagged traffic
C. It blocks VLAN 998 traffic from passing on the trunk
D. It creates a VLAN 998 interface
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 62
Part of the Certkiller switched LAN is shown in the following exhibit:

As a network associate for Certkiller , you need to configure the switches and router in the graphic shown above so that the hosts in VLAN3 and VLAN4 can communicate with the enterprise server ( Certkiller E) in VLAN2. To accomplish this, which two Ethernet segments would need to be configured as trunk links? (Choose two)
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
F. F
Correct Answer: CF
QUESTION 63
You are bringing up a new Certkiller switch, and wish to connect it via a trunk to another switch from a different vendor, which uses the IEEE standard for the trunking method. When setting the encapsulation type on the trunk, what should you configure on the Cisco switch?
A. Switch(config)# switchport trunk encapsulation isl
B. Switch(config)# switchport trunk encapsulation ietf
C. Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation isl
D. Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation ietf
E. Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 64
A new switch is being installed in the Certkiller network and you have been assigned the task of connecting it to an existing switch. In doing this, you want to set up the VLAN Trunking Protocol so that VLAN information can be passed between the switches. Which of the following must you do to accomplish this? (Choose all that apply).
A. You must set each end of the trunk line to IEEE 802.1e encapsulation.
B. You must set the same VTP management domain name on both switches.
C. You must set all ports on the two switches as access ports.
D. You must configure one of the switches as a VTP server.
E. You must use a rollover cable to connect the two switches.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 65
A new Certkiller switch is installed into an existing LAN and a new VTP trunk is set up with an existing switch. Which VLANs will be allowed on this new trunk?
A. All defined VLANs are allowed on the trunk by default.
B. Each VLAN, or VLAN range, that is specified with the switchport mode command.
C. Each VLAN, or VLAN range, that is specified with the vtp domain command.
D. Each VLAN, or VLAN range, that is specified with the vlan database command.
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 66
You need to decide on which trunking method to implement in the Certkiller network. What is a characteristic of ISL and 802.1q frame tagging in a switched LAN environment?
A. They are used to find the best path through a network.
B. They allow the exchange of filtering tables.
C. They specify different implementations of the Spanning-Tree Protocol.
D. They allow the exchange of routing tables
E. They provide inter-switch VLAN communication.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 67
Which one of the following protocols allows the information about the configuration of a new VLAN to be distributed across entire switched network?
A. STP
B. VTP
C. EIGRP
D. SNMP
E. CDP
F. None of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 68
Which encapsulation types are configurable on a Cisco switch for a trunk? (Select two answer choices)
A. VTP
B. ISL
C. CDP
D. 802.1Q
E. 802.1p

F. LLC
G. IETF
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 69
You need to configure an 802.1Q link on a Certkiller switch. Which commands, when used together, would do this? (Select two answer choices)
A. Switch(vlan)# mode trunk
B. Switch(config)# switchport access mode trunk
C. Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
D. Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
E. Switch(config)# switchport access mode 1
F. Switch(vlan)# trunk encapsulation dot1q

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 70
Which of the following are VLAN frame encapsulation types that may be configured on a Catalyst switch? (Choose two.)
A. VTP
B. ISL
C. CDP
D. 802.1Q
E. 802.1p

F. LLC
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 71
There are 2 switches in the Certkiller LAN, with no routers. Ports 1, 2 & 3 are assigned to VLAN 1 in switch 1 and 2 and ports 4, 5 & 6 are assigned to VLAN 2 in both switches. These two switches are connected together via a trunked link. Which of the conditions below would verify trunk and VLAN operation? (Select all valid answers)
A. Host 1 on VLAN 1 can ping Host 2 on VLAN 1
B. Host 1 on VLAN 1 can ping Host 4 on VLAN 2
C. Host 1 on VLAN 1 can not ping Host 2 on VLAN 1
D. Host 4 on VLAN 2 can not ping Host 1 on VLAN 1
E. Host 4 on VLAN 2 can ping Host 2 on VLAN 2

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 72
Two Certkiller switches are connected as shown below:

Please study the exhibit carefully. Configuration of both switches has been completed. During testing, the network administrator notices that users on SwitchA can not connect with users in the same VLAN on SwitchB. What should be done to solve this problem?
A. Ensure that the IP address of SwitchA is on the same network as the IP address of SwitchB.
B. Ensure that the same interface number is used to connect both switches.
C. Ensure that the ports connecting the two switches are configured to trunk.
D. Ensure that SwitchA and SwitchB are connected with a straight-through cable.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 73
The Certkiller network is displayed in the diagram below:

A network associate is trying to understand the operation of the Certkiller network by studying the graphic.
All hosts are able to reach the enterprise server on VLAN4. The associate needs to determine which
interfaces are functioning as a trunk ports.
Which of the interfaces are trunks? (Choose two)

A. Switch1 – Fa0/2
B. Switch1 – Fa0/9
C. Switch2 – Fa0/3
D. Switch2 – Fa0/4
E. Switch2 – Fa0/6
F. Router – Fa1/0

Correct Answer: BF QUESTION 74
Network topology exhibit:

Certkiller 3 configuration exhibit:

Certkiller 4 configuration exhibit:

You work as a network administrator at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibits carefully. Certkiller connects two different office segments, supporting two VLANs through the two switches shown in the exhibit. Inter-VLAn communications is not required. The network is working properly and there is full connectivity. Certkiller needs to add additional VLANs, so it has been decided to implement VTP. Both switches are configured as VTP servers in the same VTP domain. VLANs added to Certkiller 3 are not learned by Certkiller 4. Based on this information and the partial configurations in the exhibit, what is the problem?
A. STP has blocked one of the links between the switches, limiting connectivity.
B. Certkiller 4 should be configured as a VTP client.
C. The links between the switches are access links.
D. VTP is Cisco proprietary and requires a different trunking encapsulation.
E. A router is required to route VTP advertisements between the switches.
F. None of the above.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 75
Two Certkiller hosts reside in different VLANs as shown below:

The Certkiller network shown in the diagram above is experiencing connectivity problems. Which of the following will correct the problems? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the gateway on Host Certkiller A as 10.1.1.1
B. Configure the IP Address of Host Certkiller B as 10.1.2.2
C. Configure the IP Address of Host Certkiller A as 10.1.2.2
D. Configure the gateway on host Certkiller B as 10.1.2.254

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 76
A Certkiller network is shown below:

Based on the information shown above, what commands must be configured on the Certkiller switch and the router to allow communication between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two)
A. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config-if)# no shut down
B. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# no shutdown Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.1 Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2 Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 20 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
C. Router(config)# router eigrp 100 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.20.0
D. Switch1(config)# vlan database Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp domain XYZ Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp server
E. Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
F. Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1 Switch1(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 77
Two Certkiller devices are connected as shown below:

The Certkiller network administrator needs to add a new VLAN, named VLAN3, to the network shown above. Unfortunately, there is not another FastEthernet interface on CK1 to connect to the new VLAN3. Which approach is the most cost effective solution for this problem?
A. Purchase a new FastEthernet module and install it on CK1 .
B. Replace CK1 with a new router that has at least three FastEthernet interfaces.
C. Configure a second switch to support VLAN3 with a VLAN trunk between SW1 and the new switch.
D. Configure a single VLAN trunk between CK1 and SW1 and configure a subinterface on the CK1 interface for each VLAN.
E. Connect another router to a serial interface of CK1 . Use a FastEthernet interface on the new router for VLAN3.
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 78
The Certkiller Network consists of a router, switch, and hub as shown below:

In accordance with the above diagram; which of the statements below correctly describe the switch port configuration and the router port configurations? (Select three answer choices)
A. The Certkiller 1 WAN port is configured as a trunking port.
B. The Certkiller 1 port connected to Switch1 is configured using subinterfaces.
C. The Certkiller 1 port connected to Switch1 is configured as 10 Mbps.
D. The Switch1 port connected to Certkiller 1 is configured as a trunking port.
E. The Switch1 port connected to Host B is configured as an access port.
F. The switch1 port connected to Hub1 is configured as full duplex.
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 79

A Certkiller router is configured as shown in the graphic above. The switch is connected to the router over
a VLAN trunk. The switch has been configured with three VLANs: VLAN1, VLAN2, and VLAN3. In addition,
the IP address of the switch is 192.168.1.2. A host is being added to the switch on VLAN 2.
What is the correct default gateway for this computer?

A. 192.168.1.1
B. 192.168.1.2
C. 192.168.2.1
D. 192.168.2.2
E. 192.168.3.1
F. 192.168.3.2
G. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 80
A portion of the Certkiller network is displayed below:

Host A in the graphic is connected to a switch port assigned to VLAN 1. Which two settings on host A are required to allow connectivity with Host B on VLAN 2? (Choose two)
A. IP address: 192.1.1.66 255.255.255.240
B. IP address: 192.1.1.130 255.255.255.192
C. IP address: 192.1.1.142 255.255.255.240
D. Default gateway: 192.1.1.129
E. Default gateway: 192.1.1.65
F. Default gateway: 192.1.1.1

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 81
Part of the Certkiller WAN is shown below:

Certkiller 2 configuration exhibit:

In this network segment, the Certkiller network administrator has created a new VLAN on Certkiller 1 and added host Certkiller C and host Certkiller D. This administrator has properly configured switch interfaces FastEthernet0/13 through FastEthernet0/24 to be members of the new VLAN. However, after the network administrator completed the configuration, host Certkiller A could communicate with host Certkiller B, but host Certkiller A could not communicate with host Certkiller C or host Certkiller D. Which commands are required to resolve this problem?
A. Certkiller 2(config)# router rip Certkiller 2(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 Certkiller 2(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 Certkiller 2(config-router)# network 192.168.3.0
B. Certkiller 2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1.3 Certkiller 2(config-if)# encapsulation dot1q 3 Certkiller 2(config-if)# ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0
C. Certkiller 1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 Certkiller 1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk Certkiller 1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation isl
D. Certkiller 1# vlan database Certkiller 1(vlan)# vtp v2-mode Certkiller 1(vlan)# vtp domain Certkiller Certkiller 1(vlan)# vtp server
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 82
Part of the Certkiller network is shown below: Based on the information provided above, which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in this Certkiller network segment? (Choose two)

A. Router Certkiller 3 and Switch Certkiller 2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
B. Host Certkiller E and host Certkiller F use the same IP gateway address.
C. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router Certkiller 3 and Switch Certkiller 2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.
D. Router Certkiller 3 will not play a role in communications between host Certkiller A and host Certkiller
D.
E. Router Certkiller 3 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router Certkiller 3 must be configured using subinterfaces.

Correct Answer: CF
QUESTION 83
The Certkiller network administrator cannot connect to Switch CK1 over a Telnet session, although the hosts attached to Switch CK1 can ping the interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given the information shown below and assuming that the router and Switch2 are configured properly, which of the following commands should be issued on Switch CK1 to correct this problem? Exhibit:

A. Switch CK1 (config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.24.1
B. Switch CK1 (config)# interface fa0/1 Switch CK1 (config-if)# ip address 192.168.24.3 255.255.255.0
C. Switch CK1 (config)# line con0 Switch CK1 (config-line)# password cisco
Switch CK1 (config-line)#login
D. Switch CK1 (config)# interface fa0/1 Switch CK1 (config-if)# duplex full Switch CK1 (config-if)# speed 100
E. Switch CK1 (config)# interface fa0/1 Switch CK1 (config-if)# switchport mode trunk
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 84
The Certkiller network administrator has issued the “VTP password Certkiller ” command on a Cisco device. What is the purpose of this command?
A. It allows two VTP servers to exists in the same domain, each configured with different passwords
B. It is the password required when promoting a switch from VTP client mode to VTP server mode
C. It is used to access the VTP server to make changes to the VTP configuration
D. It is used to validate the sources of VTP advertisements sent between switches
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 51
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is troubleshooting a connectivity problem on R2. The technician enters the show cdp neighbors command at the R2 console. If the network is composed only of Cisco devices, for which devices should entries be displayed?

A. R1
B. SW-B and R1
C. SW-B, R1, and SW-C
D. R3, SW-B, R1, and SW-C
E. SW-A, R3, SW-B, R1, and SW-C
F. Host A, SW-A, R3, SW-B, R1, and SW-C

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 52
A network administrator issues the ping 192.168.2.5 command and successfully tests connectivity to a host that has been newly connected to the network. Which protocols were used during the test? (Choose two.)
A. ARP
B. CDP
C. DHCP
D. DNS
E. ICMP

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 53
Refer to the exhibit. A technician has configured the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Sw11 as an access link in VLAN 1. Based on the output from the show vlan brief command issued on Sw12, what will be the result of making this change on Sw11?

A. Only the hosts in VLAN 1 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
B. The hosts in all VLANs on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
C. Only the hosts in VLAN 10 and VLAN 15 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
D. Hosts will not be able to communicate between the two switches.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 54
Refer to the exhibit. A technician has installed SwitchB and needs to configure it for remote access from the management workstation connected to SwitchA. Which set of commands is required to accomplish this task?

A. SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1 SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
B. SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1 SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0 witchB(config-if)# no shutdown
C. SwitchB(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1 SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
D. SwitchB(config)# ip default-network 192.168.8.254 SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

E. SwitchB(config)# ip route 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1 SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 55
The network administrator has configured NAT as shown in the graphic. Clients still cannot access the Internet. What should the network administrator do to resolve this problem?

A. Configure an IP NAT address pool.
B. Properly configure the ACL.
C. Apply the ip nat command to the S0 interface.
D. Configure the ip nat inside and ip nat outside commands on the interfaces.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
Drag Drop A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 57
Refer to the output of the two show commands in the exhibit. If an administrator tries to ping host 10.1.8.5 from host 10.1.6.100, how will the ICMP packets be processed by Router A?

A. The packets will be discarded.
B. The packets will be routed out the S0/0 interface.
C. The packets will be routed out the S0/1 interface.
D. The packets will be routed out the Fa0/0 interface.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
Drag Drop A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 59
Refer to the exhibit. How can a network administrator ensure that the STP election process would result in Switch B being elected as the root switch?

A. Clear the Switch B STP revision number.
B. Assign Switch B a low priority number.
C. Increase the Switch B priority number.
D. Change the MAC address of Switch B.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 60
A network associate is trying to understand the operation of the FLD Corporation by studying the network in the exhibit. The associate knows that the server in VLAN 4 provides the necessary resources to support the user hosts in the other VLANs. The associate needs to determine which interfaces are access ports. Which interfaces are access ports? (Choose three.)

A. Switch1 – Fa 0/2
B. Switch1 – Fa 0/9
C. Switch2 – Fa 0/3
D. Switch2 – Fa 0/4
E. Switch2 – Fa 0/8
F. Router – Fa 1/0

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 61
What is the media access method used by Gigabit Ethernet?
A. CSMA/CA
B. CSMA/CD
C. token passing
D. point-to-point
E. logical link control

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 62
Which of the following statements are true regarding the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4? (Choose two.)
A. The command is used to establish a static route.
B. The default administrative distance is used.
C. The command is used to configure the default route.
D. The subnet mask for the source address is 255.255.255.0.
E. The command is used to establish a stub network.

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 63
The company internetwork is subnetted using 29 bits. Which wildcard mask should be used to configure an extended access list to permit or deny access to an entire subnetwork?
A. 255.255.255.224
B. 255.255.255.248
C. 0.0.0.224
D. 0.0.0.8
E. 0.0.0.7
F. 0.0.0.3

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 64
Refer to the topology and partial router configurations shown in the exhibit. The network is fully operational and all routing tables are converged. Which route will appear in the output of the show ip route command issued on the Branch router?

A. S* 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 192.168.10.82
B. R 172.16.11.4/30 [120/1] via 192.168.10.82, 00:00:22, Serial0/0
C. R 192.168.10.80/30 [120/0] via 192.168.10.81, 00:00:22, Serial0/0
D. R 192.168.11.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.10.81, 00:00:22, Serial0/0
E. C 192.168.12.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 65
Which wild card mask will enable a network administrator to permit access to the Internet for only hosts that are assigned an address in the range of 192.168.8.0 through 192.168.15.255?
A. 0.0.0.0
B. 0.0.0.255
C. 0.0.255.255
D. 0.0.7.255
E. 0.0.3.255

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 66
Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct addressing for a frame and packet received by Host B from Host A?

A. Destination MAC: 0011.43da.2c98 Source MAC: 0070.0e8f.088a Destination IP: 192.168.60.5 Source IP: 192.168.24.5
B. Destination MAC: 0011.43da.2c98 Source MAC: 00b0.d0ef.5f6a Destination IP: 192.168.60.5 Source IP: 192.168.24.5
C. Destination MAC: 0011.43da.2c98 Source MAC: 0070.0e8f.088a Destination IP: 192.168.60.5 Source IP: 192.168.60.1
D. Destination MAC: 0011.43da.2c98 Source MAC: 0070.0e97.af4e Destination IP: 192.168.60.5 Source IP: 192.168.60.2

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 67
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the entire network topology is shown, what is the operational status of the interfaces of R2 as indicated by the command output shown?

A. One interface has a problem.
B. Two interfaces have problems.
C. The interfaces are functioning correctly.
D. The operational status of the interfaces cannot be determined from the output shown.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 68
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the router is configured with the default settings, what type of router interface is this?

A. Ethernet
B. FastEthernet
C. Gigabit Ethernet
D. asynchronous serial
E. synchronous serial

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 69
The show interfaces serial 0/0 command resulted in the output shown in the graphic. What are possible causes for this interface status? (Choose three.)

A. The interface is shut down.
B. No keepalive messages are received.
C. The clockrate is not set.
D. No loopback address is set.
E. No cable is attached to the interface.
F. There is a mismatch in the encapsulation type.

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 70
Refer to the exhibit. A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the exhibit. Which subnet mask should be used to provide valid IP addresses for the number of hosts connected to router A, while wasting the fewest addresses?

A. /24
B. /25
C. /26
D. /27
E. /28
F. /29

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 71
The EIGRP configuration in the Glencoe router uses a single network statement. From the output shown in the graphic, which network statement would advertise these networks in EIGRP?

A. network 172.26.168.128 0.0.0.127
B. network 172.26.168.128 area 478
C. network 172.26.0.0
D. network 172.26.168.0 area 478

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 72
The exhibited network is stable and operating properly. Assuming that default STP configurations are running on both switches, which port will be in blocking mode?

A. Port Fa0/1 on Switch1
B. Port Fa0/2 on Switch1
C. Port Fa0/1 on Switch2
D. Port Fa0/2 on Switch2

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 37
UDP Media Channels are identified by
A. 32 bit Source Port Number and 32 bit Destination Port Number.
B. 48 bit MCU Number and the 32 bit Gateway Number.
C. V35 Port and RS449 Port.
D. None of the other alternatives apply..
E. 16 bit Source Port Number and 16 bit Destination Port Number.
F. 32 bit Address or Signaling Port and ISDN Port Number.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 38
The scope of H.225 Standard describes
A. video and audio coders for H.323.
B. the Coding Operation details for video and audio.
C. channel bandwidth sub-division.
D. the means by which audio, video, data, and control are associated, coded, and channelized for transport between H.320 equipment on a channel network.
E. the means by which audio, video, data, and control are associated, coded, and packetized for transport between H.323 equipment on a packet-based network.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 39
The T.127 and T.128 ITU-T Standards are used for which two functions?
A. Video and Audio Switching and Routing.
B. Scan Converter Application
C. Sharing Windows Applications
D. White Boarding Application
E. Multipoint File Transfer Application
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 40
What are the termination impedance and the signal level for PAL video?
A. 75 Ohms and 1Vpp
B. 50 Ohms and 2Vrms
C. 75 Ohms and 1Vrms
D. 50 Ohms and 1Vpp

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
Clocking Hierarchy for Channel Networks from the Public Network to the customer premise station equipment is as follows:
A. Master Clock / Nodal Clock / Local Clock / Recovered Clock
B. Master Clock / Nodal Clock / Recovered Clock / Local Clock
C. Master Clock / Local Clock / Recovered Clock / Nodal Clock
D. Recovered Clock / Nodal Clock / Master Clock

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 42
E1 trunks are capable of supporting up to
A. 5 – 384,000 bit per second connections.
B. 7 – 384,000 bit per second connections.
C. 6 – 384,000 bit per second connections.
D. 4 – 384,000 bit per second connections.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
Which of the following best describes 64,000 bits per second?
A. DS0
B. CEPT1
C. DS1
D. DS3
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
Gatekeeper messages for registration and admission that are successful will always have the Generic
structure as:
(Note – “XX” – is a variable value that represents specific Gatekeeper names)

A. RequestXX, DenyXXC
B. RequestXX, ReplyXX
C. XXRequest, XXConfirm
D. XXRequest, XXAcnowledged
E. XXRequest, XXReply
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
Which test equipment is used to verify ISDN Q.931 messages?
A. Break out Box
B. Protocol Analyzer
C. Bit Error Rate Test set
D. Distortion Analyzer
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
Which of the following describe video dynamics as processed through a videoconference system?
A. Codecs have more restrictive limits than cameras, and the best way to accurately assess the video quality sent to the far-end is to view a video scene fully coded and then decoded.
B. Codecs have the same limits as cameras and therefore will not change the perceived qualities of the video as rendered by the cameras.
C. Cameras react to light the same as ones eye and video monitors accurately render the video information so what one sees by eye is what the far-end sees.
D. Cameras have limits to the range of light levels which can be accommodated and tend to process the darker regions further toward black than what ones eye sees.

Correct Answer: AD

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